Answer Key Tnpsc Answer Key

Tnpsc Group 1 Exam Previous Questions Answer Key 2022 – General Studies in English

December 9, 2022

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Tnpsc Group 1 Exam Previous Questions Answer Key 2022 – General Studies in English

1. The primary contaminant included in cigar smoke is

(a) Carbon monoxide and dioxide

(b) Carbon monoxide and Nicotine

(c) Carbon monoxide and Benzene

(d) Dioxicine and benzene

2. When a ball is projected upwards there is an increase in its

1. Potential Energy.

2. Momentum.

3. Kinetic Energy.

(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (c) 2 only (d) 2 and 3 only

3. Alterations in the environments represent selective pressures upon the population to which it must adjust. This statement infers that

(a) Organisms will increase in population in a changed environment.

(b) Organisms which fail to adjust to the changed environment must vanish

(d) Organisms will change the environment under selective pressure

4. The enzyme involved in unwinding of DNA is

(a) Telomerase (b) Helicase (c) Polymerase (d) Ligase

5. The first step in the seed germination is imbibition of water which induce the

(a) Stimulation of plumule (b) Breaking dormancy (c) Growth of radicle (d) Resumes metabolic activities

6. Which is the stronger acid than phenol due to the presence of three same electron with drawing groups:

i. O-Toluic Acid.

ii. Benzoic acid.

iii. Salicylic Acid.

iv. Picric Acid

(a) iii only (b) i only (c) ii and iv only (d) iv only

7. Which is the one considered to be more important to study the history of science is

(a) Antiquarian Curiosity (b) Logical reasoning

8. Which one of the following phenomenon cause adverse changes in global climate pattern and wreak havoc world wide in the form of floods and droughts?

(a) Carbon Dioxide (b) El-Nino (c) Tropical cyclones (d) Itai-Itai

9. Match the following:

a. Polyethyleneglycol 1. Herbicide

b. Bt Toxin 2. Stress Tolerance

c. Glyphosate 3. Insecticide

d. Proline 4. Cell Fusion

a b c d

a. 3 4 1 2

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 4 1 3 2

d. 4 3 1 2

10. Which of the following statement is/are correct NANOBOTS are:

1. Robots that carry out a very specific function at nano scale level.

2. They can be injected into blood stream

3. They can be used to measure toxic elements in the environment

4. They are very cheap to produce

(a) 1,2 and 4 (b) 1,3 and 4 (c) 1,2 and 3 (d) 1,2,3 and 4

11. ——— was the first mission to be operationalized under the National Action plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)

(a) Solar Cities Programme (SCP) (b) National Solar Mission (NSM)

12. Which biodiversity park in India was announced as the 1^st “Other Effective Area – based Conservation Measures” (OECMs) site?

(a) Tilpath Valley Biodiversity Park (b) Aravalli Biodiversity Park

13. Which of the following are correctly paired:

i. KVK – Kisan Vigyan Kendra

ii. SAME – Sub Mission on Agriculture Extension

iii. NSDA – National Skill Development Agency

iv. ATMA – Agricultural Technology Management Agency

(a) i, ii and iii (b) ii, iii and iv (c) i, iii and iv (d) i,ii, iii and iv

14. How many number of Ramsar sites are identified in India till 15^th August 2022?

(a) 82 (b) 78 (c) 75 (d) 70

15. PM Gatishakti is a transformative approach for economic growth and sustainable Development which focuses on

(a) Educational Development (b) Multimodal Connectivity

16. Which one of the following is NOT an objective of the Union Government’s ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ scheme?

i. Prevention of gender biased sex selective elimination.

ii. Ensuring survival and protection of the Girl child

iii. Ensuring education and participation of the Girl child

iv. Creating a fixe deposit in the name of the Girl child concerned

(a) i only (b) i and ii (c) iii only (d) iv only

17. Read the list given below carefully of dignitaries and find out among them the correct hierarchical order with respect to their rank and precedence.

i. Chief Election Commissioner of India

ii. Cabinet Secretary

iii. Chief of Army Staff

iv. Deputy Speaker, Lok Sabha

(a) iv, iii, i and ii (b) iv, iii, ii and I (c) i, iv, ii and iii (d) i, iii, iv and ii

18. Which is the international coalition of solar-resource rich countries that are collectively addressing common challenges on solar-energy applications?

(a) International Solar Energy Society (ISES)

(b) International Solar Alliance (ISA)

(d) International Energy Agency (IEA)

19. Arrange the following Indian Women Olympic Medal Winners in Chronological order.

1. Saina Nehwal

2. Lovlina Borgohain

3. Sakshi Malik

4. Karnam Malleswari

(a) 2,4,1,3 (b) 1,4,2,3 (c) 4,1,3,2 (d) 4,1,2,3

20. Palmer index is associated with which of the following natural disaster?

(a) Earth Quake (b) Volcano (c) Drought (d) Flood

21. Match the following and choose the correct option related to ISRO:

a. URSC 1. ISRO’S Virtual space Museum

b. ITTP 2. ISRO satellite centre

c. SPARK 3. Space science for school students

d. YUVIKA 4. Technical training for ISRO staff

a b c d

a. 2 3 4 1

b. 3 1 4 2

c. 2 4 1 3

d. 4 3 2 1

22. On April 10, 1802, the Great Trignometrical Survey of India Commenced its work from ——- city

(a) Delhi (b) Calcutta (c) Bombay (d) Madras

23. Carolyn Bertozzi, Morten meldal and Barry sharglers won the 2022 Nobel prize in Chemistry for?

a. For the development of click chemistry and biorthogonal chemistry

b. For discoveries concerning the genomes of extinct hominins and human evolution.

c. For the development of asymmetric organocatalysis

d. For the development of a method for genome editing

24. Match the winner of medal in common wealth games 2022 with their sport.

Player Sport

a. Sharat Kamal 1. Boxing

b. Lakshya sen 2. Weight lifting

c. Mirabai chanu 3. Table Tennis

d. Nikhat Zareen 4. Badminton

a b c d

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 3 4 2 1

c. 4 2 1 3

d. 2 3 4 1

25. Which one of the following Indicator is not used to calculate Human Development Index (HDI)?

(a) Life Expectancy (b) CPI (c) Education Index (d) Per Capita Income

26. “Nambikkai Inaiyam (NI)” a Tamil Nadu Government project about

(a) Statewide Block chain infrastructure

(b) Source of resident data for Tamil Nadu

(d) Providing professional resources and training to decision makers.

27. Which is correct?

i. HYV – High Yielding Varieties

ii. MSP – Maximum Support Prices

iii. PDS – Public Distribution System

iv. IPM – Integrated Pesticide Management

(a) i, ii and iv only (b) i and iii only (c) i,ii and iii only (d) i,iii and iv only

28. Kalaignarin Anaithu Grama Orunginaintha Velan Valarci Thittam aims at

1. Increasing the cultivable area

2. Bringing fallow land under cultivation

3. Changing the crop pattern with introduction of new crops

4. Augmenting water resources

(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct (b) 2,3 and 4 are correct

(c) 1,2 and 4 are correct (d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

29. Match the following:

a. 1997 1. Anaithu Grama Anna Marumalarchi Thittam

b. 1998 2. Varumun Kappom Thittam

c. 2006 3. Samathuvapuram

d. 2009 4. Namakku Naame Thittam

a b c d

a. 3 4 2 1

b. 4 3 2 1

c. 4 1 2 3

d. 3 1 4 2

30. Which among the following is a scheme of Govt. of India for ensuring the safety and dignity of sanitation workers?

(a) Smile (b) Namaste (c) Amber (d) West

31. During which Period Bronze Icons of Nataratja deity with four hands was casted?

(a) Chera Period (b) Chola Period (c) Pandiyas Period (d) Shunga Period

32. Match the following Acts with its corresponding years:

a. Madras Wild Elephants Preservation Act 1. 1882

b. Tamil Nadu Forest Act 2. 1980

c. Forest Conservation Act 3. 1972

d. Wildlife Protection Act 4. 1873

a b c d

a. 1 4 3 2

b. 4 1 2 3

c. 2 3 1 4

d. 3 2 4 1

33. Which of the following statements are true in respect of Dr.Muthulakshmi Reddy?

1. She was the first woman in India to get a degree in medicine.

2. She was the first woman legislator in British India.

3. She was the first female student to be admitted in Maharaja’s college.

4. She was the first woman President of the legislative council.

(a) 1,2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1,2,3 and 4

34. The significance of Tamil Nadu Panchayat Raj (Amendment) Act 2016

(a) Modifiations in three-tier system

(b) Constitution of District Planning Committees

(d) 50 percent reservation for women

35. During the early resistance against the British who issued the “Tiruchirappalli Proclamation”

(a) Veerapandia Kattabomman (b) Velunachiar (c) Maruthu Brothers (d) Puli Thevar

36. Match the following:

Name Related to

a. Swami Sahajananda 1. Oppressed Hindus

b. M.C.Rajah 2. Tamizhan

c. Pandit Iyothee Thass 3. Nandanar Kalvi Kazhagam

d. Veeresalingam 4. The Widows home

a b c d

a. 3 1 2 4

b. 1 3 2 4

c. 1 2 3 4

d. 4 1 2 3

37. Assertion (A) : Human Resources is necessary for the progress of any country.

Reason (R): Investment in education health of people can results in a high rate of returns in the future for a country.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) explains (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) does not explain (A)

(d) (A) is false and (R) is true

38. Which among the following institutions secured No.1 overall rank according to national institutional ranking framework?

(a) IIT, Madras (b) IISC, Bangalore (c) AIIMS, Delhi (d) IIT, Bombay

39. Match:

Tinais Their Gods

a. Kurinji 1. Kali

b. Mullai 2. Murugan

c. Marudam 3. Indra

d. Palai 4. Tirumal

a b c d

a. 3 4 1 2

b. 1 3 4 2

c. 2 4 3 1

d. 4 2 3 1

40. Gandhiji established as ashram at Sabarmathi. Likewise an ashram was established in Tamil Nadu by Rajaji. Where was it established?

(a) Madurai (b) Vedaranyam (c) Salem (d) Thiruchengodu

41. Which of the following statements are true abut Ramalinga Adigal?

i. He started the Samarasa Suddha Sanmarga Satya Sangam in 1865

ii. He was against caste system

iii. He established Satya Dharma Salai in 1867

(a) i is true (b) i and iii are true (c) i,ii and iii are true (d) i and ii are true

42. Find incompatible pair in the following:

(a) Pradhaba Mudhaliar Sarithiram-Vedanayagam Pillai (b) Sugunasundhari-Nadesa Sasthiri

43. In 1921 at Erode, E.V.R picketed toddy shop. Two women also participated in picketing. They were the first women to be arrested for picketing toddy shops in Tamil Nadu. Who were they?

(a) Nagammaiyar and Kannammal (b) Nagammaiyar and Moovalur Ramamirtham Ammaiyar

44. Which of the following are correctly paired?

1. Nizhal Thaankalgal – Vaigunda Swamigal

2. Hindu Progressive Improvement Society – Rajaram Mohan Roy

3. Samarasa Sanmarka Sangam – Vallalar

4. Self Respect Morality – Vedanayagam Pillai

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 4

45. Choose the correct Kural for the explanation given below:

It is more pleasant to hold the dart that has missed an Elephant than that which has targeted the hare in the forest.

(a) Kaana Muyaleydha Ampinil Yaanai

Pizhaiththavel Endhal Inidu

(b) Aakaaru Alavitti Thaayinung Ketillai

Pokaaru Akalaak Katai

Neetti Alappadhor Kol

(d) Ulluvathu Ellam Yuarvullal Matradhu

Thallinum Thallamai Neerthu

46. Match the following books with their authors and find the correct order:

a. Ulagam Sutrum Thamilan 1. Desiya Kavi

b. Gnanaratham 2. Swaminathan

c. Thanneer Thanneer 3. Ve.Ramalingam

d. En Kadhai 4. A.Karuppan

a b c d

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 2 1 3 4

c. 3 4 2 1

d. 4 1 2 3

47. Who said these lines to whom?

“Maarivaram Koorin mannuyir illai

Mannuyir ellam mannaal Vendhan”

(a) Manimegala deity to Udhyakumaran (b) Sudamadhi to Udhyakumaran

48. “Urellam koodi olikka azhuthittu

Perinai neekki pinamenru perittu” – who defined death as a undefiable force?

(a) Appar (b) Thirumoolar (c) Sundarar (d) Manikkavasagar

49. Choose the correct meaning for the following sentences:

1. Palakudai Neezhalum Thankudai keel Kaanbar

2. Iravaar Irapparkku Ondru Ieevar

(a) These two statements appreciates the prowess of the king

(b) These statements appreciates the philanthropists

(c) These two statements eulogizes the farmers

(d) These two statements talks about the humble person

50. Nadaakondro! Kadaakondro!!

avazhi nallai vazhiya nilanae!

Whose character plays an important role in the shaping of the world Emancipation in Purananuru?

(a) Women (Pendir) (b) Men (Aadavar) (c) King (Arasar) (d) Priest (Anthanar)

51. Which Festival was celebrated throughout Tamilaham during the Sangam Age?

(a) Adippooram (b) Onam (c) Navarathriri (d) Thiruvathirai

52. “Kavarum Kazhagamum Kaiyum Tharukki

Ivariyaar Illagi yarr” – to whom does the advice is said in this Kural?

(a) Guards (b) Ambassadors (c) Ministers (d) Kings

53. Match the following with List I with List II:

List I List II

a. Thirumurukarrupadai 1. Mudattamakanniyar

b. Porunaratrupadai 2. Nakkirar

c. Sirupanatrupadai 3. Kapilar

d. Kurunji Pattu 4. Nallur Naththathanar

a b c d

a. 1 3 2 4

b. 1 2 4 3

c. 2 1 4 3

d. 3 2 1 4

54. Find out the missing value in the given figure:

A picture containing engineering drawing

Description automatically generated

(a) 8 (b) 64 (c) 216 (d) 25

55. Find the common ratio for the geometric sequence 0.15, 0.015, 0.0015, —-

(a) 0.1 (b) 0.01 (c) 0.001 (d) 1

56. Find the sum of 1²+ 2² +—— +19²

(a) 2500 (b) 2400 (c) 2470 (d) 2570

57. ‘A’ can finish a work in 18 days and ‘B’ can do same work in half the time taken by ‘A’, then if they work together, then what part of same work they can finish in a day

(a) 1/9 (b) 1/6 (c) 2/7 (d) 2/5

58. The side of a metallic cube is 12 cm. It is melted and formed into a cuboid whose length and breadth are 18 cm and 16 cm respectively. Find the height of the cuboid.

(a) 6 cm (b) 7 cm (c) 8 cm (d) 10 cm

59. The compound interest on Rs.16,000 for 9 months at 20% per annum compounded quarterly is

(a) Rs.2,599 (b) Rs.2,572 (c) Rs.2,522 (d) Rs.2,502

60. In what time period will Rs.10,000 earn an interest of Rs.2,000 at 10% per annum?

(a) 2 years (b) 5 years (c) 6 years (d) 3 years

61. A car travels 90 km in 2 hours 30 minutes. Then the time required to cover 210 km with the same speed is

(a) 5 hours 50 minutes (b) 5 hours 30 minutes (c) 5 hours 20 minutes (d) 6 hours 50 minutes

62. The radius of two right circular cylinder is in the ratio 3:2. The ratios of their heights is 5:3. Then the ratio of their C.S.A. is

(a) 5:2 (b) 5:3 (c) 3:2 (d) 2:5

63. If the HCF of x⁴+3x³+5×2+26x+56 and x⁴+2x³-4x²-x+28 is x⁴+5x+7.Then their LCM is

(a) (x²+2x+8) (x⁴+2x³-4x²-x+28) (b) (x²+2x+8) (x⁴+2x³-4x²-x+28)

(c) (x^2-2x+8) (x⁴+2x³-4x²-x+28) (d) (x²-2x+8) (x⁴+2x³-4x²-x+28)

64. Which one of the following is a pair of co-primes?

(a) (16, 62) (b) (18,25) (c) (21, 35) (d) (23, 92)

65. If price of a tea increased by 20%, by what percentage must the consumption be reduced to keep the expense the same

(a) 15 2/3% (b) 16 2/3% (c) 17 2/3% (d) 18 2/3%

66. Akila scored 80% of marks in a examnination. If her score was 576 marks. Find the maximus marks of the examination.

(a) 640 (b) 680 (c) 720 (d) 700

67. Assertion (A): The New Educational Policy (NEP) envisages a complete overhaul of teaching – Learning process from the traditional teacher – centered to learner centric approach.

Reason (R): NEP ensures that holistic development of students by accentuating their creative potential

(a) (A) is true but (R) is false

(b) (A) is false, (R) is true

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true; and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

68. ‘Promoting soil health’ and ‘making rainwater harvesting compulsory’ – These statements relates to

(a) Green revolution (b) Blue revolution (c) Evergreen revolution (d) Yellow revolution

69. Which are the articles that describe situations and confer power to Union Government to claim control over states

(a) Art 368 and 313 (b) Art 356 and 363 (c) Art 365,256 and 257 (d) Art 349 and 350

70. Indian economy is marked by the existence of

i. Low per capita income

ii. High proportion of the working population is engaged in industries

iii. Improving rate of capital formation

iv. Problems in the employment

(a) i and ii are correct (b) i and iii are correct (c) ii and iii are correct (d) ii and iv are correct

71. The functions of Reserve Bank of India are:

i. Issue of coins and Bank notes

ii. Banker to the Government

iii. Regulating credit in the country

(a) I and ii only (b) i and iii only (c) ii and iii only (d) i,ii and iii

72. How many pairs are correctly matched?

Vaccine Nature

1. Pfizer – mRNA Vaccine

2. Covishield – DNA based Vaccine

3. Covaxin – Inactive Vaccine

4. Sputnik.V – Viral vector Vaccine

(a) 1 pair (b) 2 pairs (c) 3 pairs (d) 4 pairs

73. Jawaharlal Nehru wrote in 1961 ‘India as a secular state honours all faiths equally and gives them equal opportunities’. S.Radhakrishnan as President of India too expressed ‘when India is said to be a secular state, it does not mean that we as a people rejet the reality of an unseen spirit or the relevance of regligions to life or that we exalt irreligion. It does not mean that secularism itself becomes a positive religion or that the state assumes divine prerogatives’.

Which one of the following is best implied in the passage?

(a) Indian secularism is a religious, irreligious or antireligious

(b) Indian Secularism is perfectly compatible with religiosity

(c) Indian secularism does not recognise the importance of religion in the public space

(d) Indian secularism is not required to give each religion equal consideration

74. Tamil Nadu State has which of the following policy/policies?

1. Tamil Nadu R and D Policy

2. Tamil Nadu Life Sciences Promotion Policy

3. Tamil Nadu Footwear and Leather Products Policy

4. Tamil Nadu Fintech Policy

(a) 1,3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 1,3 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 4

75. Which of the following are correctly paired?

i. New India and commonweal – Mrs.Annie Besant

ii. Kesari and Maratha – Bala Gangadhar Tilak

iii. Indian Opinion – Gopal Hari Deshmukh

iv. Indu Prakash – Mahatma Gandhi

(a) i and ii (b) i and iv (c) i and iii (d) iii and iv

76. Which of the following statement(s) correct about Madras Native Association?

i. The first political organisation started in India

ii. The Madras Native Association began to function on 1852

iii. The founder of the Madras Native Association was G.Lakshminarasu Chetty

iv. The leader of the Madras Native Association was Anandha Charlu

(a) iii only (b) i and ii only (c) ii and iii only (d) ii and iv only

77. The tropical cyclone winds blow into the Northern Hemisphere in ———- direction

(a) Clockwise (b) Straight (c) Anticlockwise (d) Circular

78. What are the pillars of block chain technology?

1. Transparency

2. Immutability

3. Decentralisation

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1,2 and 3

79. Which of the following act was described by Jawaharlal Nehru as the ‘Charter of Slavery’?

(a) Government of India Act of 1909 (b) Government of India Act of 1919

(c) Government of India Act of 1935 (d) Government of India Act of 1947

80. In which annual sessions of the Indian National Congress made the historic ‘Purna Swaraj’ declaration?

81. Who was selected as the President of Council of Action, which was constituted by TamilNadu Congress Committee to execute the civil disobedience in 1930?

(a) C.Rajagopalachari (b) S.Sathyamurthi (c) T.S.S.Rajan (d) T.Prakasam

82. The steps adopted in the long term conservation strategy of wild life is/are

i. Hunting should be strictly prohibited in the nation parks, sanctuaries, biosphere reserves

ii. More national parks and wild life sanctuaries should be established

iii. Captive breeding of wildlife should not be encouraged

(a) i only (b) ii and iii only (c) i and ii only (d) i and iii only

83. Assignment of ecological or biological significance of a contaminant’s effect based primarily on statements of statistical significance but contrary to biological probability

(a) Malthusian theory (b) Median effective concentration

(c) Maulstick incongruity (d) Maximus likelihood estimation

84. Which of the following statements about the citizenship Amendment Act, (CAA) 2019 are true?

1. Citizenship will be granted to all the foreigners who lived in India for more than six years.

2. Citizenship to members of Hindus, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi or Christian communities from Afghanistan, Bangladesh and Pakistan who entered India on or before 31 Dec, 2014.

3. Members of specific communities will be granted citizenship within 6 years instead of 12 years.

4. The CAA will help to the preparation of National Register of Citizens.

(a) 1 and 2 are true (b) 2 and 4 are true (c) 3 and 4 are true (d) 2 and 3 are true

85. Find the mismatched answer about the Indian Railway Zones.

(a) Southern-Chennai (b) Central-Jaipur (c) Northern-New Delhi (d) Eastern-Kolkata

86. Which of the following statements is true about human races?

i. The races is a group of people with more or less permanent distinguishing characteristics

ii. Human races are classified in 7 blood groups

iii. The races are identified and classified based on skin colour, stature, shape of head, face, nose, eye, type of hair and blood group

(a) i and iii only (b) i and ii only (c) i only (d) ii and iii only

87. ———– was the contemporary of Emperor Akbar in England.

(a) King John (b) Queen Elizabeth-I (c) Queen Victoria (d) King Charles II

88. Meadows Taylor observes that the death of ——- was ‘the beginning of the end’ of the Bahmani kingdom

(a) Mahmud Gawan (b) Ahmad Shah (c) Mahmud Shah (d) Humayun

89. Arrange in chronological order

1. Nehru Report

2. Poona Pact

3. Simon Comission

4. Cripps Mission

(a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 3,2,4,1 (c) 3,1,2,4 (d) 2,1,4,3

90. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Arif Qandhar – Tarikh-i-Akbari (b) Nizamuddhin Ahmad – Tabaqat-i-Akbari

91. Match the following:

a. Garo 1. Assam

b. Kuki 2. Mizoram

c. Todas 3. Tamilnadu

d. Miri 4. Arunachal Pradesh

a b c d

a. 2 4 1 3

b. 1 2 4 3

c. 1 2 3 4

d. 2 4 3 1

92. The Stupa at Amaravati is a best example of what?

(a) Nagara Style of Architecture (b) Vesara Style of Architecture

93. Choose the right matches among the type

1. Vedantins – Brahma

2. Naiyayikas – Arhat

3. Jaina – Creator

4. Mimansaks – Karma

(a) 1 and 4 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) 2 and 3 are correct (d) 3 and 4 are correct

94. Choose the correct match:

1. Ariz-I-Mumalik Minister for Defence

2. Mushrif-I-Mumalik Accountant General

3. Dabir-I-Mumalik Minister for public grievance

4. Mustaufi-I-Mumalik Auditor General

(a) 1,2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1,2 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

95. Consider the following statement and find the incorrect answer:

1. The constitution imposes limits to president to give assent to the bill passed by the state legislature.

2. The president may refer a reserved bill to the Supreme Court, under Article 143 for discussion.

3. The power of the President assent to the bill passed by the State Legislature and Parliament are the same

4. The President cannot keep a bill of the parliament pending at his hands for an indefinite period of time

(a) 1 and 4 only incorrect (b) 1 and 3 only incorrect (c) 2 and 3 only incorrect (d) 3 and 4 only incorrect

96. Which constitutional amendment incorporated Puducherry in the Union of India?

(a) Tenth (b) Twelfth (c) Fourteenth (d) Twenty second

97. Arrange in chronological order

1. Sarkaria commission

2. Balwantrai Mehta Committee

3. Rajamannar Committee

4. Administrative Reforms commission

(a) 2,3,1,4 (b) 2,4,3,1 (c) 2,4,1,3 (d) 4,2,3,1

98. Which of the following statement is/are correct?

1. The universal declaration of human rights was adopted on 1948

2. Article 10 says that all human beings are born free

3. UDHR has altogether 32 articles.

4. UDHR was adopted by United Nations General Assembly

(a) 1,2,3 and 4 (b) 1,2 and 3 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 1,2 and 4

99. Which of the following statement(s) is true about the union union territories of India?

1. From 26^th Jan. 2020, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu are combined to a single terriory.

2. Articles 239 to 241 in Part VII of the constitution del with union territories.

3. The two union territories from the former state of Jammu and Kashmir are Ladakh and Jammu and Kashmir.

4. The largest union territory of India is Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct (b) 1 and 3 are correct (c) 2 and 4 are correct (d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

100. Which of the following is incorrectly matched?

1. Article 361 – The president enjoys protection from criminal proceedings against him in court of law

2. Article 352 – National emergency

3. Article 356 – President Rule in State

4. Article 360 – Finance commission

(a) 1 only (b) 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 4 only

101. Choose the correct answer: The fundamental rights have been described as

i. The magna Carta of India.

ii. The conscience of the constitution

iii. The soul of the constitution

iv. Inspiration from bill of rights of American constitution

(a) i and ii only (b) ii and iii only (c) i and iii only (d) i,ii, iii and iv

102. Match the following constitutional articles related to Chief Minister of a State:

Subject Matter Article No.

a. Council of Ministers to aid and advice the Governor 1. 164

b. Other provisions as to ministers 2. 166

c. Conduct of business of the Government of a state 3. 167

d. Duties of Chief Minister with respect to furnishing of information to

Governor etc. 4. 163

a b c d

a. 1 3 2 4

b. 2 4 1 3

c. 3 2 1 4

d. 4 1 2 3

103. Match the following:

Committee Year

a. Goswami committee on electoral reforms 1. 1993

b. Vohra committee report 2. 1998

c. Indrajit Gupta committee on state funding of Elections 3. 2008

d. The second Administrative reforms commission 4. 1990

a b c d

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 3 2 1 4

c. 2 4 3 1

d. 4 1 2 3

104. Consider the statement of the Judicial power of the Governors of the States.

Choose the correct answer from the option given below:

Assertion (A): The power of granting pardon under article 161 is very wide and do not contain any limitation.

Reason (R): Judicial review is possible, when he/she on the ground of non-application of mind and non-consideration of relevant material and suffers from arbitrariness.

(a) (A) is true (R) is false

(b) (R) is true (A) is false

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true; but (R) is not correct explanation of (A)

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

105. The process of establishment of an organism in a new habitat is known as

(a) Ecesis (b) Migration (c) Immigration (d) Coaction

106. Which of the following characteristics of science is not true?

i. It is guided by natural law

ii. It is testable against the observable world

iii. It’s conclusions are permanent

iv. It is falsifiable

(a) ii, iii and iv only (b) iii and iv only (c) iii only (d) iv only

107. Quantum nature of light is not supported by the phenomenon of

(a) Compton effect (b) Photoelectric effect

108. LPG is a mixture of

(a) C₆H₁₂ + C₆H₆ (b) C₄H₁₀+C₃H₈ (c) C₂H₄ + C₂H₂ (d) C₂H₄ + CH₄

109. Assertion (A): Critical thinking focuses on what causes a belief

Reason (R): Critical thinking entails evaluation and formulation and it operates according to rational standards in that beliefs are judged by how well they are supported by reasons.

(a) (A) is true but (R) is false

(b) (A) is false but (R) is true

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

110. Match the List I with List II

List I – (Hydrated Salt) List II – (Uses)

a. FeSO₄ . 7H₂O 1. Textile Industry

b. Na₂CO₃ . 10H₂O 2. Laboratory Reagent

c. CuSO₄ . 5H₂O 3. Making of Mohr’s Salt

d. ZnSO₄ . 7H₂O 4. Fungicide

e. BaCl₂ . 2H₂O 5. Manufacture of Glass

a b c d e

a. 5 3 4 1 2

b. 4 5 3 1 2

c. 3 5 4 1 2

d. 5 4 1 3 2

111. If ZEBRA can be written as 2652181. How can COBRA be written?

(a) 3102181 (b) 3152181 (c) 3182215 (d) 3182181

112. The instrument used to measure the atmospheric ozone concentration is

(a) Dobsonmeter (b) Barometer (c) Hygrometer (d) Anemometer

113. Match the organism correctly with their corresponding order:

a. Apis 1. Haplotaxidea

b. Leech 2. Cyclophyllidea

c. Earthworm 3. Hirudinea

d. Taenia 4. Hymenoptera

a b c d

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 2 4 3 1

c. 3 2 4 1

d. 4 3 1 2

114. Which among the following is/are wrong about a fertilizer?

i. Fertilizer must be insoluble in water

ii. It should maintain the pH of 10 to 13

iii. It should not be poisonous to plants

(a) only iii (b) i and ii (c) i, ii, iii (d) only ii

115. Operation London Bridge is the

(a)Funeral Plan for Queen Elizabeth II (b) Process of selecting the Prime Minister of UK

116. Which of the following is/are true about Doppler effect?

1. Doppler effect in light is symmetric

2. Doppler effect in sound is symmetric

3. Doppler effect in light is asymmetric

4. Doppler effect in sound is asymmetric

(a)1 and 2 are correct (b) 1 and 4 are correct (c) 3 and 4 are correct (d) 2 and 3 are correct

117. Which one of following statement is correct about the aim of Pradhan Mantri Uijwala Yojana (PMUY)

(a) To provide Health Service and Clean Environment to Rural Women

(b) To provide clean energy fuel of liquified petroleum gas to all rural households

(d) To provide quality food and health

118. What are the Forms of Central Bank Digital Currency (CBDC) proposed to be introduced by RBI?

1. Account based

2. Token based

(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

119. The government has initiated the following key aspects for facilitating the MSME sector:

i. Access to credit

ii. Access to market

iii. Technology upgradation

iv. Social security for MSME sector employers.

Select the correct option:

(a) i and ii only (b) i, ii and iii only (c) ii and iv only (d) i, ii, iii and iv

120. Which among the following is/are not associated with “Catch the Rain” campaign?

i. The campaign is launched by National Water Mission

ii. The campaign drives to make check dams and water harvesting pits

iii. The campaign stresses the removal of obstructions in the canals

iv. The campaign requested the central institutions to open rain centres to guide people to harvest rain
(a) i only (b) ii and iii only (c) i and ii only (d) iv only

121. The abbreviated term VVPAT stands for

(a) Voter Visit Poll Account Trail (b) Voter Vivid Press Audit Trail

(c) Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (d) Voter Verifiable Paper Account Trail

122. Match the following and select the correct answer:

a. Nayak Committee 1. Unorganised sector

b. Tarapore Committee 2. Centre-state relations

c. Rajamannar Committee 3. Availability of Credit to SSI

d. Arjun Sen Gupta Committee 4. Capital account Covertibility

a b c d

a. 4 3 2 1

b. 1 2 4 3

c. 3 4 2 1

d. 3 2 1 4

123. Assertion (A) : The desert region of India can be divided into two part – “The Great desert” and “The little desert”

Reason (R): Between these two deserts lies a zone consisting of rocky land and cut up by limestone ridges.

(a) (a) is true but (R) is false

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

124. Which one of the statements is correct for Li-ion batteries?

(a) While the battery is discharging, the anode releases lithium ion to the cathode

(b) While the batter is discharging, the cathode releases lithium ion to the anode

(d) While the batter is charging, the cathode doesn’t releases lithium ion to the anode

125. The Beneficiaries of Moovalur Ramamirtham scheme are

(a) All primary school students

(b) Girls students who are studying from 1^st to 5^th Std

(c) Girl students who are studying from 6^th to 12^th in government schools

(d) Girls students of first generation in schools alone

126. Which of the following is responsible for protecting humans from harmful ultraviolet rays?

(a) UV-A (b) UV-C (c) Ozone layer (d) None of the above

127. M.Visvesvaraya’s birthday is celebrated as Engineer’s Day in India. He was the Dewan of which Princely state?

(a) Hyderabad (b) Jodhpur (c) Mysore (d) Gwalior

128. Which among the following statements is/are best explaining the objective of “Ennum Ezhuthum scheme”?

i. The scheme is launched to help the children make up the loss of learning due to corona pandemic.

ii. The scheme is launched

with the purpose of education for all

iii. The scheme is launched with noble objective of fastening equality in society.

iv. The scheme is launched with the aim that all children below 8 years of age should be able to read, write and know numerals by 2025

(a) i only (b) i, ii and iii only (c) ii and iv only (d) i and iv only

129. Read the following passage and answer the item that follows: Agriculture continues to be the backbone of the state economy, as it provides livelihood security and food security. The overall crop yields in the state is bright. The South West Monsoon rainfall was normal and it even distribution helped to recharge of groundwater considerably and kept the state with adequate storage. All these factors made the irrigation scenario in the state encouraging. As a result more area was brought under cultivation. The government also provided adequate and timely supply of inputs through its agricultural extension centres. Sufficient and timely crop loans were made available for the eligible farmers through primary Agricultural Cooperative Societies.

Which of the following is best implied in the passage?

(a) Agriculture of the state still remain a lifeline for the people.

(b) Due to proper rainfall and government effort to provide agricultural loan and inputs agriculture turned prosperity

(d) Over exploitation of ground water to agricultural sector will affect the growth of other sectors.

130. Match the following:

Health programmes Aims/goals

a. Tamil Nadu Health System Reform Program 1. To Provide modern and sophisticated health care facility for poor

b. Tamil Nadu Health system project 2. To improve the health outcomes of urban poor

c. Chief Minister’s comprehensive Health insurance Scheme 3. To improve the health of lower Socio-economic groups

d. Tamil Nadu Urban Health Care Project 4. To achieve SDG-3

a b c d

a. 4 3 1 2

b. 2 4 1 3

c. 4 1 2 3

d. 3 2 4 1

131. Which is/are the provision inserted in the Central Universities (Amendment) Act, 2022.

1. Establishment of Gati Shakti Vishwa Vidyala

2. Providing high quality teaching, research and skill development in diverse disciplines related to physical sciences.

3. Upgradation of State Universities to Central Universities.

4. Providing high quality teaching, research and skill development in diverse discipline related to transportation, technology and management

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1 and 4

132. Assertion (A): Indian Government has taken up economic programmes for benefit of SCs and STs.

Reason (R): Provided small loans for the poorer section to help them to earn money through some secondary sources such as toy-making, basket making, agarbatti and beedi-rolling, tailoring, shoe-making etc.

(a) (A) is true but (R) is false

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

133. Assertion (A) : When price decreases, purchasing power increase, and vice versa

Reason (R): When the production of goods decline, the price of goods increase and then the purchasing power is affected.

(a) (A) is correct, (R) is false

(b) Both (A) and (R) are false statement

(d) (A) is correct, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

134. Choose the correct matches:

1. Art 371 – Provision with respect to the states of Maharashtra and Gujarat

2. Art 371A – Provision with respect to the state of Nagaland

3. Art 371D – Provision with respect to the state of Andhra Pradesh

4. Art 371 H – Provision with respect to the state of Tamil Nadu

(a) 2 and 4 are correct (b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct (c) 1 and 4 are correct (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct

135. Match the following:

Chairman Committee

a. Kaka Kaleekar 1. Tribal Development

b. Xaxa 2. 7^th Pay commission

c. Mandal 3. Second backward class commission

d. Justice A.K.Mathur 4. First backward class commission

a b c d

a. 1 3 4 2

b. 4 1 3 2

c. 1 4 3 2

d. 3 2 4 1

136. The objectives of the District Mental Health Programme are

1. To provide mental health services including prevention, promotion and long term care at district health care delivery system.

2. To augment institutional capacity in terms of infrastructure, equipment and human resource for mental health care.

3. Facilitating the mental health services at doorstep

4. To promote community awareness and participation in the delivery of mental health services

(a) 1, 2, 3 only (b) 2, 3, 4 only (c) 1, 2, 4 only (d) 1, 3, 4 only

137. Arrange the following events associated with Periyar in chronological order:

1. Vaikkom Satyagraha

2. Non-co-opeation movement

3. kallukadai Mariyal

4. Leader of chennai congress committee

(a) 2, 3, 4, 1 (b) 2, 4, 3, 1 (c) 2, 1, 3,4 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1

138. Choose the correct chronological order:

(a) Rajadhiraja I, Parantaka I, Kulothunga I, Rajaraja I (b) Kulothunga I, Parantaka I, Rajadhiraja I, Rajaditya I

139. Which chapter in Thirukkural reflects the Northern Scholar’s ideology of philosophical knowledge?

(a) Not killing (b) Instability (c) Renunciation (d) Understanding the truth

140. Which of the following titles are related with Pandyas?

i. Minavar

ii. Villavar

iii. Kudavar

iv. Panchavar

(a) i only (b) ii only (c) i and iv only (d) ii and iii only

141. Who said, “Tamizhodu Isaippaadal Maranthariyen”?

(a) Thirugnana Sambandar (b) Thirunaaavukkarasar (c) Sundarar (d) Manikkavasagar

142. Which Tamil Poet injected the spirit of Nationalism and National Itegration?

(a) Bharathidasan (b) Bharathiyar (c) Sudanandha Bharathi (d) Kavimani

143. What was the royal emblem of the Rashtrakutas?

(a) Lion (b) Golden Eagle (c) Tiger (d) Elephant

144. Which of these actions cannot lead to Truth-Consciousness?

(a) Porul Allavatrai Porul Endru Unarthal (b) Saarbu Unarndhu Saarbu Keda Ozhugal

145. “Vendharkku Oli” – What is the meaning propounded in this Thirukkural?

i. Kodai (Donation)

ii. Ali (Kindness)

iii. Protective Sceptre (Sengol Kudiyombal)

(a) i only (b) i, iii only (c) i, ii only (d) i, ii and iii

146. Match the following:

a. Thaarugan 1. Thaer Chakkaram

b. Aazhi 2. Arakkan

c. Natriram 3. Thevar

d. Imaiyavar 4. Araneri

a b c d

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 3 1 2 4

d. 4 3 2 1

147. Match correctly the excavated information with the excavation sites:

a. Thanjavur excavation 1. Roman Pottery

b. Kilaiyur excavation 2. Centre of Buddhism

c. Tirukkampuliyur excavation 3. Commercial contact between Rome and Tamilagan

d. Uraiyur excavation 4. Culture of Kaveri

a b c d

a. 1 2 4 3

b. 3 4 2 1

c. 4 3 1 2

d. 2 3 1 4

148. Which among the following inscriptions mention the ancient word “Madura”?

(a) Inscription at Siddharmalai

(b) Inscription at Alagarmalai

(d) Inscription at Paatipuralu

(a) a and b only (b) a and c only (c) b and d only (d) c and d only

149. Who speaks the following lines in Barathiya’s “Panchali Sabadham”?

“Tharumathin Vazhvudhanai Soodhu Kavvum;

Tharumam Marubadi Vellu”.

(a) Panchali (b) Kannan (c) Arjunan (d) Tharuman

150. Read the following and pick out the correct statements:

i. Musical pillars is one of the wonders of the Nayakka King’s Rule

ii. Music created by rhythmic hitting of stones is wondered by international musicians.

iii. In the Thousand Pillared hall of Meenakshi Temple in Madurai, one can find small pillars that exude music when played upon

iv. The Arthanaareeswara Temple at Rameshwaram consists of Pillars than can be played to bring out the seven swaras (Notes)

(a) i and ii alone are correct (b) i, ii and iii alone are correct

151. Choose the right answer:

Which of the following statements are true about the Cholas?

i. The first mention of the cholas is in the Asokan inscription

ii. They were independent rulers in Tamilagam

iii. Kanyakumari Inscription and Anbil Plates give information of the early cholas

(a) i is correct (b) i and ii are correct (c) i, ii and iii are correct (d) i and iii are correct

152. Find the missing number in the place of?

A picture containing text, crossword puzzle

Description automatically generated

(a) 49 (b) 50 (c) 51 (d) 52

153. Four pictures of a cube are given below which number is on the face opposite to 3?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 5

154. The next term of the Alphanumeric series C4X, F9U, I16R is

(a) K25P (b) L25P (c) L25O (d) L27P

155. A mat of length 180m is made by 15 women in 12 days. How long will it take for 32 women to make a mat of length 512 m?

(a) 8 days (b) 12 days (c) 16 days (d) 20 days

156. Find the area of an equilateral triangle whose perimeter is 180 cm.

(a) 1558.8 cm² (b) 1885.5 cm² (c) 1585.8 cm² (d) 1888.5 cm²

157. The CI on Rs.15,000 for 3 years if the rate of interests are 15%, 20% and 25% for the I, II and III year respectively is

(a) Rs.10,875 (b) Rs.10,785 (c) Rs.10,885 (d) Rs.10,775

158. An apple costs Rs.60, a guava costs Rs.90 and mango costs Rs.60. How much a pomegranate cost?

(a) Rs.60 (b) Rs.90 (c) Rs.120 (d) Rs.150

159. In what time will Rs.8,000 at 3% per annum, produce the same interest as Rs.6,000 does in 5 years at 4% simple interest?

(a) 5 years (b) 5 1/2 years (c) 3 years (c) 3 1/2 years

160. If A:B = 2:3, B:C = 2:4, C:D = 2:5, then A:D is equal to

(a) 1:5 (b) 2:5 (c) 3:5 (d) 2:15

161. The lowest common multiple (LCM) of two numbers is 6 times of their Highest Common Factor (HCF). If the HCF is 12 and one of the number is 36, then the other number is

(a) 48 (b) 72 (c) 24 (d) 12

162. Find the HCF of the polynomials 6x³-30x²+60x-48 and 3x³-12x²+21x-18

(a) 3x³-12x²+21x-18 (b) (x³-3x+2)(x-2).3 (c) 3(x-2) (d) (x-2)(x-1)3

163. Simplify: 100+8/2+{(3×2)-6/2}

(a) 123 (b) 107 (c) 113 (d) 103

164. Which of the following statements about GST council is not true?

1. The members of the GST council choose one amongst themselves to be the vice-chairperson of the council.

2. Every decision of the GST counil shall be taken by a meeting of not less than two-third of the wighted votes of the members present and voting.

3. One-half of the total number of members of the GST council constitute the quorum at its meeting.

(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

165. Pick out the correct abbreviation for the word “PURA”?

(a) Providing urban amenities in right areas (b) Providing usual amenities in rural areas

166. Which of the following measures have been taken to attain the aims of the new industrial policy?

1. Industrial licensing

2. Foreign Investment

3. Foreign trade policy

4. Public sector management

(a) 1 and 4 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1, 2 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

167. The Monetary Policy of the Government of India emphasised the following two aims of the economic policy

i. To control and reduce inflationary pressure in the economy

ii. Speed up economic development in the country to raise national income and standard of living of the people.

iii. To increase the per capita income.

iv. To have a cheap money policy

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

(a) i and iii are correct (b) I and ii are correct (c) ii and iii are correct (d) iv and iii are correct

168. According to Indian Tourism Statistics 2022, which tourist place is most visited by Foreign tourists?

(a) Taj Mahal (b) Statue of Unity (c) Mahabalipuram (d) Varanasi

169. Which one of the following is not addressed in Mission POSHAN 2.O.?

(a) Malnutrition in children (b) Malnutrition in adolescent girls

170. Which of the following statements about Index of Industrial Production (IIP) are correct?

1. The IIP is a key economic indicator of the manufacturing activity in various sectors of economy.

2. IIP data is regularly published by Central Statistical Organisation (CSO)

3. The base year for IIP is 2011-12

(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3

171. Nehru-Mahalanobis planning model was based on the following strategies emphasised are

i. High rate of saving

ii. Preferred a heavy industry

iii. Discouraged import substitution

iv. Safeguard infant industry

(a) i and ii correct (b) i, ii and iii correct (c) i, ii and iv correct (d) i, ii, iii and iv correct

172. “British rule was established in India with the cooperation of Indians, and had survived only because of this co-operation. If Indians refused to co-operate, British rule in India would collapse with in a year and Swaraj would come,” who said this?

(a) Sardar Vallabhai Patel (b) Motilal Nehru (c) Mahtma Gandhiji (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

173. In 1944, the Government of India setup a planning department under the Chairmanship of

(a) S.N.Agarwal (b) M.N.Roy (c) Dr.John Mathai (d) Sir Ardesir Dalal

174. Match List I and List ii and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List I List II

a. Resignation of Congress Ministries 1. 1943

b. Neil Statue Satyagraha 2. 1942

c. Quit India Resolution 3. 1927

d. Provincial Government of Free India 4. 1939

a b c d

a. 4 3 1 2

b. 2 1 4 3

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 4 1 2 3

175. Who was arrested by the British Government for the Bomb explosion on 1933 at Srivilliputur Police Station?

(a) Sathyamurthy (b) Parthasarathy (c) Kamaraj (d) Ananthakrishnan

176. What is the title of the Doctoral Thesis of Dr.B.R.Ambedkar in 1923?

(a) The problem of the Rupee (b) Caste system (c) Untouchability in India (d) Unbritish Rule in India

177. Which of the following is incorrect?

(a) The Indian National Congress boycotted the First Round table congress

(b) Gandhiji attended the Second Round Table Congress

(c) After the Second Round Table conference the Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed

(d) Communal Award was associated with Third Round Table conference

178. “Damin-i-koh” was the land given by the British to the

(a) Santhal tribes (b) Kolu tribes (c) Garo tribes (d) Munda tribes

179. Acid rains are produced by

(a) Excess NO₂ and SO₂ from bruning fossil fuels

(b) Excess production of NH₃ by industry and coal gas

(d) Excess formation of CO₂ by combustion and animal respiration

180. Why is the Himalayan region poor in mineral resources?

(a) Displacement of rock strata has disturbed the arrangement of rocks and made it complex

(b) It is made up of crystalline rock

(d) The climatic conditions are not suitable for exploitation of minerals

181. Consider the statement given below and choose the correct answer:

Assertion (A): Cultural diffusion is the spread of cultural beliefs and social activities from one group of people to another

Reason (R): Cultural landscapes have been defined by the world heritage committee as cultural properties representing the combiened works of nature and of man

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true: (R) explains (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true: (R) does not explain (A)

(d) (A) is false (R) is true

182. Asthamudi is an important lagoon of the ——– coast.

(a) Malabar Coast (b) Konkan Coast (c) Cholamandel Coast (d) Norther Circar Coast

183. Which of the following statements are true about population growth of India?

i. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Orissa, which constitute 44% of the Total population of India in 1996

ii. Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Orissa, which constitute 48% of the Total population of India in 2016

iii. These state contributed 70% of the total increase in population of the country during the period of 1996-2016

(a) i only (b) i and iii only (c) i and ii only (d) ii and iii only

184. Choose the right matches:

1. Khizr Khan – Orissa

2. Durgavati – Gondwana

3. Rana Udai Singh – Mewar

4. Kunwar man singh – Ajmir

(a) 1 and 2 are correct (b) 2 and 3 are correct (c) 1 and 4 are correct (d) 3 and 4 are correct

185. In A.D.1894, the Kashi Nagri Pracharini Sabha was founded in

(a) Delhi (b) Bombay (c) Madras (d) Calcutta

186. Who was the first person to place the demand for a separate Muslim state in British India?

(a) Mohammad Iqbal (b) Muhammad Ali Jinnah (c) Rahmat Ali (d) Mountbatten

187. Assertion (A): Federalism is merely an institutional arrangement for sharing power across multiple levels of government based on the principal of shared rule and self rule.

Reason (R): Federations, have constantly adjusted and adopted depending on political, social and economic situations.

(a) (A) is true but (R) is false

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

188. Which of the following statements are true about Buddhism?

1. Buddhism denied the authority of Vedas

2. Buddha’s teachings were largely based on Brahmanic ideas of Punarjanma, Karma and Moksha

3. Buddhism was not practical and ethical

4. Buddhism accepts God as creator

(a) 1, 2, 3 are correct (b) 1 and 2 are correct (c) Only 2 is correct (d) 3 and 4 are correct

189. Which of the following statement about the Guptha society is true?

1. The Guptha emperors called themselves as Parama Bhagavatas

2. Trade with Rome and China flourished

3. Women were debarred from exercising public rights

4. The custom of Sati was practiced by them

(a) 1 and 3 are correct (b) 3 and 4 are correct (c) Only 4 is correct (d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct

190. Why Ulama’s had great influence in Muslim society, politics, administration and religion?

(a) They were in great numbers during the Delhi Sultanate

(b) Due to their holy living and high thinking

(c) They were well-versed in Muslim theology and Fiqh

(d) They controlled trade and industry

191. Which of the following are wrongly paired?

1. Obligation for the state and individual to protect environment Art 48A

2. Early childhood care and education for all children until they complete

the age of fourteen years Art 45

3. Separate judiciary from the executive in the public service of

The state Art 39

4. Voluntary formation autonomous functioning of cooperative societies Art 44

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1 and 2 only (d) 3 and 4 only

192. Assertion (A): Rule of law entails that all persons, both public and private institutions, the state and other entities are accountable to publicly promulgate laws.

Reason (R): The rule of law forms the base to international peace and security, and it is at the core to protect people’s rights and their fundamental freedom

(a) (A) is true but (R) is false

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A)

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

193. Identify the incorrect statement about Lok Adalat

(a) Lok Adalat is a mechanism for speedy trial of the disputes

(b) It is not a tool of the legal system

(d) Lok Adalat goes to the people to deliver justice at their door steps

194. Which of the following statements is /are not true about the “governor”?

(a) He appoints the Advocate General of a State

(b) He appoints the Chancellor of Universities in the State

(d) He appoints the state Election commissioner

195. Match the following:

Subject protected Year of the enactment

a. Beedi and cigar worker 1. 1979

b. Contract labour 2. 1976

c. Equal remuneration 3. 1970

d. Migrant workmen exployment regulation 4. 1966

a b c d

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 4 3 2 1

c. 3 2 4 1

d. 2 3 4 1

196. Need for a constitution for free India was first suggested by

(a) Motilal Nehru (b) M.N.Roy (c) Subash Chandra Bose (d) Mahatma Gandhi

197. In a Modern democratic state, citizenship is a

(a) Natural right (b) Legal Right (c) Statutory right (d) Fundamental right

198. Match the following:

a. Pitt’s India Act, 1784 1. Decentralization of the legislative powers of Governor-General

b. Charter Act, 1813 2. Governor-General’s Government was known as Government of India for the

first time

c. Charter Act, 1833 3. Appointment of Board of control of six members

d. Indian Councils Act, 1861 4. Deprivation of East Indies company’s monopoly of trade in India

a b c d

a. 1 2 3 4

b. 3 4 2 1

c. 4 3 2 1

d. 1 3 2 4

199. Which one of the following statement(s) is not correct about the Indus Valley People?

i. The indus valley people workshipped trees and animals

ii. The principal deity of Indus Valley people was Krishna

iii. The indus valley people worshipped fire and water

iv. The principal deity of indus valley people was mother goddess

(a) i and iii only (b) ii only (c) i and ii only (d) ii and iii only

200. Who said, Delegated legislation and administrative tribunals are the manifestation of “New despotism”?

(a) John.E.Kersell (b) Sir Cecil Carr (c) Lord Heward (d) D.L.Hewit

December 9, 2022

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Tnpsc Group 1 Exam Previous Questions Answer Key 2022 – General Studies in English

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