9th Std Science Lesson Wise Questions in English – Part 3

9th Science Lesson 16 Questions in English

16] Applied Chemistry

1. Assertion (A): Applied chemistry is used to resolve the real-world problems.

Reasoning(R): Chemical principles and theories are applied in various fields.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Chemical principles and theories are applied to various fields in order to achieve specific results or to solve real-world problems. This is called applied chemistry.

2. Which of these does not influence the characteristics of a material?

a) Size

b) Shape

c) Source

d) Physical quantities

Explanation

The size and shape of materials influence their characteristics. Scientists found that materials having size about 1/1,000,000,000 metres show special characteristics.

3. Which of these studies are made by the Nano chemistry branch?

a) Reusing Nano materials.

b) Effect of size of materials on properties.

c) Effect of chemical properties.

d) Physical characteristics of Nano materials.

Explanation

The Scientist started producing kind of special materials and studied the effect of size on properties. Thus a new branch of chemistry called ‘Nano chemistry’ was developed.

4. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) The chemical applications of Nano technology is dealt with the Nano chemistry.

ii) Nano chemistry involves synthesis and manipulation of materials at atomic and molecular level.

iii) The study of chemical properties alone is done by Nano chemistry.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Nano chemistry is a branch of Nano science that deals with the chemical applications of nanomaterial’s in nanotechnology. It involves synthesis and manipulation of materials at atomic and molecular level and the study of their physical and chemical properties.

5. From which of this language Nano is derived?

a) Greek

b) Latin

c) Persian

d) Roman

Explanation

The word Nano has been derived from the Greek word ‘Nanos’ which is designated to represent billionth fraction of a unit.

6. Which of this value is equal to one nanometer?

a) 0.000000001meter

b) 0.0000000001 meter

c) 0.000000010 meter

d) 0.1000000000 meter

Explanation

One nanometer (nm) is 10−9 or 0.000,000,001 meter.

7. What is the approximate value of human DNA?

a) 4nm

b) 0.2 nm

c) 2nm

d) 20nm

Explanation

The DNA double helix is 2 nm across.

8. What is the diameter of an hydrogen atom?

a) 20nm

b) 200nm

c) 2nm

d) 0.2nm

Explanation

The diameter of one hydrogen atom is around 0.2 nm.

9. What are the properties of nano materials?

a) Reduced Imperfections

b) Spatial confinement

c) High surface energy

d) All the above

Explanation

The properties of materials with nano meter dimensions are significantly different from those of atoms and bulk materials. This is mainly because the nano meter size of the materials render them, larger surface area, high surface energy, spatial confinement and reduced imperfections which do not exist in the corresponding bulk materials.

10. Which of these characteristics are considered mainly for a nano material?

a) Surface characteristics

b) Temperature

c) Atom arrangement

d) Energy

Explanation

The surface characteristics of nanoparticles are the main criteria to be considered for applications.

11. Which of these instruments are not used to analyze the surface properties of nano material?

a) Scanning Electron Microscope

b) Compound Light Microscope

c) Tunneling Electron Microscope

d) Atomic Force Microscope

Explanation

Highly sophisticated instruments like Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM), Tunneling Electron Microscope (TEM) and Atomic Force Microscope (AFM) are used to analyze the surface properties of a nanoparticle with high resolution.

12. What is the usage of metallic nano particles in the sophisticated instruments?

a) Active catalysts

b) High resolution

c) Easy configuration

d) None of the above

Explanation

The metallic nanoparticles can be used as very active catalysts to analyze the surface properties of a nanoparticle with high resolution.

13. What are the applications of nano coatings?

a) Sports equipment’s

b) Bicycles

c) Automobiles

d) All the above

Explanation

Nano coatings and nano composites are found useful in making variety of products such as sports equipment, bicycles and automobiles etc.

14. In which of these Nano particles are not used?

a) Microchips

b) Implant surgery

c) Microscopes

d) Cosmetics

Explanation

Nanotechnology is applied in the production of synthetic skin and implant surgery. Nano materials that conduct electricity are being used in electronics as minute conductors to produce circuits for microchips. Nano materials have extensive applications in the preparation of cosmetics, deodorants and sun screen lotion.

15. Which of this growth is prevented by nanoparticles in fabrics?

a) Virus

b) Bacteria

c) Fungi

d) Algae

Explanation

Nanoparticle substances are incorporated in fabrics to prevent the growth of bacteria.

16. Assertion (A): Nanoparticles are unstable with oxygen and can cause explosion.

Reasoning(R): Nano particles are highly reactive with impurities.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Nanoparticles are unstable when they react with oxygen. Their exothermic combustion with oxygen can easily cause explosion. Because nanoparticles are highly reactive, they inherently interact with impurities as well.

17. Choose the correct statements.

i) Nano materials are biologically safe and non-toxic.

ii) Nano materials are easy to synthesis and isolate.

iii) Nano materials do not have any hard and fast safe disposal policies.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Nano materials are biologically harmful and toxic. It is difficult to synthesis, isolate and apply them. There are no hard-and-fast safe disposal policies for nano materials.

18. Assertion (A): Pharmaceutical chemistry is the study of drugs.

Reasoning (R): The general laws of chemistry are followed to study drugs.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Pharmaceutical chemistry is the chemistry of drugs which utilizes the general laws of chemistry to study drugs.

19. Which of these are not related to Pharmaceutical chemistry?

a) Drugs preparation

b) Storage conditions of drugs

c) Study of chemical composition of drugs

d) Disadvantages of drugs

Explanation

Pharmaceutical chemistry deals with preparation of drugs and the study of chemical composition, nature, behavior, structure and influence of the drug in an organism, condition of their storage and the therapeutic uses of the drugs.

20. What is the core of pharmaceutical chemistry?

a) Study of drugs

b) Drug discovery

c) Usage of drugs

d) Influence of drugs

Explanation

Drug discovery is the core of pharmaceutical chemistry.

21. What is the origin of the word Drug?

a) French

b) Arab

c) Latin

d) Greek

Explanation

The chemicals used for treating diseases are termed as drug. The word drug is derived from the French word ‘droque’ which means a dry herb.

22. Which of these organ defined drug is used to modify or explore physiological systems?

a) National Institute of Health

b) National Library of Medicine

c) World Health Organization

d) Centers for Disease control and Prevention

Explanation

According to World Health Organization a drug is defined as follows: ‘It is a substance or product that is used or intended to be used to modify or explore physiological systems or pathological states for the benefits of the recipient’.

23. Which is not a characteristic of drugs?

a) Non-toxic

b) Cheap and easily available

c) Not affect normal physiological activities

d) No side effects

Explanation

A drug must possess the following characteristics: It should not be toxic. It should not cause any side effects. It should not affect the receptor tissues. It should not affect the normal physiological activities. It should be effective in its action.

24. Assertion (A): Animals and plants are the main sources of drugs.

Reasoning(R): Synthesized drugs are adopted by modern manufacturers for specialized treatments.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The main sources of drugs are animals and plants. The modern manufacturers adopt many chemical strategies to synthesize drugs for specialized treatments which are more uniform than natural materials.

25. Identify the Incorrect match.

A. Microorganism i) Aspirin

B. Minerals ii) Liquid Paraffin

C. Plants iii) Morphine

D. Genetic Engineering iv) Human growth Hormone

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

26. How many categories of drugs are characterized?

a) 3

b) 5

c) 2

d) 4

Explanation

Drugs fall into two general categories:

• The drugs that are used in the treatment and cure of any specific disease.
• The drugs that have some characteristic effect on the animal organism but do not have any remedial effect for a particular disease. This class includes, morphine, cocaine etc.

27. Which does not have a characteristic effect on animal organism?

a) Cocaine

b) Morphine

c) Paracetamol

d) Heroin

Explanation

The drugs that have some characteristic effect on the animal organism do not have any remedial effect for a particular disease. This class includes, morphine, cocaine etc.

28. Which of this drug causes loss of sensation?

a) Penicillin

b) Anesthetics

c) Aspirin

d) Insulin

Explanation

The drugs which cause loss of sensation are called Anesthetics. They are given to patients when they undergo surgery.

29. Assertion (A): General anesthetics agents bring loss of all modalities of sensation.

Reasoning(R): It causes loss of pain with reversible loss of consciousness.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

General anesthetics: They are the agents, which bring about loss of all modalities of sensation, particularly pain along with ‘reversible’ loss of consciousness.

30. Choose the correct statements regarding the local anesthetics.

i) It is used in major surgeries to relieve pain.

ii) Used to prevent pain in localized areas without affecting the degree of consciousness.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Local anesthetics: They prevent the pain sensation in localized areas without affecting the degree of consciousness. For example, dentist give patients this kind of anesthetics when carry out a minor surgery in teeth.

31. How many major anesthetics chemicals are used?

a) 5

b) 2

c) 4

d) 3

Explanation

Chemicals as Anesthetics: There are three major chemicals which are used as anesthetics.

32. Choose the Incorrect statements regarding Nitrous oxide.

i) It is a red color organic gas.

ii) It is mixed with general anesthetics like ether.

iii) It is the safest anesthetic agent.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Nitrous Oxide (N2O): It is a colorless, nonirritating, inorganic gas. It is the safest of the anesthetic agents. This is used after mixing general anesthetics like ether.

33. Which of these forms a toxic in reaction with oxygen?

a) Ether

b) Penicillin

c) Nitrous Oxide

d) Chloroform

Explanation

Chloroform (CHCl3): It is a volatile liquid. It has pleasant smell and sweet taste. With oxygen it forms a toxic carbonyl chloride. Hence it is not used now.

34. Which is not ether?

a) Diethyl ether

b) C₂H₅-O-C₂H₅

c) C₆H₆

d) Simple ether

Explanation

Ether: Diethyl ether or simple ether (C₂H₅-O-C₂H₅) is a volatile liquid.

35. Which is used as a stabilizer with ether?

a) Acetylene

b) Propyl Halide

c) Xylene

d) Cyclohexane

Explanation

Ether is mixed with a stabilizer 0.002% propyl halide. After absorption by tissues it attacks the central nervous system and makes the patient unconscious.

36. What is the effect of analgesics?

a) Local anesthetics

b) Loss of consciousness

c) Antibiotic

d) Pain killers

Explanation

Analgesics are the compounds which relieve all sorts of pains without the loss of consciousness. These are also called as pain killer or pain relievers.

37. Which of these are healed by analgesics?

a) Headache

b) Myalgia

c) Arthralgia

d) All the above

Explanation

Analgesics are effective in healing headaches, myalgia and arthralgia.

38. Which is not used as analgesics?

a) Aspirin

b) Penicillin

c) Novalgin

d) Opioids

Explanation

Aspirin and Novalgin are the commonly used analgesics. Aspirin acts both as antipyretic as well as analgesic. Certain narcotics (which produce sleep and unconsciousness) are also used as analgesics.

39. Assertion (A): The Analgesics are given orally or applied externally.

Reasoning(R): Externally applicable pain killers are available in gel form.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The analgesics are given either orally or applied externally. In general externally applicable pain killers come as ‘gels’.

40. What is the usage of antipyretics compounds?

a) Pain reliever

b) Lowering body temperature to normal

c) Antibiotics

d) Anesthetics

Explanation

Antipyretics are the compounds which are used for the purpose of reducing fever (lowering the body temperature to the normal). They are taken orally as tablets and capsules.

41. Which of these are not used as antipyretics?

a) Phenacetin

b) Novalgin

c) Aspirin

d) Paracetamol

Explanation

The most common antipyretics are aspirin, antipyrine, phenacetin and paracetamol.

42. For which of these infections antiseptic are used?

a) Pathogens

b) Fungus

c) Protozoa

d) Bacteria

Explanation

Antiseptic is a substance that prevents infections caused by disease causing microorganisms or pathogens.

43. Choose the correct statements regarding the antiseptics.

i) They are used to kill micro-organism and prevent their growth.

ii) It is only used for cleansing externally wounds.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Antiseptics either kill the micro-organism or prevent their growth. Antiseptics are used externally to cleanse wounds and internally to treat infections of the intestine and bladder.

44. Which of these statements are not correct?

a) Iodoform is used as antiseptic and disinfectant.

b) Phenol is used only as a disinfectant.

c) Hydrogen peroxide is a minor antiseptic.

d) CHI₃ is the molecular formula for Iodoform.

Explanation

Iodoform (CHI3) is used as an antiseptic and its 1% solution is a disinfectant. 0.2 % solution of phenol acts as an antiseptic and its 1% solution is a disinfectant. Hydrogen peroxide is a minor antiseptic mainly used for cleansing wounds.

45. What are the effects of malaria disease?

a) Fever and shivering

b) Body temperature is raised to 106°F

c) Causes Anemia.

d) All the above

Explanation

Malaria is a vector borne disease which causes shivering and fever. It raises the body temperature to 103-106 °F. It causes physical weakness with the side-effects in liver and also causes anemia.

46. From which of these Quinine is obtained?

a) Neem

b) Turmeric

c) Aloe Vera

d) Cinchona bark

Explanation

Extracts of roots and stems of certain plants are extensively used as antimalarial. Quinine is a natural antimalarial obtained from Cinchona bark.

47. Which of this is not an antimalarial?

a) Pyrimethamine

b) Ether

c) Primaquine

d) Chloroquine

Explanation

The last antimalarial discovered in 1961 is pyrimethamine. However, quinine, primaquine and chloroquine are some of the best antimalarial.

48. Which is used to control the malarial parasites?

a) Chloroquine

b) Quinine

c) Iodoform

d) Hydrogen peroxide

Explanation

Chloroquine is used specially to control malarial parasites such as plasmodium ovale, plasmodium vivax etc. It is not used in curing the disease. It is used as an additive with other antimalarial drugs.

49. Which of this chemical compound is not an antibiotic?

a) Protozoa

b) Bacteria

c) Fungi

d) Molds

Explanation

Many microorganisms (bacteria, fungi and molds) produce certain chemicals which inhibit the growth or metabolism of some other disease causing micro-organisms. Such chemical compounds are known as antibiotics.

50. Assertion (A): The effective antibiotics are present only in low concentration.

Reasoning(R): Antibiotics involves in the growth or metabolism of disease causing micro-organisms.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Antibiotics are chemicals inhibit the growth or metabolism of some other disease causing micro-organisms these need to be present only in low concentration to be effective in their antibiotic action.

51. From which of this mold the first antibiotic was discovered?

a) Black mold

b) Penicillum digitatum

c) Penicillium notatum

d) Mucor racemosus

Explanation

The first antibiotic ‘penicillin’ was discovered by Alexander Fleming in 1929 from the mold Penicillium notatum.

52. Which of these diseases are cured by penicillin?

a) Rheumatic fever

b) Bronchitis

c) Pneumonia

d) All the above

Explanation

Penicillin is extensively used for rheumatic fever, narrowing of heart wall, bronchitis, and pneumonia etc.

53. Which is not a source of antibiotics?

a) Bacteria

b) Virus

c) Fungi

d) Actinomycetes

Explanation

There are three main sources of antibiotics: (i) Bacteria (ii) Fungi and (iii) Actinomycetes

54. Which of these are natural antibiotics?

a) Honey

b) Ginger

c) Neem

d) All the above

Explanation

The original antibiotics like a lot of today’s antibiotics are derived from natural sources. Certain plant extracts, essential oils, and even foods have antibiotic properties. Example: Honey, garlic, ginger, clove, neem and turmeric.

55. Which of these drugs is used to balance the acidity in Human body?

a) Antacids

b) Azithromycin

c) Amoxicillin

d) Ativan

Explanation

Quite often after eating oily and spicy food one may feel uncomfortable due to some burning sensation in stomach / food pipe. This is due to imbalance in the acidity in the stomach. Certain drug formulations provide relief from such burning sensation. These are known as antacids.

56. Choose the correct statements.

i) Antacids are available only in tablet form.

ii) Magnesium and Aluminium hydroxides are added for color and flavoring agents of antacids.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Antacids are available in tablet as well as gel / syrup forms. These antacids contain magnesium and Aluminium hydroxides in addition to flavoring agents and color.

57. Assertion (A): Electrochemistry is the branch of applied chemistry.

Reasoning(R): The chemical energy can be converted into electrical energy and vice versa.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The chemical reactions (chemical energy) that take place in the battery produce electricity (electrical energy). So when scientists realized that chemical energy can be converted into electrical energy and vice versa another branch of applied chemistry was developed. It is Electrochemistry.

58. Which of these processes is mainly considered in Electrochemistry?

a) Electrode and electrolyte

b) Chemical energy

c) Process of conversion

d) Energy consumption

Explanation

Electrochemistry is a branch of chemistry which deals with the relation between electrical energy and chemical change. It is mainly concerned with the processes taking place between the electrode and solution having ions called electrolyte.

59. Which of this reaction produce electricity in Electrochemistry?

a) Double Replacement

b) Decomposition

c) Redox

d) Combustion

Explanation

Only redox reactions that take place in a specific device can produce electricity.

60. Which of this device produce electricity by using chemical changes?

a) Electrochemical cell

b) Microbial fuel cell

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

Explanation

The device that makes use of a chemical change to produce electricity or electricity to produce chemical change is called Electrochemical Cell.

61. How many components are comprised in an electrochemical cell?

a) Three

b) Two

c) Four

d) Ten

Explanation

An electrochemical cell may comprise of two major components.

62. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Electrodes are solid electrical conductor made of metal and some non-metals.

ii) A cell consists of more than two electrodes.

iii) Anode and Cathode are used in cells.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Electrode: It is a solid electrical conductor made of metal (sometimes non-metal like graphite). A cell consists of two electrodes. One is called Anode and the other is called Cathode.

63. Which of these have molten salts or ion solutions?

a) Electrode

b) Electrolyte

c) Anode

d) Cathode

Explanation

Electrolyte: It is made up of solutions of ions or molten salts which can conduct electricity.

64. How many reactions are involved in an electrochemical cell?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 1

d) 4

Explanation

An electrochemical cell involves two reactions simultaneously.

65. Oxidation is _______ of electron takes place at _______.

a) Loss, Anode

b) Gain, Anode

c) Loss, Cathode

d) Gain, Cathode

Explanation

Oxidation: As we know already an oxidation is loss of electron. In electrochemical cells oxidation takes place at anode. Metal → Metal ion + electron (e-)

66. Where the reduction takes place in a electrochemical cell?

a) Anode

b) Electrolyte

c) Cathode

d) Electrode

Explanation

Reduction: It involves gain of electron. Reduction takes place at cathode. Metal ion + electron (e-) → Metal

67. Which of this reaction is involved in the inter conversion of electrical and chemical energy?

a) Oxidation

b) Redox

c) Galvanization

d) Hydrogen replacement

Explanation

Both the reactions take place simultaneously, the inter conversion of electrical and chemical energy in electrochemical cells involves a redox reaction.

68. On what basis the electrochemical cells are classified?

a) Elements

b) Source of energy

c) Type of chemical reaction

d) Nature of energy conversion

Explanation

Based on the nature of the energy conversion, electrochemical cells are broadly classified.

69. Choose the Incorrect statements about the Galvanic cell.

i) It is a type of electrochemical cell converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

ii) It consists of three cells.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Galvanic Cell: It is an electrochemical cell which converts chemical energy into electrical energy i.e. it produces electricity from chemical reactions. It consists of two half cells namely anodic half-cell and cathodic half-cell.

70. Choose the correct statements.

i) Anode is in contact with its electrolyte in anodic half-cell.

ii) Anode and cathode are connected by conducting wire.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

In anodic half-cell of galvanic cell the anode is in contact with its electrolyte whereas in cathodic half-cell, the cathode is in contact with its electrolyte. The anode and cathode are connected by a conductor wire.

71. What connects the electrolytes of half-cells in a galvanic cell?

a) HCl solution

b) Salt bridge

c) Copper wire

d) None of the above

Explanation

The electrolytes of half-cells are connected through a tube containing a saturated salt solution. It is called salt bridge. Thus in galvanic cell, both the half-cells are kept separately but stay connected electrically.

72. Which of this process produces electricity in the galvanic cell?

a) Oxidation reaction only

b) Reduction reaction only

c) Redox reaction

d) None of the above

Explanation

At anode, oxidation takes place which releases electrons. These electrons are attracted by cathode and hence the electrons flowing from anode to cathode are gained in reduction reaction. As long as the redox reaction proceeds, there is a flow of electrons and hence electricity.

73. Which is not a feature of the electrolytic cell?

a) Converts chemical energy to electrical energy.

b) Anode and cathode are in contact with same electrolyte.

c) Anode and cathode half cells are separated.

d) Redox reaction produces electricity.

Explanation

Electrolytic Cell: It is an electrochemical cell which converts electrical energy into chemical energy i.e. in electrolytic cells; electricity is used to bring about chemical reactions. Here, both anode and cathode are in contact with same electrolyte and thus the half-cells are not separated. As seen in galvanic cells, electrolytic cell also involves redox reaction.

74. Which is not a usage of electrochemistry?

a) To predict occurrence of a reaction.

b) Production and purification of non-ferrous metals.

c) Electro-synthesis of organic compounds.

d) Type of chemical reaction.

Explanation

Electrochemistry: It has been used to discover important technical processes for the production and purification of non-ferrous metals, and for the electro- synthesis of organic compounds. Electrochemistry is used to predict whether a particular reaction will occur or not.

75. Which of this redox reaction is identified in the alcohol detection?

a) Ethanol

b) Methane

c) Benzene

d) Ether

Explanation

The detection of alcohol in drunken drivers is possible through the electrochemical redox reaction of ethanol.

76. Which of these metals are produced from the electrochemical reaction of their ores?

a) Tin

b) Aluminum

c) Gold

d) Steel

Explanation

Production of metals like aluminum and titanium from their ores involve electrochemical reactions.

77. Which of these directly convert chemical energy into electrical energy?

a) Lead acid batteries

b) Fuel cells

c) Lithium-ion batteries

d) All the above

Explanation

Lead acid batteries, lithium-ion batteries and fuel cells are based on electrochemical cells. Fuel cell is used to bring about direct conversion of chemical energy into electrical energy.

78. Assertion (A): Isotopes are atoms with same number of protons and electrons and different number of neutrons.

Reasoning(R): All the isotopes found in nature are stable and stay forever.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Isotopes are atoms with same number of protons and electrons and a different number of neutrons. Some isotopes are stable and stay forever. These are the elements that we see around us and find in nature.

79. In which form the isotopes lose their energy?

a) Radiation

b) Conduction

c) Convection

d) All the above

Explanation

Some isotopes are unstable and they undergo disintegration by losing their energy in the form of radiation.

80. Choose the correct statements.

i) Every element tries to attain stability by sharing, losing or gaining electrons.

ii) The Unstable isotopes lose their energy in the form of radiation.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Every element tries to attain stability by sharing, losing or gaining electrons (octet rule). Thus the unstable isotopes of elements lose their energy in the form of radiation to become stable.

81. Assertion (A): The radioactive decay of isotopes is called as Radioactivity.

Reasoning (R): Radioactive isotope is also called as radioisotope.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The Isotope which undergoes radioactive decay is called radioactive isotope or radioisotope. This property of isotopes is known as radioactivity.

82. Which of this gas is acquired by decaying uranium?

a) Neon

b) Carbon

c) Radon

d) Argon

Explanation

Uranium in the ground can decay into radon gas which can be very dangerous to humans. It is thought to be the second leading isotope to cause lung cancer.

83. Assertion (A): Radiochemistry is the study of radioactive and non-radioactive isotopes.

Reasoning(R): Artificial isotopes are only included in radiochemistry.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Radiochemistry is the study of chemistry of radioactive and non-radioactive isotopes. It includes both natural and artificial isotopes.

84. What is the application of radiochemistry?

a) Chemical reactions of isotopes

b) Effects of isotopes in environment.

c) Study of chemical reactions of non-radioactive isotopes

d) Source of isotopes

Explanation

Radiochemistry mainly deals with application of radioisotopes to study the nature of chemical reactions of non-radioactive isotopes of elements and applications of radioisotopes to various fields.

85. Choose the correct statements.

i) Radioisotopes are easily detected and estimated quantitatively.

ii) Radiochemistry is applied in medical field and environmental management.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Radioisotopes can easily be detected and estimated quantitatively. So they are used in radiochemistry for various applications. Radiochemistry mainly deals with study of chemical reactions of non-radioactive isotopes using radioisotopes. In addition to that it could find applications in medical field and environmental management also.

86. Which of this isotope is used for radiocarbon dating?

a) C-4

b) C-14

c) C-250

d) C-100

Explanation

Radiocarbon dating: It is a method by which the age of fossil wood or animal is determined using C-14 isotope.

87. Identify the Incorrect match.

A. Iron -59 i) Anemia diagnosis

B. Hydrogen-3 ii) Water content of Human body

C. Cobalt-60 iii) Brain tumor detection

D. Sodium-24 iv) Heart pumping action

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

88. Which of these uses radioactive isotopes for treating diseases?

a) Chemotherapy

b) Radiotherapy

c) Cognitive therapy

d) Nano therapy

Explanation

Radiotherapy: Radioactive isotopes are used in the treatment of many diseases. This kind of treatment is called radiotherapy.

89. Match

A. Skin disease i) Iodine-131

B. Cancer ii) Phosphorous-32

C. Hyperthyroidism iii) Gold-198

a) i, iii, ii

b) ii, i, iii

c) ii, iii, i

d) iii, i, ii

Explanation

90. Which are added to the food stuffs to give them color?

a) Colorants

b) Coolants

c) Catalysts

d) Compounds

Explanation

We eat colored food stuffs and use numerous colored materials in our daily life. Because they contain some kind of chemicals in them which are called colorants.

91. For which purpose the colorants were used by civilized people in history?

a) Clothing

b) Painting

c) Dyeing

d) Both b and c

Explanation

The uses of colorants by mankind for painting and dyeing dates back to the dawn of civilization.

92. Which of these inorganic pigments are used as colorants?

a) Soot

b) Manganese oxide

c) Hematite

d) All the above

Explanation

Inorganic pigments such as soot, manganese oxide, and hematite were used as colorants.

93. From which of these organic colorants were extracted?

a) Insects

b) Plants

c) Fungi

d) All the above

Explanation

Organic natural colorants have also a timeless history of application, especially for coloring textiles. The organic compounds that are used as colorants are called dyes. These dyes are all aromatic compounds, originating from plants and also from insects, fungi and lichens

94. Which is not correct regarding the Dye chemistry?

a) Study of dyes.

b) Applications of synthetic dyes.

c) History of dyes.

d) Theories and structures of dyes

Explanation

After the evolution of modern organic chemistry, many kinds of synthetic dyes were prepared and used by mankind. Dye chemistry is the study of such kind of dyes. It provides us information on theory, structure, synthesis and applications of synthetic dyes.

95. Assertion (A): Dyes are colored compounds firmly fixed in fabrics by chemical bonding.

Reasoning (R): All colored compounds are dyes.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

All colored compounds are not dyes. Dyes are those colored compounds which can be firmly fixed in fabrics by chemical or physical bonding.

96. Which is not a characteristic of a dye?

a) Capable to fix in fabric.

b) It must be slow to light.

c) Water resistant.

d) Suitable color.

Explanation

A dye should have the following characteristics:

• It should have a suitable color.

• It should be able to fix itself or be capable of being fixed to the fabric.

• It should be fast to light.

• It should be resistant to the action of water, dilute acids and alkalis.

97. Assertion (A): All the dyes are synthetic and prepared from coal tar.

Reasoning (R): Coal tar dyes may differ in their structure and applications.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Practically all the dyes are synthetic, and are prepared from aromatic compounds obtained from coal tar. Therefore, such dyes are sometimes called as coal tar dyes. But, they may differ in their basic structure and the way of application.

98. In how many ways dyes are classified?

a) 3

b) 5

c) 2

d) 4

Explanation

Dyes are classified in two ways: one, based on the method of application and other based on their parent structure.

99. Choose the correct statements regarding Acid dyes.

i) It is used for dyeing animal and synthetic fibers.

ii) This can be used for wool and silk.

iii) Picric acid is an example of acid dye.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Acid dyes: These are acidic in nature and used for dyeing animal fibers and synthetic fibers. These can be used for protein fibers such as wool and silk. E.g. Picric acid, Naphthol yellow-s

100. Which is not a basic group of dyes?

a) NH₂

b) R₂

c) NR₂

d) NHR

Explanation

Basic dyes: These are basic dyes containing basic group (-NH2,- NHR, – NR2). They are used for dyeing animal fibers and plant fibers.

101. Which is called as indirect dyes?

a) Organic dyes

b) Mordant dyes

c) Inorganic dyes

d) Synthetic dyes

Explanation

Mordant dyes or indirect dyes: These dyes have a poor affinity for cotton fabrics and hence do not dye directly. They require pretreatment of the fiber with a mordant.

102. What can be combined to mordant to form dyes?

a) Plants

b) Alkalis

c) Fibers

d) Acids

Explanation

Mordant (latin : mordere = to bite) is a substance which can be fixed to the fiber and then can be combined with the dye to form an insoluble complex called lake.

103. Which of these are used as mordants?

a) Aluminum

b) Chromium

c) Iron salts

d) All the above

Explanation

Aluminium, chromium, and iron salts are widely used as mordants. E.g. alizarin

104. To which of these direct dyes have high affinity?

a) Cotton

b) Rayon

c) Cellulose fibers

d) All the above

Explanation

Direct dyes: They have high affinity for cotton, rayon and other cellulose fiber. So, they are applied directly as they fix firmly on the fabric. E.g. Congo red

105. In which of this material vat dyes can be used?

a) Silk

b) Cotton

c) Wool

d) Jute

Explanation

Vat dyes: It can be used only on cotton and, not on silk and wool. This dyeing is a continuous process and is carried out in a large vessel called vat. So, it is called as vat dye. E.g. Indigo

106. Which of this dye is not classified based on its structure?

a) Phthalo cyanine

b) Nitroso

c) Congo red

d) Triphenyl methane

Explanation

Based on the structure, dyes are classified as: Azo dyes, Diphenyl methane dye, Triphenyl methane dye, Phthalein dye, Anthraquinone dye, Indigo dyes, Phthalo cyanine dye, Nitro and nitroso dyes.

107. Choose the correct statements regarding Agricultural chemistry.

i) It involves the application of chemical and biochemical principles in agriculture.

ii) It includes agricultural production and processing of raw materials into food and beverages.

iii) It provides scientific relation between plants, animals, bacteria and environment.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Agricultural chemistry involves the application of chemical and biochemical knowledge to agricultural production, processing of raw materials into foods and beverages, and environmental monitoring and remediation. It deals with scientific relation between plants, animals, bacteria and environment.

108. Assertion (A): Modernized agricultural practices involve synthetic fertilizers, modified crops and equipment.

Reasoning (R): It aims in producing sufficient nutritious food for the population.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Indian chemists and biochemists applied their knowledge and developed modernized agricultural practices which involve use of synthetic fertilizers, genetically modified crops, and equipment’s. It aims at producing sufficient nutritious food and feed the population in a sustainable way while being responsible stewards of our environment and ecosystem.

109. Which of this issue is not addressed by the agricultural chemistry?

a) Improved food quality

b) Modified techniques

c) Cost reduction of production

d) Crop yield and livestock increase

Explanation

Based on the issues and challenges in agricultural production, agricultural chemistry mainly focuses to achieve the following:

• Increase in crop yield and livestock

• Improvement of food quality

• Reducing cost of food production

110. What are the effects of chemical principles in agriculture?

a) Increase yield

b) Protect crops

c) Simplified practice

d) All the above

Explanation

Chemical principles and reactions are most widely used in agriculture in order to increase yield, to protect crops from diseases and to simplify the practice of agriculture.

111. What is the main criterion for soil testing process?

a) Soil type

b) Soil pH

c) Crop type

d) All the above

Explanation

Soil Testing: Crop lands may have different kinds of soil with varying pH. Soil pH is one of the main criteria to be considered for the selection of crop or remediation of soil.

112. Which of these are determined by soil testing?

a) pH

b) Texture

c) Porosity

d) All the above

Explanation

Soil testing involves determination of pH, porosity and texture.

113. Choose the correct statements regarding chemical fertilizers.

i) Fertilizers are chemical compounds added to crop field for essential micro and macro nutrients.

ii) Fertilizers are used single or mixture compound based on the nature of soil.

iii) Ammonium nitrate, calcium phosphate, urea and NPK are some of the fertilizers.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Chemical Fertilizers: Fertilizers are chemical compounds added to crop field for supplying essential micro and macro nutrients required for crop growth. Ammonium nitrate, calcium phosphate, urea, NPK (Nitrogen, Phosphorous and Potassium), etc. are some of the fertilizers. Depending on the nature of soil, these fertilizers are used singly or as mixtures.

114. Which of these are not used as pesticides and insecticides?

a) Chlorinated hydrocarbons

b) Sodium benzoate

c) Organophosphates

d) Carbonates

Explanation

Pesticides and Insecticides: Crops are prone to diseases caused by pests and insects. Chemically synthesized pesticides and insecticides are used to solve these issues. Chlorinated hydrocarbons, organophosphates and carbonates are used as pesticides and insecticides.

115. Assertion (A): Food is the basic need of human and animal.

Reasoning (R): Food is also made of chemicals.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Food is one of the basic needs of human and animal. The foods we eat also are made of chemicals. Any human might require the three kinds of food.

116. Match

A. Fat i) Protective foods

B. Minerals ii) Physical growth

C. Protein iii) Energy supply

a) i, ii, iii

b) iii, i, ii

c) ii, i, iii

d) iii, ii, i

Explanation

Body building foods: These are required for physical growth of body. E.g. Proteins

Energy giving foods: These are the foods that supply energy for the functioning of parts human body. E.g. Carbohydrates and Fats.

Protective foods: These protect us from deficiency diseases. E.g. Vitamins and Minerals

117. Assertion (A): Balanced diet contains three kinds of foods in right proportion.

Reasoning(R): Human requires three kinds of food in right proportion for smooth functioning of body.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Every human requires all these three kind of foods in right proportion for the smooth functioning of the body. The diet that contains all these three foods in right proportion is called Balanced diet.

118. Choose the correct statements.

i) Food chemistry involves the analysis processing and packaging of food.

ii) Utilization of food materials including bioenergy for food safety and quality.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Food chemistry is the chemistry of foods which involves the analysis, processing, packaging, and utilization of materials including bioenergy for food safety and quality.

119. What is the main goal of food chemistry?

a) Food research

b) Quality of food to population.

c) New innovations for quality food.

d) All the above

Explanation

Goals of food chemistry: The main goal of food chemistry is to cater the needs of quality food to the population in a sustainable way.

120. What are the foods properties studied and analyzed by the food chemists?

a) Fat

b) Starch

c) Additives

d) All the above

Explanation

In basic research, food chemists study the properties of proteins, fats, starches, and carbohydrates, as well as micro components such as additives and flavorings to determine how each works in a food system.

121. Which of these are the new ingredients developed by research applications?

a) Nutrients

b) Antioxidants

c) Sugar replacements

d) Carbohydrates

Explanation

In application research, they often develop new ways to use ingredients or new ingredients altogether, such as fat or sugar replacements.

122. Assertion (A): Human food contains only the natural chemicals.

Reasoning (R): The chemicals in food are used for different functions in human body.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is False but R is True.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Chemicals in Food we eat in our day to day life contain natural or synthetic chemicals. They serve different functions in human body.

123. Which is not true regarding the nutrients of food?

a) Required for Human growth.

b) Most essential chemical in food.

c) Good and Bad nutrients are present in food.

d) Physiological and metabolic activities of human body.

Explanation

Nutrients: They are the most essential chemicals present in food. They are required for the growth, physiological and metabolic activities of body.

124. Which of these are not included in nutrients?

a) Proteins

b) Bacteria

c) Minerals

d) Carbohydrates

Explanation

The Nutrients are natural or synthetic. E.g. Carbohydrates, proteins, vitamins and minerals.

125. Assertion (A): Food additives are the chemicals added to food for specialized functions.

Reasoning (R): Monosodium glutamate is a chemical used to enhance the flavor of food.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Food additives: These are the chemicals added to food for specialized functions.

126. What is the percentage of people employed in agriculture worldwide?

a) 56%

b) 28%

c) 40%

d) 78%

Explanation

40% of today’s global population works in agriculture, making it the single largest employment in the world.

127. What is the purpose of adding preservatives in food?

a) Protects from spoilage by microorganism in storage.

b) Used to enhance the flavor.

c) To give pleasant colors.

d) Protect against cardiovascular disease.

128. Match

A. Saccharin i) Colorant

B. Curcumin ii) Antioxidant

C. Benzoic acid iii) Artificial sweetener

D. Carotene iv) Preservative

a) iv, ii, i, iii

b) iii, i, iv, ii

c) ii, iii, i, iv

d) iii, ii, i, iv

129. Which of this additive is used to prevent the oxidation of food?

a) Flavor enhancers

b) Colorants

c) Antioxidants

d) Preservatives

Explanation

130. Which of these are applied in a forensic chemistry?

a) Scientific principles

b) Scientific techniques

c) Scientific methods

d) All the above

Explanation

Forensic chemistry applies scientific principles, techniques, and methods to the investigation of crime.

131. How many steps of investigation in a crime is worked out by the forensic chemists?

a) 10

b) 4

c) 5

d) 2

Explanation

In general, forensic chemists work in four steps in the investigation of crime.

132. Which of these evidences can be chemically analyzed in a crime?

a) Blood

b) DNA

c) Hair

d) All the above

Explanation

Analysis of evidences: In criminal cases, chemists analyze substances such as blood and DNA to attempt to determine when and by whom the crime was committed.

133. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Finger print is the most important evidences in crime investigation.

ii) Fingerprints on smooth surfaces can be made visible by applying dark or light powders.

iii) Occult fingerprints can also be made visible by using dark or light powders.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Finger print: Finger print is one of the most important evidences in crime investigation. Fingerprints on smooth surfaces can often be made visible by the application of light or dark powder, but fingerprints on cheques or other documents are often occult (hidden).

134. Which is used to make the occult fingerprints visible?##

a) Ninhydrin

b) Alcohol

c) Glue

d) Ether

Explanation

Occult fingerprints are sometimes made visible by the use of ninhydrin which turns purple due to reaction with amino acids present in perspiration.

135. Which of these are used to make the fingerprints visible?###

a) Fluorescent dyes

b) Cyanoacrylate ester fume

c) High-powered laser light

d) All the above

Explanation

Fingerprints or other marks are also sometimes made visible by exposure to high-powered laser light. Cyanoacrylate ester fumes from glue are used with fluorescent dyes to make the fingerprints visible.

136. Assertion (A): Biometrics is the study and analysis of human body prints.

Reasoning(R): The biometric system compares the body prints of stored specimen data with unknown person data.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Biometrics: The science that involves the study and analysis of human body prints is known as biometrics. The biometric system compares the body prints to the specimen data stored in the system to verify the identity of a person.

137. Which of these chemicals is not present in the alcohol test equipment?

a) Silver nitrate

b) Hydrogen sulphides

c) Potassium dichromate

d) Sulfuric acid

Explanation

Alcohol test: Drinkers can be easily identified by the use of applied chemistry. The person being tested blows through a tube which bubbles the breath through a solution of chemicals containing sulfuric acid, potassium dichromate, water, and silver nitrate.

138. Which of this reaction converts dichromate to chromic ion in the alcohol test?

a) Oxidation

b) Reduction

c) Redox

d) Single replacement

Explanation

Oxidation of the alcohol results in the reduction of dichromate to chromic ion with a corresponding change in color from orange to green.

139. Which of these statements are not true regarding the alcohol test equipment?

a) An electrical device with a photocell is used to compare the test solution.

b) The test provides a quick and reproducible determination of alcohol amount.

c) The equipment is used to just identify the alcohol presence in bloodstream.

d) It gives the numerical amount of alcohol of the person’s bloodstream.

Explanation

In alcohol test equipment an electrical device employing a photocell compares the color of the test solution with a standard solution, giving a quantitative determination of the alcohol content. The test provides a quick and reproducible determination of the amount of alcohol in a person’s breath and is a numerical measure of the amount of alcohol in the bloodstream.

140. What are the applications of applied chemistry?

a) Synthetic materials

b) Daily life products

c) Inevitable

d) All the above

Explanation

Applications of Applied Chemistry

• Many of the advantages of applied chemistry are around us. It is inevitable.

• Applied chemistry has given us innumerous synthetic materials to lead our day to day life.

• The applied chemistry makes a most important contribution to our society.

• It makes a major contribution to the country’s economic development and plays vital role worldwide.

• The products of applied chemistry are so widespread that they are used in our daily.

9th Science Lesson 17 Questions in English

17] Animal Kingdom

1. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Nearly 1.5 million species of organism which have been described are different from one another
2. Every organism exhibits variation in their external appearance, internal structure and behaviour, mode of living etc.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The variety of living organisms surrounding us is incomprehensible. Nearly 1.5 million species of organism which have been described are different from one another. The uniqueness is due to the diversity in the life forms whether it is microbes, plants or animals. Every organism exhibits variation in their external appearance, internal structure and behaviour, mode of living etc. This versatile nature among the living animals forms the basis of diversity.

2. Assertion(A): The method of arranging organism into groups on the basis of similarities and

differences is called as classification

Reason(R): The study of various organisms would be difficult without a suitable method of

Classification

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

The diversity among the living organisms can be studied in an effective way by arranging animals in an orderly and systematic manner. The study of various organisms would be difficult without a suitable method of classification. The method of arranging organism into groups on the basis of similarities and differences is called classification.

3. ______ is the science of classification which makes the study of wide variety of organisms easier.

1. Anatomy
2. Taxonomy
3. Autonomy
4. Clarification

Explanation

Taxonomy is the science of classification which makes the study of wide variety of organisms easier. It helps us to understand the relationship among different group of animals.

4. The first systematic approach to the classification of living organisms was made by______

1. Charles Darwin
2. Carolus Linnaeus
3. Gregor Mendel
4. Asa Gray

Explanation

The first systematic approach to the classification of living organisms was made by a Swedish botanist, Carolus Linnaeus. He generated the standard system for naming organisms in terms of genus, species and more extensive groupings using Latin terms.

5. Classification is the ordering of organism into groups on the basis of_______

1. Similarities
2. Dissimilarities
3. Relationships
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Classification is the ordering of organism into groups on the basis of their similarities, dissimilarities and relationships.

6. Which of the following is not one of the parts in five kingdom classification?

1. Protista
2. Plants
3. Fungai
4. Chromista

Explanation

The method of arranging organism into groups on the basis of similarities and differences is called classification. The five-kingdom classification are Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.

7. On which basis five kingdom classification is made?

1. Cell structure
2. Mode of nutrition
3. Reproduction
4. Body organization
5. 1, 3, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 3
8. All the above

Explanation

The five kingdom classification groups are formed based on cell structure, mode of nutrition, body organization and reproduction. On the basis of hierarchy of classification, the organisms are separated into smaller and smaller groups which form the basic unit of classification.

8. Which of the following is lowest taxonomic category?

1. Genus
2. Species
3. Order
4. Kingdom

Explanation

Species is the lowest taxonomic category. For example, the large Indian parakeet (Psittacula eupatra) and the green parrot (Psittacula krameri) are two different species of birds. They belong to different species eupatra and krameri and cannot interbreed.

9. Which of the following are placed in same genus?

1. Indian wolf
2. Indian Tiger
3. Indian jackal
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Genus is a group of closely related species which constitute the next higher category called genus. For example, the Indian wolf (Canis pallipes) and the Indian jackal (Canis aures) are placed in the same genus Canis.

10. Which of the following share form a family?

1. Tiger
2. Leopard
3. Cat
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

A group of genera with several common characters form a family. For example, leopard, tiger and cat share some common characteristics and belong to the larger cat family Felidae.

11. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. A number of related families having common characters are placed in Phylum
2. Monkeys, baboons, apes and Man although belong to different families, are placed in the same order Primates
3. They all possess some common features.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

A number of related families having common characters are placed in an order. Monkeys, baboons, apes and Man although belong to different families, are placed in the same order Primates. Since all these animals possess some common features, they are placed in the same order.

12. Which animals share some common features such as the presence of skin and mammary glands?

1. Rabbit
2. Whales
3. Human
4. Shark
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 3
8. All the above

Explanation

Related or similar orders together form a class. The orders of different animals like those of rabbit, rat, bats, whales, chimpanzee and human share some common features such as the presence of skin and mammary glands. Hence, they are placed in class Mammalia.

13. Which of the following constitute Phylum Chordata?

1. Birds
2. Fishes
3. Frogs
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Classes which are related with one another constitute a phylum. The classes of different animals like mammals, birds, reptiles, frogs and fishes constitute Phylum Chordata which have a notochord or back bone.

14. ________ is the highest category taxonomic category.

1. Species
2. Phylum
3. Kingdom
4. Order

Explanation

Kingdom is the highest category and the largest division to which microorganisms, plants and animals belong to. Each kingdom is fundamentally different from one another, but has the same fundamental characteristics in all organisms grouped under that Kingdom.

15. Arrange the following in order?

1. Kingdom
2. Phylum
3. Family
4. Species
5. 3, 1, 4, 2
6. 2, 3, 4, 1
7. 1, 2, 3, 4
8. 1, 3, 2, 4

Explanation

16. Based on which of the following animals are grouped as unicellular or multicellular?

1. Cell
2. Tissue
3. Organ
4. Organ system
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

We can divide the Animal kingdom based on the level of organization (arrangement of cells), body symmetry, germ layers and nature of coelom. Animals are grouped as unicellular or multicellular based on cell, tissue, organ and organ system level of organization.

17. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Symmetry is plane of arrangement of body parts
2. Radial symmetry and bilateral symmetry are the two types of symmetry.
3. In radial symmetry the body parts are arranged around the central axis
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Symmetry is plane of arrangement of body parts. Radial symmetry and bilateral symmetry are the two types of symmetry. In radial symmetry the body parts are arranged around the central axis.

18. Which of the following is bilateral symmetry?

1. Hydra
2. Frog
3. Jelly fish
4. Star fish

Explanation

In bilateral symmetry, the body parts are arranged along a central axis. If the animal is cut through the central axis, we get two identical halves e.g. Frog.

19. Which of the following is an example of radial symmetry?

1. Hydra
2. Frog
3. Jelly fish
4. Star fish
5. 1, 3, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

In radial symmetry the body parts are arranged around the central axis. If the animal is cut through the central axis in any direction, it can be divided into similar halves. e.g. Hydra, jelly fish and star fish.

20. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Germ layers are formed during the development of an embryo
2. Organisms with two germ layers, the ectoderm and the endoderm are called diploblastic animals
3. Organisms with three germ layers, ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm are called triploblastic animals
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Germ layers are formed during the development of an embryo. These layers give rise to different organs, as the embryo becomes an adult. Organisms with two germ layers, the ectoderm and the endoderm are called diploblastic animals. e.g Hydra. Organisms with three germ layers, ectoderm, mesoderm and endoderm are called triploblastic animals. e.g Rabbit.

21. Which of the following statement about Coelom is correct?

1. It is a non-fluid-filled body cavity.
2. A true body cavity or coelom is one that is located within the mesoderm
3. Based on the nature of the coelom, animals are divided into 3 groups.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Coelom is a fluid-filled body cavity. It separates the digestive tract from the body wall. A true body cavity or coelom is one that is located within the mesoderm. Based on the nature of the coelom, animals are divided into 3 groups.

22. Match the following

1. Acoelomates 1. Earthworm
2. Pseudocoelomates 2. Roundworm
3. Coelomates 3. Tapeworm
4. 1, 3, 2
5. 3, 2, 1
6. 2, 1, 3
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

1. Acoelomates do not have a body cavity e.g Tapeworm.

2. Pseudocoelomates have a false body cavity e.g Roundworm.

3. Coelomates or Eucoelomates have a true coelom e.g Earthworm, Frog.

23. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Animal Kingdom is further divided into two groups based on the presence or absence of notochord
2. Animals which do not possess notochord are called as vertebrates
3. Animals which possess notochord or backbone are called as Chordates
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Animal Kingdom is further divided into two groups based on the presence or absence of notochord as below.

1. In-vertebrata

2. Chordata-Pro-Chordata and Vertebrata

Animals which do not possess notochord are called as Invertebrates or Non- chordates. Animals which possess notochord or backbone are called as Chordates.

24. Notochord is a rod like structure formed on the______ side of the body

1. Mid-dorsal
2. Mid-lateral
3. Posterior
4. Anterior

Explanation

Notochord is a rod like structure formed on the mid-dorsal side of the body during embryonic development. Except primitive forms in which the notochord persists throughout life in all other animals it is replaced by a backbone.

25. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Carolus Linnaeus introduced the method of naming the animals with two names known as binomial nomenclature
2. The first name is called species and the first letter of genus is denoted in capital and the second one is the genus name denoted in small letter
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Carolus Linnaeus introduced the method of naming the animals with two names known as binomial nomenclature. The first name is called genus and the first letter of genus is denoted in capital and the second one is the species name denoted in small letter.

26. Match the following

1. Amoeba 1. Periplaneta americana
2. Tapeworm 2. Taenia solium
3. Leech 3. Amoeba proteus
4. Cockroach 4. Hirudinaria granulosa
5. 3, 1, 4, 2
6. 3, 2, 4, 1
7. 1, 3, 4, 2
8. 4, 1, 2, 3

Explanation

27. Match the following

1. Wall lizard 1. Felis felis
2. Cat 2. Panthera tigris
3. Tiger 3. Pavo cristatus
4. Peacock 4. Podarcis muralis
5. 3, 1, 2, 4
6. 4, 1, 2, 3
7. 1, 4, 2, 3
8. 2, 1, 4, 3

Explanation

28. Which of the following statement about Phylum Porifera is correct?

1. These are multicellular, non-motile aquatic organisms, commonly called as sponges.
2. Body is perforated with many pores called ostia.
3. Water enters into the body through ostia and leads to a canal system
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Phylum Porifera are multicellular, non-motile aquatic organisms, commonly called as sponges. They exhibit cellular grade of organization. Body is perforated with many pores called ostia. Water enters into the body through ostia and leads to a canal system. It circulates water throughout the body and carries food, oxygen. The body wall contains spicules, which form the skeletal framework. Reproduction is by both asexual and sexual methods. e.g- Euplectella, Sycon.

29. Which of the following statement about Phylum Coelenterata is correct?

1. Coelenterates are aquatic organisms, mostly marine and few fresh water forms
2. It has a central gastrovascular cavity called coelenteron with mouth surrounded by short tentacles
3. Body wall is triploblastic with three layers
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Coelenterates are aquatic organisms, mostly marine and few fresh water forms. They are multicellular, radially symmetrical animals, with tissue grade of organization. Body wall is diploblastic with two layers. An outer ectoderm and inner endoderm are separated by noncellular jelly like substance called mesoglea. It has a central gastrovascular cavity called coelenteron with mouth surrounded by short tentacles. The tentacles bear stinging cells called cnidoblast or nematocyst.

30. Coelenterates exhibit__________

1. Dimorphism
2. Tri-morphism
3. Polymorphism
4. None

Explanation

Many coelenterates exhibit polymorphism, which is the variation in the structure and function of the individuals of the same species. They reproduce both asexually and sexually. e.g. Hydra, Jellyfish.

31. Which of the following statement about Phylum Platyhelminthes is correct?

1. They are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, acoelomate animals
2. These worms are hermaphrodites
3. Suckers and hooks help the animal to attach itself to the body of the host
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Phylum Platyhelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, acoelomate (without body cavity) animals. Most of them are parasitic in nature. Suckers and hooks help the animal to attach itself to the body of the host. Excretion occurs by specialized cells called flame cells. These worms are hermaphrodites having both male and female reproductive organs in a single individual. e.g- Liver-fluke, Tapeworm.

32. Which of the following is not the feature of Phylum Aschelminthes?

1. Radial symmetry
2. Bilateral symmetry
3. Triploblastic
4. None

Explanation

Aschelminthes are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic animals. The body cavity is a pseudocoelom. They exist as free-living soil forms or as parasites.

33. Which of the following diseases caused by nematodes in human beings?

1. Cholera
2. Elephantiasis
3. Ascariasis
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Phylum Aschelminthes is unsegmented and covered by thin cuticle. Sexes are separate. The most common diseases caused by nematodes in human beings are elephantiasis and ascariasis. e.g-Ascaris, Wuchereria.

34. Which of the following does not belongs to Phylum Annelida?

1. Nereis
2. Leech
3. Earthworm
4. Centipede

Explanation

Phylum Annelida also known as Segmented worms. Centipedes belongs to Phylum Arthropoda. Examples of Segmented worms are Nereis, Earthworm, Leech.

35. Which of the following statement about Phylum Annelida?

1. They are bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic
2. Setae and parapodia are locomotor organs.
3. Sexes may be separate or united (hermaphrodites)
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Phylum Annelida (Segmented worms) are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, first true coelomate animals with organ-system grade of organization. Body is externally divided into segments called metameres joined by ring like structures called annuli. It is covered by moist thin cuticle. Setae and parapodia are locomotor organs. Sexes may be separate or united (hermaphrodites).

36. _______ is the largest phylum of the animal kingdom

1. Annelida
2. Aschelminthes
3. Platyhelminthes
4. Arthropoda

Explanation

Phylum Arthropoda are animals with animals with jointed legs. Arthropoda is the largest phylum of the animal kingdom.

37. Which of the following statement about Phylum Arthropoda?

1. They are Radial symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals.
2. The body is divisible into head, thorax and abdomen
3. Exoskeleton is made of chitin and is shed periodically as the animal grows
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Phylum Arthropoda are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and coelomate animals. The body is divisible into head, thorax and abdomen. Each thorasic segment bears paired jointed legs. Exoskeleton is made of chitin and is shed periodically as the animal grows. The casting off and regrowing of exoskeleton is called moulting.

38. Which of the following is not a Phylum Arthropoda?

1. Centipede
2. Prawn
3. Crab
4. Ascaris

Explanation

Prawn, Crab, Cockroach, Millipede, Centipedes, Spider, Scorpion are the examples of Phylum Arthropoda (Animals with jointed legs). Ascaris is an example of Phylum Aschelminthes.

39. Which of the following are the respiration methods of Phylum Arthropoda?

1. Gills
2. Body surface
3. Tracheae
4. a or b or c

Explanation

Body cavity of Phylum Arthropoda is filled with haemolymph (blood). The blood does not flow in blood vessels and circulates throughout the body (open circulatory system). Respiration is through body surface, gills or tracheae (air tubes). Excretion occurs by malphigian tubules or green glands. Sexes are separate.

40. Centipede means______

1. Hundred legs
2. Thousand legs
3. Five Hundred legs
4. Sixty legs

Explanation

Centipede means hundred legs. But most species have only 30 pairs. Millipedes have two pairs of legs on each segment. This name means thousand legs. But, most millipedes have only about a hundred.

41. Which of the following statement is correct about Phylum Mollusca?

1. They are diversified group of animals living in marine, fresh water and terrestrial habitats.
2. Body is bilaterally symmetrical, soft and without segmentation
3. Sexes are separate with larval stages during development
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Phylum Mollusca are diversified group of animals living in marine, fresh water and terrestrial habitats. Body is bilaterally symmetrical, soft and without segmentation. It is divided into head, muscular foot and visceral mass. The foot helps in locomotion. The entire body is covered with fold of thin skin called mantle, which secretes outer hard calcareous shell. Respiration is through gills (ctenidia) or lungs or both. Sexes are separate with larval stages during development. e.g-Garden snail, Octopus.

42. Which of the following are capable by Octopus?

1. Emotion
2. Empathy
3. Personality
4. All the above

Explanation

Octopus is the only invertebrate that is capable of emotion, empathy, cognitive function, self-awareness, personality and even relationships with humans. Some speculate that without humans, octopus would eventually take our place as the dominate life form on earth.

43. Which of the following statement is correct about Phylum Echinodermata?

1. They are exclusively free-living marine animals.
2. Body wall is covered with spiny hard calcareous ossicles
3. Garden Snail is an example of Phylum Echinodermata
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Phylum Echinodermata are exclusively free-living marine animals. These are triploblastic and true coelomates with organ-system grade of organization. Adult animals are radially symmetrical but larvae remain bilaterally symmetrical. A unique feature is the presence of fluid filled water vascular system. Locomotion occurs by tube feet. Body wall is covered with spiny hard calcareous ossicles. e.g- Star fish, Sea urchin.

44. Which of the following statement is correct about Phylum Hemi-Chordata?

1. Hemichordates are fresh water organisms with soft, vermiform and unsegmented body.
2. They have gill slits but do not have notochord
3. They are ciliary feeders and mostly remain as tubiculous forms
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Hemichordates are marine organisms with soft, vermiform and unsegmented body. They are bilaterally symmetrical, coelomate animals with non-chordate and chordate features. They have gill slits but do not have notochord. They are ciliary feeders and mostly remain as tubiculous forms. E.g- Balanoglossus (Acorn worms).

45. Which of the following are the subphylum of Pro-Chordata?

1. Urochordata
2. Cephalo-Chordata
3. Neo-Chordata
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The pro-chordates are considered as the forerunners of vertebrates. Based on the nature of the notochord, pro-Chordata is classified into subphylum Urochordata and subphylum Cephalo-Chordata.

46. Which of the following is example of Urochordata?

1. Star fish
2. Ascidian
3. Amphioxus
4. Carps

Explanation

In Subphylum Urochordata, Notochord is present only in the tail region of free-living larva. Adults are sessile forms and mostly degenerate. The body is covered with a tunic or test. e.g. Ascidian.

47. Which of the following is an example of Cephalo-Chordata?

1. Star fish
2. Ascidian
3. Amphioxus
4. Carps

Explanation

Cephalochordates are small fish like marine chordates with unpaired dorsal fins. The notochord extends throughout the entire length of the body. E.g. Amphioxus.

48. Vertebrata are grouped into_____ classes.

1. 3
2. 5
3. 7
4. 6

Explanation

Vertebrata group is characterized by the presence of vertebral column or backbone. Notochord in an embryonic stage gets replaced by the vertebral column, which forms the chief skeletal axis of the body. Vertebrata are grouped into six classes.

49. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Cyclostomes are jawless vertebrates
2. They are ectoparasites of fishes
3. Body is elongated and eel like.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Cyclostomes are jawless vertebrates (mouth not bounded by jaws). Body is elongated and eel like. They have circular mouth. Skin is slimy and scaleless. They are ectoparasites of fishes. E.g. Hagfish.

50. Fishes are_______ blooded

1. Warm
2. Cold
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

Fishes are poikilothermic (cold-blooded), aquatic vertebrates with jaws. The streamlined body is divisible into head, trunk and tail. Locomotion is by paired and median fins. Their body is covered with scales. Respiration is through gills. The heart is two chambered with an auricle and a ventricle.

51. What is the length of smallest vertebrate?

1. 10 cm
2. 10 mm
3. 10 m
4. 1 cm

Explanation

The smallest vertebrate, Philippine goby/dwarf pygmy goby is a tropical species fish found in brackish water and mangrove areas in south East Asia, measuring only 10 mm in length.

52. Which of the following statement is correct about Amphibia?

1. These are the first four legged (tetra-pods) vertebrates with dual adaptation to live in both land and water
2. The heart is four chambered with two auricles and two ventricle.
3. Frog and Toad are examples
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Amphibia are the first four legged (tetra-pods) vertebrates with dual adaptation to live in both land and water. The body is divisible into head and trunk. Their skin is moist and have mucus glands. Respiration is through gills, lungs, skin or buccopharynx. The heart is three chambered with two auricles and one ventricle. Eggs are laid in water. The tadpole larva, transforms into an adult. e.g-Frog, Toad.

53. What is the average weight of Chinese giant salamander Andrias davidians?

1. 75 kg
2. 65 kg
3. 35 kg
4. 85 kg

Explanation

The Chinese giant salamander Andrias davidians is the largest amphibian in the world. Its length is about five feet and eleven inches. It weighs about 65 kg, found in Central and South China.

54. Which of the following belongs to Reptilia?

1. Calotes
2. Lizard
3. Tortoise
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Reptilia are vertebrates are fully adapted to live on land. Their body is covered with horny epidermal scales. Respiration is through lungs. The heart is three chambered with an exemption of crocodiles, which have four-chambered heart. Most of the reptiles lay their eggs with tough outer shell e.g. Calotes, Lizard, Snake, Tortoise, Turtle.

55. Which of the following statement is correct about Aves?

1. Birds are homeothermic (warm-blooded)
2. Bones are filled with air (pneumatic bones), which reduces the body weight.
3. They lay large yolk laden eggs.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Birds are homeothermic (warm-blooded) animals with several adaptations to fly. The spindle or boat shaped body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail. The body is covered with feathers. Forelimbs are modified into wings for flight. Hindlimbs are adapted for walking, perching or swimming. The respiration is through lungs, which have air sacs. Bones are filled with air (pneumatic bones), which reduces the body weight. They lay large yolk laden eggs. They are covered by hard calcareous shell. e.g. Parrot, Crow, Eagle, Pigeon, Ostrich.

56. Which of the following statement is correct about Mammalia?

1. Heart is Five chambered and they breathe through lungs
2. Placenta is the unique characteristic feature of mammals.
3. The external ears or pinnae is present.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Mammals are warm-blooded animals. The skin is covered with hairs. It also bears sweat and sebaceous (oil) glands. The body is divisible into head, neck, trunk and tail. Females have mammary glands, which secrete milk for feeding the young ones. The external ears or pinnae is present. Heart is four chambered and they breathe through lungs. Except egg laying mammals (Platypus, and Spiny anteater), all other mammals give birth to their young ones (viviparous). Placenta is the unique characteristic feature of mammals. e.g. Rat, Rabbit, Man.

57._______ is the biggest vertebrate animal.

1. Shark
2. Blue whale
3. Sea Turtle
4. All the above

Explanation

The gigantic Blue whale which is 35 meters long and 120 tons in weight is the biggest vertebrate animal. Mammalia means mamma-breast.

9th Science Lesson 18 Questions in English

18] Organization of Tissues

1. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Unicellular organisms like bacteria and protozoans are made of single cells.
2. Multicellular organisms, like higher plants and animals, are composed of millions of different types of cells
3. Multicellular organisms have specialized cells, tissues, organs and organ systems that perform specific functions
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Unicellular organisms like bacteria and protozoans are made of single cells. On the other hand, multicellular organisms, like higher plants and animals, are composed of millions of different types of cells that are grouped into different levels of organization. Multicellular organisms have specialized cells, tissues, organs and organ systems that perform specific functions.

2. Which of the following is the basic entity?

1. Tissue
2. Organ
3. Cell
4. Organ system

Explanation

Cells are the basic entity. Group of cells positioned and designed to perform a particular function is called a tissue. An organ is a structure made up of a collection of tissues that carry out specialized functions.

3. Which of the following are organs in plant?

1. Xylem
2. Root
3. Leaf
4. Stem
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 1, 3, 4
7. 2, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

In plants the root, stem and leaves are organs, whereas xylem and phloem are tissues. Similarly, in animals, stomach is an organ that consists of tissues made of epithelial cells, gland cells and muscle cells.

4. In general, Plant tissues are classified into how many type?

1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 5

Explanation

Plants are made up of vegetative and reproductive tissues. In general, plant tissues are classified into two types namely:

1. Meristems or Meristematic tissues.
2. Permanent tissues

5. What does the term “meristem” mean?

1. Divisible
2. Indivisible
3. Permanent
4. Closed

Explanation

The term ‘meristem’ is derived from the Greek word ‘Meristos’ which means divisible or having cell division activity. Meristematic tissues are group of immature cells that are capable of undergoing cell division.

6. In which of the following places Meristematic Tissues are found?

1. Apex of stem
2. Root
3. Vascular cambium
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

In plants, meristem is found in zones where growth can take place. Example: apex of stem, root, leaf primordia, vascular cambium, cork cambium, etc.,

7. Which of the following are Characteristic features of Meristematic Tissues?

1. They are living cells
2. They do not store food materials
3. They undergo Amitotic cell division
4. They are thin walled with dense cytoplasm, large nuclei and small vacuoles.
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Characteristic features of Meristematic Tissues:

a) They are living cells.

b) Cells are small, oval, polygonal or round in shape.

c) They are thin walled with dense cytoplasm, large nuclei and small vacuoles.

d) They undergo mitotic cell division.

e) They do not store food materials.

8. On the basis of position, how many types of Meristematic Tissues are there?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 6

Explanation

On the basis of their position in the plant, meristems are of three types: Apical meristem, Intercalary meristem and Lateral meristem.

9. Match the following:

1. Apical meristem 1. Causes the thickness of the plant part
2. Intercalary meristem 2. Bring about increase in length
3. Lateral Meristem 3. Found at the base of internodes
4. 2, 1, 3
5. 2, 3, 1
6. 1, 3, 2
7. 3, 1, 2

Explanation

Apical meristem is found at the apices or growing points of root and shoot and bring about increase in length. Intercalary meristem lies between the region of permanent tissues and is part of primary meristem. It is found either at the base of leaf (e.g. Pinus) or at the base of internodes (e.g. grasses). Lateral Meristem is arranged parallel and causes the thickness of the plant part.

10. What is the primary function of Meristematic Tissues?

1. Thickness
2. Elongation
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

Meristems are actively dividing tissues of the plant, that are responsible for primary (elongation) and secondary (thickness) growth of the plant.

11. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Permanent tissues are those in which, growth has stopped either completely or for the time being
2. At times, they become meristematic partially or wholly
3. Permanent tissues are of two types, namely: simple tissue and complex tissue
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Permanent tissues are those in which, growth has stopped either completely or for the time being. At times, they become meristematic partially or wholly. Permanent tissues are of two types, namely: simple tissue and complex tissue.

12. Which of the following are Simple Tissues?

1. Xylem
2. Parenchyma
3. Collenchyma
4. Phloem
5. 1, 2
6. 3, 4
7. 1, 4
8. 2, 3

Explanation

Simple tissues are homogeneous tissues composed of structurally and functionally similar cells. eg., Parenchyma, Collenchyma and Sclerenchyma.

13. Which of the following statement about Parenchyma is correct?

1. Parenchyma are simple permanent tissues composed of living cells
2. Parenchyma cells are thin walled, oval, rounded or polygonal in shape with well developed spaces among them
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Parenchyma are simple permanent tissues composed of living cells. Parenchyma cells are thin walled, oval, rounded or polygonal in shape with well-developed spaces among them.

14. Assertion(A): Aquatic plants float because of Parenchyma tissue

Reason(R): In aquatic plants, parenchyma possesses intercellular air spaces

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

In aquatic plants, parenchyma possesses intercellular air spaces, and is named as Aerenchyma. When exposed to light, parenchyma cells may develop chloroplasts and are known as Chlorenchyma.

15. Parenchyma may store water in_______ plants

1. Aquatic plants
2. Succulent plants
3. Xerophytic plants
4. Both b and c

Explanation

Parenchyma may store water in many succulent and xerophytic plants. It also serves the functions of storage of food reserves, absorption, buoyancy, secretion etc.,

16. In apple, parenchyma stores______

1. Protein
2. Starch
3. Fat
4. Sugar

Explanation

In potato, parenchyma vacuoles are filled with starch. In apple, parenchyma stores sugar. Parenchyma also serves the functions of storage of food reserves, absorption, buoyancy, secretion etc.,

17. Which of the following statement about Collenchyma is correct?

1. Collenchyma is a living tissue found beneath the epidermis
2. Cells are elongated with evenly thickened walls.
3. They provide mechanical support for growing organs.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Collenchyma is a living tissue found beneath the epidermis. Cells are elongated with unevenly thickened walls. Cells have rectangular oblique or tapering ends and persistent protoplast. They possess thick primary non-lignified walls. They provide mechanical support for growing organs.

18. __________ cells are grouped into fibres and sclereids

1. Parenchyma
2. Chlorenchyma
3. Sclerenchyma
4. Xylem

Explanation

Sclerenchyma consists of thick-walled cells which are often lignified. Sclerenchyma cells are dead and do not possess living protoplasts at maturity. Sclerenchyma cells are grouped into fibres and sclereids.

19. Match the following:

1. Linum usitatissimum 1. Jute
2. Cannabis sativa 2. Hemp
3. Corchorus capsularis 3. Flax
4. 1, 3, 2
5. 3, 1, 2
6. 3, 2, 1
7. 2, 1, 3

Explanation

Fibres are elongated sclerenchymatous cells, usually with pointed ends. Their walls are lignified. Fibres are abundantly found in many plants. The average length of fibres is 1 to 3 mm, however in plants like Linum usitatissimum (flax), Cannabis sativa (hemp) and Corchorus capsularis (jute), fibres are extensively longer, ranging from 20 mm to 550 mm.

20. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Sclereids are widely distributed in plant body
2. Fibres are also common in fruits and seeds
3. Sclereids are isodiametric, with lignified walls
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Sclereids are widely distributed in plant body. They are usually broad, may occur in single or in groups. Sclereids are isodiametric, with lignified walls. Pits are prominent and seen along the walls. Lumen is filled with wall materials. Sclereids are also common in fruits and seeds.

21. Which of the following cell is not found in Complex tissues?

1. Sclerenchyma
2. Collenchyma
3. Parenchyma
4. 1 alone
5. 1, 2
6. 2 alone
7. All the above

Explanation

Complex tissues consist of parenchyma and sclerenchyma cells. However, collenchymatous cells are not present in such tissues.

22. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Complex tissues are made of more than one type of cells that work together as a unit.
2. Common examples are xylem and phloem
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Complex tissues are made of more than one type of cells that work together as a unit. Common examples are xylem and phloem.

23. What is the function of Xylem?

1. Transfer of mineral nutrients upward from root to leaves
2. Transfer of mineral nutrients upward from leaves to root
3. Transfer of mineral nutrients upward from leaves to flower
4. None

Explanation

Xylem is a conducting tissue which conducts water, mineral nutrients upward from root to leaves. Xylem gives mechanical support to the plant body.

24. Which of the following is not a part of Xylem?

1. xylem tracheid
2. xylem fibres
3. xylem vessels
4. xylem Collenchyma

Explanation

Xylem is composed of:

1. xylem Tracheid
2. xylem fibres
3. xylem vessels
4. xylem parenchyma.

25. Which of the following statement about Xylem tracheid is correct?

1. They are elongated or tube-like dead cells with hard, thick and lignified walls.
2. Their function is conduction of water and providing mechanical support to the plant
3. They have large lumen without any content
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Xylem tracheid are elongated or tube-like dead cells with hard, thick and lignified walls. Their ends are tapering, blunt or chisel-like and devoid of protoplast. They have large lumen without any content. Their function is conduction of water and providing mechanical support to the plant.

26. What is the function of Xylem fibres?

1. Transfer of water
2. Provide mechanical support
3. Transfer of minerals
4. All the above

Explanation

Xylem fibres cells are elongated, lignified and pointed at both the ends. Xylem fibres provide mechanical support to the plant.

27. Which of the following looks like water pipe?

1. Xylem tracheid
2. Xylem fibres
3. Xylem vessels
4. Xylem parenchyma

Explanation

Xylem vessels are arranged in longitudinal series in which the partitioned walls (transverse walls) are perforated, and so the entire structure looks-like a water pipe.

28. Which of the following statement about Xylem vessels is correct?

1. These are long cylindrical, tube like structures with lignified walls and wide central lumen
2. Their main function is to transport of water and also to provide mechanical strength
3. These cells are live as they have protoplast.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Xylem vessels are long cylindrical, tube like structures with lignified walls and wide central lumen. These cells are dead as these do not have protoplast. Their main function is to transport of water and also to provide mechanical strength.

29. What is the function of Xylem parenchyma?

1. Transfer of water
2. Transfer of Minerals
3. Storage of starch and fatty substances
4. All the above

Explanation

Xylem parenchyma are living and thin walled cells. The main function of xylem parenchyma is to store starch and fatty substances.

30. Which of the following element is not a Phloem element?

1. Sieve elements
2. Companion cells
3. Phloem parenchyma
4. Phloem Tracheid

Explanation

Phloem is a complex tissue and consists of the following elements: Sieve elements, Companion cells, Phloem fibres, and Phloem parenchyma.

31. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The conducting elements of phloem are collectively called as Sieve elements
2. The main function of sieve tubes is translocation of food, from leaves to the storage organs of the plants.
3. The transverse walls at the ends are perforated and are known as sieve plates.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The conducting elements of phloem are collectively called as Sieve elements. Sieve tubes are elongated, tube-like slender cells placed end to end. The transverse walls at the ends are perforated and are known as sieve plates. The main function of sieve tubes is translocation of food, from leaves to the storage organs of the plants.

32. Which of the following statement about Companion cells is correct?

1. These are elongated cells attached to the lateral wall of the sieve tubes.
2. A companion cell may be equal in length to the accompanying sieve tube element
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Companion cells are elongated cells attached to the lateral wall of the sieve tubes. A companion cell may be equal in length to the accompanying sieve tube element or the mother cell may be divided transversely forming a series of companion cells.

33. The phloem parenchyma are_______ cells

1. Live
2. Dead
3. Partially alive
4. None

Explanation

The phloem parenchyma are living cells which have cytoplasm and nucleus. Their function is to store food materials.

34. Which of the following statement about Phloem is correct?

1. Conduction may be bidirectional from leaves to storage organs and growing parts or from storage organs to growing parts of plants.
2. Conducts water and minerals.
3. Conducting channels are sieve tubes
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

35. _____cells associated with primary and secondary phloem are commonly called phloem fibers.

1. Sclerenchymatous
2. Collenchyma
3. Parenchyma
4. None

Explanation

Sclerenchymatous cells associated with primary and secondary phloem are commonly called phloem fibers. These cells are elongated, lignified and provide mechanical strength to the plant body.

36. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Meristematic tissue cell wall is Thick
2. Intercellular spaces absent
3. They Provides only mechanical support
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

37. The study of tissues is known as_______

1. Psychology
2. Histology
3. Nostology
4. Tickology

Explanation

An assemblage of one or more types of specialized cells held together with extracellular material constitute the tissue. The study of tissues is known as Histology.

38. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Simple tissue are group of cells that are similar in origin, form, structure and work together to perform a specific function
2. Compound tissue are group of cells different in their structure and function but co-ordinate to perform a specific function
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Simple tissue: A group of cells that are similar in origin, form, structure and work together to perform a specific function.

Compound tissue: A group of cells different in their structure and function but co-ordinate to perform a specific function.

39. Animal tissues can be grouped into______ basic types on the basis of their structure and functions

1. 3
2. 5
3. 4
4. 6

Explanation

Animal tissues can be grouped into four basic types on the basis of their structure and functions.

a. Epithelial tissue.

b. Connective tissue

c. Muscular tissue

d. Nervous tissue

40. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Epithelial Tissues is the simplest tissue composed of one or more layers of cells
2. It covers the external surface of the body and internal organs
3. Epithelial cells lie on a non-cellular basement membrane.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Epithelial Tissues is the simplest tissue composed of one or more layers of cells covering the external surface of the body and internal organs. The cells are arranged very close to each other with less extracellular material. Epithelial cells lie on a non-cellular basement membrane.

41. How many types of epithelial tissues are there?

1. 5
2. 3
3. 2
4. 4

Explanation

The epithelial tissue generally lacks blood vessels. The epithelium is separated by the underlying connective tissue which provides it with nutrients. There are two types of epithelial tissues.

42. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Simple epithelium is composed of single layer of cells resting on a basement membrane
2. Compound epithelium is composed of several layers of cells
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Simple epithelium is composed of single layer of cells resting on a basement membrane. Compound epithelium is composed of several layers of cells. Only the cells of the deepest layer rest on the basement membrane.

43. Which of the following are performed by epithelial tissues?

1. Secretion of sweat
2. Secretion of saliva
3. Secretion of mucus
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Some epithelial tissues perform secretory function

1. Secretion of sweat
2. Secretion of saliva
3. Secretion of mucus
4. Secretion of enzymes

44. Which of the following statement is correct about functions of epithelial tissues?

1. The skin which forms the outer covering of the body protects the underlying cells from drying, injury and microbial infections
2. They help in absorption of water and nutrients
3. They are involved in elimination of waste products.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Functions of epithelial tissues:

1. The skin which forms the outer covering of the body protects the underlying cells from drying, injury and microbial infections
2. They help in absorption of water and nutrients.
3. They are involved in elimination of waste products.

45. Which of the following statement is correct about Simple Epithelium?

1. It is formed of single layer of cells
2. It forms a lining for the body cavities and ducts
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Simple Epithelium is formed of single layer of cells. It forms a lining for the body cavities and ducts. Simple epithelium is further divided into further types.

46. Which of the following statement is correct about Squamous Epithelium?

1. It is made up of thick cell with prominent nuclei.
2. The squamous epithelium is also known as pavement membrane
3. It protects the body from mechanical injury, drying and invasion of germs.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Squamous Epithelium is made up of thin, flat cells with prominent nuclei. These cells have irregular boundaries and bind with neighbouring cells. The squamous epithelium is also known as pavement membrane, which form delicate lining of the buccal cavity, alveoli of lungs, proximal tubule of kidneys and covering of the skin and tongue. It protects the body from mechanical injury, drying and invasion of germs.

47. Which of the following statement is correct about Cuboidal Epithelium?

1. It is composed of single layer of cubical cells
2. Their main function is secretion and Excretion
3. This tissue is present in the thyroid vesicles, salivary glands, sweat glands and exocrine pancreas
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Cuboidal Epithelium is composed of single layer of cubical cells. The nucleus is round and lies in the centre. This tissue is present in the thyroid vesicles, salivary glands, sweat glands and exocrine pancreas. It is also found in the intestine and tubular part of the nephron (kidney tubules) as microvilli that increase the absorptive surface area. Their main function is secretion and absorption.

48. In which of the following Columnar Epithelium is found?

1. Stomach
2. Colon
3. Oviducts
4. Anus
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 1, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Columnar Epithelium is composed of a single layer of slender, elongated and pillar like cells. Their nuclei are located at the base. It is found lining the stomach, gall bladder, bile duct, small intestine, colon, oviducts and also forms the mucous membrane. They are mainly involved in secretion and absorption.

49. Which of the following Epithelium is found in respiratory tract?

1. Glandular Epithelium
2. Cuboidal Epithelium
3. Squamous Epithelium
4. Ciliated Epithelium

Explanation

Ciliated Epithelium is seen in the trachea of wind-pipe, bronchioles of respiratory tract, kidney tubules and fallopian tubes of oviducts.

50. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Function of Ciliated Epithelium is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium
2. They have delicate hair like out growths called cilia.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Certain columnar cells bear numerous delicate hair-like out growths called cilia and are called ciliated epithelium. Their function is to move particles or mucus in a specific direction over the epithelium.

51. In which of the following Glandular Epithelium is found?

1. Gastric glands
2. Oviducts
3. Intestinal glands
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Glandular Epithelium cells are often modified to form specialized gland cells which secrete chemical substances at the epithelial surface. This lines the gastric glands, pancreatic tubules and intestinal glands.

52. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Compound Epithelium consists of more than one layer of cells and gives a stratified appearance
2. The main function of this epithelium is to give protection to the underlying tissues against mechanical and chemical stress.
3. They also cover the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface of the buccal cavity and pharynx
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Compound Epithelium consists of more than one layer of cells and gives a stratified appearance. Hence, they are also known as stratified epithelium. The main function of this epithelium is to give protection to the underlying tissues against mechanical and chemical stress. They also cover the dry surface of the skin, the moist surface of the buccal cavity and pharynx. Epithelial tissue in the skin functions as a water-proof membrane.

53. Which of the following are Supportive connective tissue?

1. Areolar tissue
2. Cartilage
3. Bone
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

• Connective tissue proper (Areolar and Adipose tissue)
• Supportive connective tissue (Cartilage and Bone)
• Dense connective tissue (Tendons and Ligaments)
• Fluid connective tissue (Blood and Lymph)

54. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Connective Tissues is one of the most abundant and widely distributed tissue
2. It prevents the organs from getting displaced by body movements.
3. The components of the connective tissue are the intercellular substance known as the matrix, connective tissue cells and fibres.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Connective Tissues is one of the most abundant and widely distributed tissue. It provides structural frame work and gives support to different tissues forming organs. It prevents the organs from getting displaced by body movements. The components of the connective tissue are the intercellular substance known as the matrix, connective tissue cells and fibres.

55. Which of the following are part of proper Connective tissue?

1. Collagen fibres
2. Elastin fibres
3. Fibroblast cells
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Connective tissue proper consist of collagen fibres, elastin fibres and fibroblast cells. Areolar tissue has cells and fibres loosely arranged in a semi-fluid ground substance called matrix. It takes the form of fine threads crossing each other in every direction leaving small spaces called areolae. It joins skin to muscles, fills space inside organs and is found around muscles, blood vessels and nerves. It helps in repair of tissues after injury and fixes skin to underlying muscles.

56. ________ serves as fat reservoir

1. Areolar tissue
2. Ligaments
3. Adipose Tissue
4. Cartilage

Explanation

Adipose tissue is the aggregation of fat cells or adipocytes, spherical or oval in shape. It serves as fat reservoir. They are found in subcutaneous tissue, between internal organs around the heart and kidneys.

57. Which of the following regulate the body temperature by acting as insulator?

1. Areolar tissue
2. Ligaments
3. Adipose Tissue
4. Cartilage

Explanation

Adipose tissue act as shock absorbers around the kidneys and eye balls. They also regulate the body temperature by acting as insulator.

58. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The supporting or skeletal connective tissues forms the exoskeleton of the vertebrate body
2. They have help in locomotion
3. The supportive tissues include cartilage and bone
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The supporting or skeletal connective tissues forms the endoskeleton of the vertebrate body which protect various organs and help in locomotion. The supportive tissues include cartilage and bone.

59. Which of the following are the features of Cartilage?

1. Soft
2. Flexible
3. Hard
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Cartilage are soft, semi-rigid, flexible and are less vascular in nature. The matrix is composed of large cartilage cells called chondrocytes. These cells are present in fluid filled spaces known as lacunae.

60. In which of the following parts Cartilage is present?

1. Tip of the nose
2. End of long bones
3. Larynx
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Cartilage is present in the tip of the nose, external ear, end of long bones, trachea and larynx. It provides support and flexibility to the body parts.

61. Which of the following are the features of Bone?

1. Solid
2. Rigid
3. Strong
4. Soft
5. 1, 3, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 3
8. All the above

Explanation

Bone is solid, rigid and strong, non-flexible skeletal connective tissue. They provide shape and structural framework to the body. Bones support and protect soft tissues and organs.

62. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The matrix of the bone is rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres which gives the bone its strength.
2. The matrix of the bone is in the form of concentric rings called lamellae.
3. The bone cells present in lacunae are called osteocytes.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The matrix of the bone is rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres which gives the bone its strength. The matrix of the bone is in the form of concentric rings called lamellae. The bone cells present in lacunae are called osteocytes. They communicate with each other by a network of fine canals called canaliculi. The hollow cavities of spaces are called marrow cavities filled with bone marrow.

63. __________ is the principal component of tendons and ligaments

1. Dense Connective Tissue
2. Fluid connective tissue
3. Supportive Connective Tissue
4. Connective tissue proper

Explanation

Dense Connective Tissue is a fibrous connective tissue densely packed with fibres and fibroblasts. It is the principal component of tendons and ligaments.

64. Which of the following statement is incorrect about Tendons?

1. They are cord like, strong, structures that join skeletal muscles to bones
2. Tendons have great strength and extreme flexibility.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Tendons are cord like, strong, structures that join skeletal muscles to bones. Tendons have great strength and limited flexibility. They consist of parallel bundles of collagen fibres, between which are present rows of fibroblasts.

65. ________ strengthen the joints and allow normal movement

1. Bone
2. Ligaments
3. Blood
4. Cartilage

Explanation

Ligaments are highly elastic structures and have great strength which connect bones to bones. They contain very little matrix. They strengthen the joints and allow normal movement.

66. Sprain is caused by excessive pulling (stretching) of______

1. Bone
2. Ligaments
3. Blood
4. Cartilage

Explanation

Sprain is caused by excessive pulling (stretching) of ligaments. Ligaments strengthen the joints and allow normal movement.

67. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. The blood and the lymph are the fluid connective tissues which link different parts of the body
2. The cells of the connective tissue are loosely spaced and are embedded in an intercellular matrix
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The blood and the lymph are the fluid connective tissues which link different parts of the body. The cells of the connective tissue are loosely spaced and are embedded in an intercellular matrix.

68. Which of the following corpuscles are found in Blood?

1. Erythrocytes
2. Leucocytes
3. Platelets
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Blood contains corpuscles which are red blood cells (erythrocytes), white blood cells (leucocytes) and platelets.

69. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. In this fluid connective tissue, blood cells are present in a fluid matrix called plasma.
2. It is a main circulating fluid that helps in the transport of nutrient substances.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

In this fluid connective tissue, blood cells are present in a fluid matrix called plasma. The plasma contains inorganic salts and organic substances. It is a main circulating fluid that helps in the transport of nutrient substances.

70. Which of the following are features of Erythrocytes?

1. Square
2. Biconcave
3. Disc-like
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The red blood corpuscles (Erythrocytes) are circular, biconcave disc-like cells and lack nucleus when mature (mammalian RBC).

71. __________ involved in the transport of oxygen to tissues.

1. Erythrocytes
2. Leucocytes
3. Blood platelets
4. All the above

Explanation

Red blood corpuscles (Erythrocytes) contain a respiratory pigment called haemoglobin which is involved in the transport of oxygen to tissues.

72. Which of the following are features of Leucocytes?

1. Small in size
2. Contains nucleus
3. Coloured
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. None

Explanation

White blood corpuscles (Leucocytes) are larger in size, contain distinct nucleus and are colourless. They engulf or destroy foreign bodies.

73. _______ capable of amoeboid movement and involved in body’s defence mechanism.

1. Erythrocytes
2. Leucocytes
3. Blood platelets
4. None

Explanation

White blood corpuscles (Leucocytes) are capable of amoeboid movement and play an important role in body’s defence mechanism. They engulf or destroy foreign bodies.

74. Which of the following are included in Granulocytes?

1. Neutrophils
2. Monocytes
3. Eosinophils
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

WBC’s are of two types: Granulocytes and Agranulocytes. Granulocytes have irregular shaped nuclei and cytoplasmic granules. They include the neutrophils, basophils and eosinophils. Agranulocytes lack cytoplasmic granules and include the lymphocytes and monocytes.

75. Which of the following are the features of Blood platelets?

1. Minute
2. A-nucleated
3. fragile fragments of bone marrow
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Blood platelets are minute, a-nucleated, fragile fragments of giant bone marrow called mega karyocytes.

76. __________ play an important role in blood clotting mechanism

1. Erythrocytes
2. Leucocytes
3. Blood platelets
4. None

Explanation

Blood platelets play an important role in blood clotting mechanism. They are minute, a-nucleated, fragile fragments of giant bone marrow called mega karyocytes.

77. ______ mainly helps in the exchange of materials between blood and tissue fluids

1. Blood platelets
2. Lymph
3. Erythrocytes
4. Leucocytes

Explanation

Lymph is a colourless fluid filtered out of the blood capillaries. It consists of plasma and white blood cells. It mainly helps in the exchange of materials between blood and tissue fluids.

78. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Muscular tissues are made of muscle cells and form the major part of contractile tissue.
2. They are composed of numerous myofibrils.
3. Each muscle is made up of many long cylindrical fibres arranged parallel to one another.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Muscular tissues are made of muscle cells and form the major part of contractile tissue. They are composed of numerous myofibrils. Each muscle is made up of many long cylindrical fibres arranged parallel to one another.

79. Based on structure, location and functions Muscular Tissues are classified into____ types

1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 5

Explanation

According to their structure, location and functions there are three main types of muscles: Skeletal muscle (or) striated muscle, Smooth muscle (or) non-striated muscle and Cardiac muscle.

80. ________ muscles are attached to the bones and are responsible for the body movements

1. Striated muscle
2. Smooth muscle
3. Cardiac muscle
4. Non-striated muscle

Explanation

Skeletal muscle or striated muscle are attached to the bones and are responsible for the body movements and are called skeletal muscles.

81. Which of the following statement is correct about Skeletal muscle?

1. They work under our control and are also known as voluntary muscles.
2. They possess no nuclei
3. They occur in the biceps and triceps of arms and undergo rapid contraction
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Skeletal muscle work under our control and are also known as voluntary muscles. The muscle fibres are elongated, cylindrical, unbranched with alternating dark and light bands, giving them the striped or striated appearance. They possess many nuclei (multinucleate). For example, they occur in the biceps and triceps of arms and undergo rapid contraction.

82. Which of the following statement about Smooth muscle is correct?

1. These muscles are spindle shaped with broad middle part and tapering ends.
2. There is a single centrally located nucleus
3. They are not under the control of our will
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Smooth muscles are spindle shaped with broad middle part and tapering ends. There is a single centrally located nucleus (uninucleate). These fibrils do not bear any stripes or striations and hence are called nonstriated. They are not under the control of our will and so are called involuntary muscles.

83. In which of the following smooth muscles are found?

1. Blood vessels
2. Intestinal villi
3. Urinary bladder
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Smooth muscles are found in walls of the internal organs such as the blood vessels, gastric glands, intestinal villi and urinary bladder contain this type of smooth muscle.

84. Which of the following statement is correct about Cardiac muscle?

1. It is a special contractile tissue present in the heart.
2. The contraction of cardiac muscle is involuntary and rhythmic.
3. The muscle fibres are cylindrical, branched and multinucleate.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Cardiac muscle is a special contractile tissue present in the heart. The muscle fibres are cylindrical, branched and uninucleate. The branches join to form a network called as intercalated disc which are unique distinguishing features of the cardiac muscles. The contraction of cardiac muscle is involuntary and rhythmic.

85. Which of the following is the longest cell of the body?

1. Cardiac cells
2. Neuron
3. Brains cells
4. All the above

Explanation

Nervous tissue comprises of the nerve cells or neurons. They are the longest cells of the body. Neurons are the structural and functional units of the nervous tissue.

86. Which of the following statement is correct about Nervous Tissue?

1. The elongated and slender processes of the neurons are the nerve fibres
2. The dendrons are short and highly branched protoplasmic processes of cyton.
3. The axon is a single, long fibre like process that develops from the cyton and ends up with fine terminal branches.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The elongated and slender processes of the neurons are the nerve fibres. Each neuron consists of a cell body or cyton with nucleus and cytoplasm. The dendrons are short and highly branched protoplasmic processes of cyton. The axon is a single, long fibre like process that develops from the cyton and ends up with fine terminal branches.

87. ______ cells last a life time but once dead are not replaced.

1. Cells of the eye lens
2. Nerve cells of cerebral cortex
3. Most muscle cells
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Cells of the eye lens, nerve cells of cerebral cortex and most muscle cells last a life time but once dead are not replaced. Epithelial cells lining the gut last only about 5 days.

88. Match the following

1. Skin cells 1. 120 days
2. Bone cells 2. 300 – 500 days
3. Liver cells 3. Every 2 weeks
4. RBC 4. About every 10 years
5. 1, 4, 2, 3
6. 3, 2, 1, 4
7. 3, 4, 2, 1
8. 3, 1, 2, 4

Explanation

89. ______ have the ability to receive stimuli from within or outside the body

1. Bone cells
2. RBC
3. WBC
4. Nerve cells

Explanation

Nerve cells or neurons have the ability to receive stimuli from within or outside the body and send signals to different parts of the body.

90. Why does the nerve cell does not undergo cell division?

1. Absence of nucleus
2. Presence of nucleus
3. Absence of centrioles
4. Presence of centrioles

Explanation

Nerve cells do not undergo cell division due to the absence of centrioles, but they are developed from glial cells by neurogenesis.

91. Match the following

1. Amitosis 1. Reduction Division
2. Meiosis 2. Direct Division
3. Mitosis 3. Indirect Division
4. 1, 3, 2
5. 2, 1, 3
6. 3, 1, 2
7. 2, 3, 1

Explanation

92. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Amitosis is the simplest mode of cell division
2. It occurs in unicellular animals, ageing cells and in foetal membranes
3. During amitosis, nucleus elongates first, and a constriction appears in it which deepens and divides the nucleus into two
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Amitosis is the simplest mode of cell division and it occurs in unicellular animals, ageing cells and in foetal membranes. During amitosis, nucleus elongates first, and a constriction appears in it which deepens and divides the nucleus into two. Followed by this cytoplasm divides resulting in the formation of two daughter cells.

93. Who discovered Mitosis?

1. Farmer
2. Fleming
3. Gay Lucas
4. Darwin

Explanation

Mitosis was first discovered by Fleming in 1879. In this cell division one parent cell divides into two identical daughter cells, each with a nucleus having the same amount of DNA, same number of chromosomes and genes as the parent cells.

94. How many events are involved in Mitosis?

1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 5

Explanation

Mitosis is also called as equational division. Mitosis consists of two events, they are:

1. Karyokinesis

2. Cytokinesis

95. _________ is the resting phase of the nucleus

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Interphase

Explanation

Interphase is the resting phase of the nucleus. It is the interval between two successive cell divisions. The cell prepares itself for the next cell division.

96. The division of the nucleus into two daughter nuclei is called_____

1. Karyokinesis
2. Cytokinesis
3. Sycomonysis
4. None

Explanation

The division of the nucleus into two daughter nuclei is called Karyokinesis. It consists of four phases. They are: Prophase, Metaphase, Anaphase and Telophase.

97. Which of the following process takes place in Prophase?

1. Centrosome splits into centrioles and occupy opposite poles of the cell
2. Spindle fibres appear between the two centrioles.
3. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear gradually
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

During Prophase stage chromosomes become short and thick and are clearly visible inside the nucleus. Centrosome splits into centrioles and occupy opposite poles of the cell. Each centriole is surrounded by aster rays. Spindle fibres appear between the two centrioles. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear gradually.

98. In which phase duplicated chromosomes arrange on the equatorial plane?

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

Explanation

The duplicated chromosomes arrange on the equatorial plane and form the metaphase plate. Each chromosome gets attached to a spindle fibre by its centromere. The centromere of each chromosome divides into two each being associated with a chromatid.

99. In Which phase chromosome separate and migrate towards the two opposite poles?

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

Explanation

In Anaphase, the centromeres attaching the two chromatids divide and the two daughter chromatids of each chromosome separate and migrate towards the two opposite poles.

100. In which phase Spindle fibres breakdown and disappear?

1. Prophase
2. Metaphase
3. Anaphase
4. Telophase

Explanation

In Telophase, each chromatid (or) daughter chromosome lengthens, becomes thinner and turns into a network of chromatin threads. Spindle fibres breakdown and disappear. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus reappear in each daughter nucleus.

101. What does cytokinesis mean?

1. Division of the cytoplasm into two daughters
2. Fusion of cytoplasm into two daughters
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

The division of the cytoplasm into two daughter cells by constriction of the cell membrane is called cytokinesis.

102. _______ helps in repair of damaged and wounded tissues by renewal of the lost cells

1. Mitosis
2. Meiosis
3. Amitosis
4. All the above

Explanation

Mitosis helps in repair of damaged and wounded tissues by renewal of the lost cells. In multicellular organism growth, organ development and increase in body size are accomplished through the process of mitosis. This equational division results in the production of diploid daughter cells (2n) with equal distribution of genetic material (DNA).

103. Who Coined the term meiosis?

1. Fleming
2. Farmer
3. Darwin
4. Gay Lucas

Explanation

The term meiosis was coined by Farmer in 1905. It is the kind of cell division that produces the sex cells or the gametes.

104. How many daughter cells are produced from parent cells in Meiosis division?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 6

Explanation

Meiosis is also called reduction division because the chromosome number is reduced to haploid (n) from diploid (2n). Meiosis produces four daughter cells from a parent cell.

105. How many divisions are there in Meiosis?

1. 4
2. 2
3. 3
4. 5

Explanation

Meiosis consists of two divisions. They are:

• Heterotypic Division or First Meiotic Division
• Homotypic Division or Second Meiotic Division

106. How many stages are there in Heterotypic division of Meiosis?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 7

Explanation

In Heterotypic division the diploid cell into two haploid cells. The daughter cells resulting from this division are different from the parent cell in the chromosome number (Heterotypic). This consists of 5 stages:

a. Prophase-I

b. Metaphase-I

c. Anaphase-I

d. Telophase-I

e. Cytokinesis-I

107. Which phase of Heterotypic division takes longer duration?

1. Metaphase-I
2. Prophase-I
3. Cytokinesis-I
4. Telophase-I

Explanation

Prophase-I takes a longer duration and is sub divided into five stages. They are: Leptotene, Zygotene, Pachytene, Diplotene and Diakinesis.

108. In which of the following stage chromosomes gets uncoiled?

1. Leptotene
2. Zygotene
3. Diplotene
4. Pachytene

Explanation

In Leptotene stage, the chromosomes become uncoiled and assume long thread like structures and take up a specific orientation inside the nucleus. They form a bouquet stage.

109. Pairing of homologous chromosomes is called as_________

1. Dendron
2. Synapsis
3. Axon
4. All the above

Explanation

Two homologous chromosomes approach each other and begin to pair. Pairing of homologous chromosomes is called as synapsis.

110. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. In Pachytene stage, chromosomes are visible as long paired twisted threads.
2. The pairs so formed are called bivalents
3. Each bivalent now contains six chromatids
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

In Pachytene (Pachus-thick), the chromosomes are visible as long paired twisted threads. The pairs so formed are called bivalents. Each bivalent now contains four chromatids (tetrad stage).

111. Homologous chromosomes attached together at one or more points by X- shaped arrangements

known as__________

1. Chausa
2. Chiasmata
3. Chromata
4. Stomata

Explanation

Homologous chromosomes of each pair begin to separate. They do not completely separate, but remain attached together at one or more points by X- shaped arrangements known as chiasmata. The chromatids break at these points and the broken segments may be interchanged (crossing over). As a result, the genetic recombination takes place.

112. Which of the following statement about Diplotene stage is correct?

1. Each individual chromosome of each bivalent begins to split longitudinally into two similar chromatids
2. Chiasmata begin to move along the length of the chromosome from the centromere towards the end resulting in terminalization
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

In Diplotene stage, each individual chromosome of each bivalent begins to split longitudinally into two similar chromatids. The homologous chromosomes repel each other and separate. Chiasmata begin to move along the length of the chromosome from the centromere towards the end resulting in terminalization.

113. In which of the following stage Spindle fibres make their appearance Heterotypic division?

1. Diplotene
2. Diakinesis
3. Zygotene
4. Pachytene

Explanation

In Diakinesis, the paired chromosomes are shortened and thickened. The nuclear membrane and nucleolus begin to disappear. Spindle fibres make their appearance.

114. Which of the following statement is correct about Metaphase-I?

1. The chromosomes move towards the equator and finally they orient themselves on the equator
2. The centromere gets divided
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

In Metaphase-I, the chromosomes move towards the equator and finally they orient themselves on the equator. The two chromatids of each chromosome do not separate. The centromere does not divide.

115. The stage of chromosome in Anaphase-I is called as______

1. Diad
2. Triad
3. Qutard
4. None

Explanation

Anaphase-I, each homologous chromosome with its two chromatids and undivided centromere move towards the opposite poles of the cell. This stage of the chromosome is called Diad.

116. Which of the following statement about Telophase-I is correct?

1. The haploid number of chromosomes after reaching their respective poles become coiled
2. The nuclear membrane and the nucleolus reappear and thus two daughter nuclei are formed
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

In Telophase-I stage, the haploid number of chromosomes after reaching their respective poles become uncoiled and elongated. The nuclear membrane and the nucleolus reappear and thus two daughter nuclei are formed.

117. In which of the following stage centriole divides into two, each one moves to opposite poles?

1. Prophase – II
2. Telophase – II
3. Anaphase – II
4. Cytokinesis – II

Explanation

In Prophase II, the centriole divides into two, each one moves to opposite poles. Asters and spindle fibres appear. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappear.

118. Match the following

1. Metaphase – II 1. Daughter chromosomes are centred
2. Telophase – II 2. Chromosomes get arranged on the equator
3. Anaphase – II 3. Separated chromatids become daughter chromosomes
4. 3, 1, 2
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 1, 3
7. 2, 3, 1

Explanation

Metaphase II: The chromosomes get arranged on the equator. Two chromatids are separated

Anaphase II: The separated chromatids become daughter chromosomes and move to opposite poles

Telophase II: The daughter chromosomes are centred. The nuclear membrane and the nucleolus appear.

Cytokinesis II: Two cells are formed from each haploid daughter cell, resulting in the formation of four cells with haploid number of chromosomes.

119. The constant number of chromosomes in a given species is maintained by_________ division

1. Mitosis
2. Meiotic
3. Amitotic
4. None

Explanation

The constant number of chromosomes in a given species is maintained by meiotic division. Genetic valiation is produced due to crossing over within the species which is transmitted from one generation to next generation.

120. Which of the following statement is correct about Mitosis division?

1. Occurs in reproductive cells
2. Consists of single division
3. Identical daughter cells are formed
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

121. Which of the following statement is correct about Meiosis division?

1. Involved in gamete formation only during the reproductively active age.
2. Four haploid daughter cells are formed
3. Consists of two divisions
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

9th Science Lesson 19 Questions in English

19] Plant Physiology

1. What is the common name of Mimosa pudica?

1. Sunflower
2. Hemp
3. Touch-me-not plant
4. Lily

Explanation

Animals move in search of food, shelter and for reproduction. Have you observed the leaves of Mimosa pudica (touch-me-not plant) closes on touching, whereas Helianthus annuus (sunflower) follows the path of the sun from dawn to dusk, (from east to west). These movements are triggered by an external stimulus.

2. For which of the following plants are sensitive?

1. Light
2. Gravity
3. Temperature
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Unlike animals, plants do not move on their own from one place to another, but can move their body parts for getting sunlight, water and nutrients. They are sensitive to external factors like light, gravity, temperature, etc.

3. ______ is a unidirectional movement of a whole or part of a plant.

1. Polarisation
2. Tropism
3. Eutrovison
4. Monothesiem

Explanation

Tropism is a unidirectional movement of a whole or part of a plant towards the direction of stimuli. Based on the nature of stimuli, tropism can be classified into some types.

4. Assertion (A): Shoot of a plant moves towards the light is positive tropism

Reason (R): Tropism is generally termed positive if growth is towards the signal

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Tropism is generally termed positive if growth is towards the signal and negative if it is away from the signal. Shoot of a plant moves towards the light, the roots move away. Thus, the shoots are positively phototropic.

5. Which of the following are the features of shoot system of a plant?

1. Positively phototropic
2. Negatively geotropic
3. Negatively phototropic
4. Positively geotropic
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. 1, 4
8. 1, 2

Explanation

Usually shoot system of a plant is positively phototropic and negatively geotropic and root system is negatively phototropic and positively geotropic.

6. Roots of which plant turn 180° upright for respiration?

1. Hemp
2. Lily
3. Rhizophora
4. Mimosa Pudica

Explanation

Some halophytes produce negatively geotropic roots (e.g. Rhizophora). These roots turn 180° upright for respiration.

7. Nastic movements are __________ response of a plant

1. Directional
2. Non- directional
3. Uni- directional
4. None

Explanation

Nastic movements are non-directional response of a plant or part of a plant to stimulus. Based on the nature of stimuli, nastic movements are classified.

8. Which of the following plant flower blooms in morning and closes in the evening?

1. Ipomea alba
2. Moon flower
3. Taraxacum officinale
4. Hemp

Explanation

Movement of a part of a plant in response to light is called Photonasty. e.g. Taraxacum officinale, blooms in morning and closes in the evening.

9. Which of the following flower opens in the night and closes during the day?

1. Taraxacum officinale
2. Sunflower
3. Ipomea alba
4. Mimosa Pudica

Explanation

Ipomea alba (Moon flower), opens in the night and closes during the day. Movement of a part of a plant in response to light is called Photonasty.

10. __________ is also known as Seismonasty

1. Photonasty
2. Thigmonasty
3. Thermonasty
4. Geotropism

Explanation

Movement of a part of plant in response to touch is called Thigmonasty. It is also known as Seismonasty.

11. Which of the following is an example of Thigmonasty?

1. Mango
2. Mimosa pudica
3. Sun hemp
4. Ipomea alba

Explanation

Movement of a part of plant in response to touch. e.g. Mimosa pudica, folds leaves and droops when touched.

12. _____ exhibits one of the fastest known nastic movement

1. Venus Flytrap
2. Mimosa pudica,
3. Oriza sativa
4. Tulip flowers

Explanation

The Venus Flytrap (Dionaea muscipula) presents a spectacular example of thigmonasty. It exhibits one of the fastest known nastic movement.

13. Which of the following are the features of Tropic movements?

1. Growth dependent movements
2. Temporary and reversible
3. Slow action
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

14. Which of the following are the features of Nastic movement?

1. Immediate action
2. Growth independent movements
3. Found only in a few specialized plants
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

15. _____ bloom as the temperature increases

1. Venus Flytrap
2. Tulip flowers
3. Dionaea muscipula
4. Lily

Explanation

Movement of part of a plant is associated with change in temperature. e.g. Tulip flowers bloom as the temperature increases.

16. What does the term ‘synthesis’ mean in photosynthesis?

1. Movement
2. To build
3. To escape
4. None

Explanation

‘Photo’ means ‘light’ and ‘synthesis’ means ‘to build’. Thus, photosynthesis literally means ‘building up with the help of light’.

17. Assertion(A): Green plants are autotrophic in their mode of nutrition

Reason(R): They prepare their food materials through a process called photosynthesis

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Green plants are autotrophic in their mode of nutrition because they prepare their food materials through a process called photosynthesis. During this process, the light energy is converted into chemical energy.

18. What is the by-product of photosynthesis?

1. Water
2. Glucose
3. Oxygen
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

19. ________ have capabilities to trap solar energy

1. Venus Flytrap
2. Homo habilis
3. Sun Flea
4. Vespa orientalis

Explanation

Tel Aviv University Scientists have found out that Vespa orientalis (Oriental Hornets) have capabilities to trap solar energy.

20. Where part of Vespa orientalis contain yellow light sensitive pigment xanthopterin?

1. Eyes
2. Abdomen
3. Legs
4. Wings

Explanation

Vespa orientalis (Oriental Hornets) have a yellow patch on its abdomen and an unusual cuticle structure which is a stack of 30 layers thick. The cuticle does not contain chlorophyll but it contains the yellow light sensitive pigment called xanthopterin. This works as a light harvesting molecule transforming light energy into electrical energy.

21. Which of the following statement about Photosynthesis is correct?

1. The end product of photosynthesis is glucose which will be converted into starch
2. Plants take in carbon dioxide for photosynthesis
3. For living plants also need oxygen to carry on cellular respiration
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The end product of photosynthesis is glucose which will be converted into starch and stored in the plant body. Plants take in carbon dioxide for photosynthesis; but for its living, plants also need oxygen to carry on cellular respiration.

22. Which of the following are the things necessary for photosynthesis?

1. Sun light
2. Chlorophyll
3. CO₂
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Certain things are necessary for photosynthesis. They are:

1. Chlorophyll – Green pigment in leaves
2. Water
3. Carbon dioxide (from air)
4. Sun light

23. The loss of water in the form of water vapour from the aerial parts of the plant body is called as ___________

1. Translocation
2. Transpiration
3. Transcutation
4. All the above

Explanation

The loss of water in the form of water vapour from the aerial parts of the plant body is called as transpiration. The leaves have tiny, microscopic pores called stomata.

24. _____ % of the water transpired from leaves.

1. 50
2. 35
3. 90-95
4. 65-70

Explanation

Stomatal transpiration is the loss of water from plants through stomata. It accounts for 90- 95% of the water transpired from leaves.

25. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The lenticels are tiny openings that protrude from the barks in woody stems and twigs
2. Loss of water from plants as vapour through the lenticels is called as Lenticular transpiration
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

In Lenticular transpiration, Loss of water from plants as vapour through the lenticels. The lenticels are tiny openings that protrude from the barks in woody stems and twigs as well as in other plant organs.

26. Which of the following are the reasons for transpiration?

1. It creates a pull in leaf and stem
2. It regulates the temperature of the plant.
3. It is necessary for continuous supply of minerals
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Transpiration is necessary for the following reasons:

1. It creates a pull in leaf and stem.
2. It creates an absorption force in roots.
3. It is necessary for continuous supply of minerals.
4. It regulates the temperature of the plant.

27. The leaves have minute pores called as_______

1. Stomata
2. Guard cells
3. Chloroplast
4. Vacuole

Explanation

The leaves have minute pores called stomata through which the exchange of air takes place. These minute pores can be seen through a microscope.

28. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Air exchange takes place continuously through the stomata.
2. Plants exchange gases (CO₂ to O₂) continuously through these stomata.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Air exchange takes place continuously through the stomata. Plants exchange gases (CO2 to O2) continuously through these stomata. You will study more about these physiological process in your higher classes.

29. Which of the following is an example of Phototropism?

1. Shoot of a plant
2. Root of a plant
3. Climbing vines
4. All the above

Explanation

Phototropism is the movement of a plant part towards light. e.g. shoot of a plant. Geotropism is the movement of a plant in response to gravity. e.g. root of a plant.

30. Growth of a pollen tube in response to sugar present on the stigma is an example of _________

1. Chemotropism
2. Geotropism
3. Thigmotropism
4. Phototropism

Explanation

Movement of a part of plant in response to chemicals is called as Chemotropism. e.g. growth of a pollen tube in response to sugar present on the stigma.

31. Movement of a plant part due to touch is called as ______

1. Chemotropism
2. Geotropism
3. Thigmotropism
4. Phototropism

Explanation

Thigmotropism is the movement of a plant part due to touch. e.g. climbing vines. Hydrotropism is the movement of a plant or part of a plant towards water. e.g. root of a plant.

9th Science Lesson 20 Questions in English

20] Organ Systems In Animals

1. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Living organisms are evolved from the simplest form to complex level of organization
2. Cells are the basic fundamental units of an organism
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Living organisms are evolved from the simplest form to complex level of organization. Cells are the basic fundamental units of an organism. These are grouped to form tissues, the tissues into organs and the organs form the organ systems forming an entire organism.

2. When we ride a bicycle, which of the following system work together to move our arms for

steering and legs for pedalling?

1. Muscular system
2. Integumentary system
3. Skeletal system
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The different organs and organ systems of an organism function by depending on one another with harmonious coordination. When we ride a bicycle, our muscular system and skeletal system work together to move our arms for steering and legs for pedalling. Our nervous system directs our arms and legs to work.

3. Which of the following system provide energy to the muscles to do work?

1. Respiratory system
2. Digestive system
3. Circulatory systems
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Respiratory, digestive and circulatory systems work to provide energy to the muscles. All the systems work together in coordination to maintain the body in a homeostatic condition of an organism.

4. Organ and organ systems have appeared first in_______

1. Phylum Chordata
2. Phylum Mollusca
3. Phylum Annelida
4. Phylum Platyhelminthes

Explanation

Organ and organ systems have appeared first in the Phylum Platyhelminthes and continues till mammals.

5. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Similar groups of cells form tissues like muscle tissue, nervous tissue, etc
2. Tissues are organised to form organs like heart, brain, etc
3. Two or more organs together form organ systems and perform common functions
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Similar groups of cells form tissues like muscle tissue, nervous tissue, etc. Tissues are organised to form organs like heart, brain, etc. Two or more organs together form organ systems and perform common functions like digestion, circulation, nerve impulse transmission in coordination via digestive system, circulatory system, nervous system respectively. Division of labour is found among the various organ systems.

6. What is the function of Integumentary system?

1. Protection
2. Digestion
3. Excretion
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Integumentary organ system includes Skin and skin glands. The functions of Integumentary organ system include Protection, Excretion, etc.

7. Which of the following is not an organ included in Skeletal system?

1. Skull
2. Girdles
3. Limbs
4. Vertebral column
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. None

Explanation

Skeletal system includes Skull, Vertebral column, Sternum, Girdles and Limbs. They Give support, shape and form to the body.

8. Match the following

1. Muscular system 1. Transportation of respiratory gases
2. Circulatory system 2. Contraction and relaxation resulting movement
3. Nervous system 3. Breathing
4. Respiratory system 4. Conduction of nerve impulse
5. 2, 1, 4, 3
6. 2, 1, 3, 4
7. 1, 4, 3, 2
8. 4, 1, 2, 3

Explanation

9. What is the function of Digestive system?

1. Digestion
2. Absorption
3. Egestion
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Digestive system includes Digestive tract and digestive glands. Digestive system functions includes Digestion, Absorption, Egestion.

10. Which of the following system Co-ordinates the functions of all organ systems?

1. Reproductive system
2. Sensory system
3. Endocrine system
4. Integumentary system

Explanation

The function of Endocrine system is the Co-ordination of the functions of all organ systems in the body.

11. Which of the following are included in Endocrine system?

1. Pituitary gland
2. Adrenal gland
3. Thymus gland
4. Reproductive gland
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Endocrine system includes Pituitary, Thyroid, Parathyroid, Adrenals, Pancreas, Pineal body, Thymus, Reproductive glands, etc.

12. Which of the following are included in Excretory system?

1. Kidneys
2. Ureters
3. Lungs
4. Urethra
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

The Excretory system includes Kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra. Their functions include Elimination of nitrogenous waste products.

13. What is the function of Reproductive system?

1. Gamete formation
2. Development of secondary sexual characters.
3. Co-ordinates the functions of all organ systems
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The Reproductive system includes Testes and ovary. Their functions are Gamete formation and development of secondary sexual characters.

14. Which of the following are the functions of Sensory system?

1. Sight
2. Smell
3. Touch
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The Sensory system includes Eyes, nose, ears, tongue and skin. Their functions include Sight, smell, hearing, taste and touch.

15. Which of the following are the simple substance that we intake in our food?

1. Minerals
2. Vitamins
3. Proteins
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The food we eat contain not only simple substances like vitamins and minerals but also complex substances such as carbohydrates, proteins and fats.

16. How many stages of nutrition process are included in Human Digestive System?

1. 4
2. 3
3. 5
4. 6

Explanation

In Human Digestive System, body cannot use these complex substances unless they are converted into simple substances. The five stages of nutrition process include ingestion, digestion, absorption, assimilation and egestion.

17. The process of nutrition begins with intake of food, called_______

1. Digestion
2. Absorption
3. Egestion
4. Ingestion

Explanation

The process of nutrition begins with intake of food, called ingestion. Parts of the body concerned with the digestion of food form the digestive system.

18. The breakdown of large complex insoluble food molecules into small substance is called as_____

1. Digestion
2. Absorption
3. Egestion
4. Ingestion

Explanation

The breakdown of large complex insoluble food molecules into small, simpler soluble and diffusible particles by the action of digestive enzymes is called digestion.

19. Alimentary canal starts from_____

1. Anus
2. Mouth
3. Stomach
4. Oesophagus

Explanation

Alimentary canal (digestive tract/gastrointestinal tract) is a passage starting from the mouth and ending with the anus.

20. Which of the following glands associated with the alimentary canal?

1. Salivary glands
2. Pancreas
3. Liver
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Glands associated with the alimentary canal are the salivary glands, gastric glands, pancreas, liver and intestinal glands.

21. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Alimentary canal is a muscular coiled, tubular structure.
2. Small intestine consists of duodenum, jejunum and ileum
3. Large intestine consists of caecum, colon and rectum
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Alimentary canal is a muscular coiled, tubular structure. It consists of mouth, buccal cavity, pharynx, oesophagus, stomach, small intestine (consisting of duodenum, jejunum and ileum), large intestine (consisting of caecum, colon and rectum) and anus.

22. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The mouth leads into the buccal cavity
2. Mouth is bound by two soft, movable upper and lower lips.
3. The throat bears teeth
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The mouth leads into the buccal cavity. It is bound by two soft, movable upper and lower lips. The buccal cavity is a large space bound above by the palate (which separates the wind pipe and food tube), below by the throat and on the sides by the jaws. The jaws bear teeth.

23. Which of the following are the functions meant for teeth?

1. Holding
2. Cutting
3. Grinding
4. Crushing
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Teeth are hard structures meant for holding, cutting, grinding and crushing the food. In human beings two sets of teeth (Diphyodont) are developed in their life time.

24. How many milk teeth develop in human beings?

1. 24
2. 20
3. 10
4. 32

Explanation

The first appearing set of 20 teeth called temporary or milk teeth are replaced by the second set of thirty-two permanent teeth, sixteen in each jaw.

25. Permanent teeth are of _______ types

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 2

Explanation

Each tooth has a root fitted in the gum (Theocodont). Permanent teeth are of four types (Heterodont), according to their structure and function namely incisors, canines, premolars and molars.

26. Match the following

1. Incisors 1. Cutting
2. Canines 2. Mastication
3. Premolars 3. Tearing
4. Molars 4. Crushing
5. 1, 4, 2, 3
6. 1, 3, 2, 4
7. 2, 3, 4, 1
8. 4, 1, 2, 3

Explanation

27. For Milk teeth in each half of upper jaw has_______

1. 2, 1, 2
2. 1, 2, 3
3. 2, 1, 3
4. 2, 1, 2, 3

Explanation

28. How many pairs of salivary glands are present in the mouth cavity?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 3
4. 5

Explanation

Three pairs of salivary glands are present in the mouth cavity. They are: parotid glands, sublingual glands and submaxillary or submandibular glands.

29. Which of the following is the largest salivary glands?

1. Parotid glands
2. Sublingual glands
3. Submandibular glands
4. All the above

Explanation

Parotid glands are the largest salivary glands, which lie in the cheeks in front of the ears (in Greek Par – near; otid – ear).

30. Which of the following Salivary gland lie beneath the tongue?

1. Parotid glands
2. Sublingual glands
3. Submandibular glands
4. All the above

Explanation

Sublingual glands are the smallest glands and lie beneath the tongue. Submaxillary or Submandibular glands lie at the angles of the lower jaw.

31. How many litres of saliva is secreted per day?

1. 2.5
2. 1.5
3. 1
4. 3.5

Explanation

The salivary glands secrete a viscous fluid called saliva, approximately 1.5 litres per day. Saliva also contain an antibacterial enzyme called lysozyme.

32. ______in the saliva which converts starch into maltose.

1. Ptyalin
2. Rennin
3. Peptide
4. Renin

Explanation

Saliva digests starch by the action of the enzyme ptyalin (amylase) in the saliva which converts starch (polysaccharide) into maltose (disaccharide).

33. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The tongue is a muscular, sensory organ which helps in mixing the food with the saliva.
2. The taste buds on the tongue help to recognize the taste of food.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The tongue is a muscular, sensory organ which helps in mixing the food with the saliva. The taste buds on the tongue help to recognize the taste of food. The masticated food in the buccal cavity becomes a bolus which is rolled by the tongue and passed through pharynx into the oesophagus by swallowing.

34. During swallowing ____ closes and prevents the food from entering into trachea

1. Tongue
2. Epiglottis
3. Bronchus
4. Pharynx

Explanation

During swallowing, the epiglottis (a muscular flap-like structure at the tip of the glottis, beginning of trachea) closes and prevents the food from entering into trachea (wind pipe).

35. ______ serves as a pathway for the movement of food from mouth to oesophagus

1. Trachea
2. Epiglottis
3. Pharynx
4. Bronchus

Explanation

The pharynx is a membrane lined cavity behind the nose and mouth, connecting them to the oesophagus. It serves as a pathway for the movement of food from mouth to oesophagus.

36. What is the length of the Oesophagus?

1. 29 cm
2. 22 cm
3. 32 cm
4. 17 cm

Explanation

Oesophagus or the food pipe is a muscular-membranous canal about 22 cm in length. It conducts food from pharynx to the stomach by peristalsis (wave-like movement) produced by the rhythmic contraction and relaxation of the muscular walls of alimentary canal.

37. The stomach is a wide ______ shaped muscular organ

1. Z
2. S
3. J
4. L

Explanation

The stomach is a wide J-shaped muscular organ located between oesophagus and the small intestine.

38. Which of the following are contained in gastric juice?

1. HCl
2. Rennin
3. Pepsin
4. Mucus
5. 1, 3, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

The gastric glands present in the inner walls of the stomach secrete gastric juice. The gastric juice is colourless, highly acidic, containing mucus, hydrochloric acid and enzymes rennin (in infants) and pepsin.

39. Which of the following acts on the proteins in the ingested food?

1. HCl
2. Rennin
3. Pepsin
4. Mucus

Explanation

Inactive pepsinogen is converted to active pepsin which acts on the proteins in the ingested food. The gastric glands present in the inner walls of the stomach secrete gastric juice.

40. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Hydrochloric acid kills the bacteria swallowed along with food
2. The action of the gastric juice and churning of food in the stomach convert the bolus into a semi-digested food called chyme
3. The chyme moves to the intestine slowly through the pylorus.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Hydrochloric acid kills the bacteria swallowed along with food and makes the medium acidic while the mucus protects the wall of the stomach. The action of the gastric juice and churning of food in the stomach convert the bolus into a semi-digested food called chyme. The chyme moves to the intestine slowly through the pylorus.

41. What is the function of Renin?

1. Curdling of milk protein casein
2. Converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin
3. Converts pepsinogen to pepsin
4. Increases digestion of protein

Explanation

Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin and regulate the absorption of water and Na+ from glomerular filtrate.

Rennin causes curdling of milk protein caesin and increases digestion of proteins.

42. Which of the following is the longest part of the alimentary canal?

1. Small intestine
2. Large intestine
3. Oesophagus
4. Anus

Explanation

The small intestine is the longest part of the alimentary canal, which is a long-coiled tube measuring about 5 – 7 m. It comprises three parts- duodenum, jejunum and ileum.

43. Which part of small intestine is C-shaped?

1. Duodenum
2. Ileum
3. Jejunum
4. None

Explanation

Duodenum is C-shaped and receives the bile duct (from liver) and pancreatic duct (from pancreas).

44. Which of the following enzymes are contained in secretion of the small intestine?

1. Sucrase
2. Maltase
3. Lipase
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The secretion of the small intestine is intestinal juice which contains the enzymes like sucrase, maltase, lactase and lipase.

45. ______ is the middle part of the small intestine

1. Duodenum
2. Ileum
3. Jejunum
4. None

Explanation

Jejunum is the middle part of the small intestine. It is a short region of the small intestine. Small intestine comprises three parts- duodenum, jejunum and ileum.

46. ________ contains minute finger like projections called villi

1. Duodenum
2. Ileum
3. Jejunum
4. All the above

Explanation

Ileum contains minute finger like projections called villi (one milli-meter in length) where absorption of food takes place. They are approximately 4 million in number. Internally, each villus contains fine blood capillaries and lacteal tubes.

47. _______ is the longest part of the small intestine

1. Duodenum
2. Ileum
3. Jejunum
4. All the above

Explanation

Ileum forms the lower part of the small intestine and opens into the large intestine. Ileum is the longest part of the small intestine.

48. The small intestine serves for _______

1. Digestion
2. Absorption
3. Ingestion
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The small intestine serves both for digestion and absorption. The intestinal glands secrete the intestinal juices.

49. Small intestine receives the bile from _____

1. Kidney
2. Liver
3. Duodenum
4. Pancreas

Explanation

Small intestine receives the bile from liver and the pancreatic juice from pancreas in the duodenum. The intestinal glands secrete the intestinal juices.

50. Who was known as the ‘Father of Gastric Physiology’?

1. William Beaumont
2. William Hawkins
3. Charles Darwin
4. Donald Beaumont

Explanation

William Beaumont was a surgeon who was known as the ‘Father of Gastric Physiology’. Based on his observations he concluded that the stomach’s strong hydrochloric acid played a key role in digestion.

51. _______ is the largest digestive gland of the body

1. Liver
2. Oesophagus
3. Pancreas
4. Stomach

Explanation

Liver is the largest digestive gland of the body which is reddish brown in colour. It is divided into two main lobes, right and left lobes.

52. Bile salts help in the digestion of _________

1. Protein
2. Vitamins
3. Fat
4. Minerals

Explanation

Bile salts help in the digestion of fats by bringing about their emulsification (conversion of large fat droplets into small ones).

53. Which of the following are contained in bile salt?

1. Sodium glycolate
2. Sodium tauraglycolate
3. Bilirubin
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Bile is released into small intestine when food enters in it. It has bile salts (sodium glycolate and sodium tauraglycolate) and bile pigments (bilirubin and biliviridin).

54. Which of the following are the functions of Liver?

1. Controls blood sugar and amino acid levels
2. Destroys WBC
3. Synthesizes foetal red blood cells.
4. Detoxifies substances including drugs and alcohol
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 1, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Functions of Liver

• Controls blood sugar and amino acid levels.

• Synthesizes foetal red blood cells.

• Produces fibrinogen and prothrombin, used for clotting of blood.

• Destroys red blood cells.

• Stores iron, copper, vitamins A and D.

• Produces heparin (an anticoagulant).

• Excretes toxic and metallic poisons.

• Detoxifies substances including drugs and alcohol.

55. Pancreas is situated between_______

1. Stomach
2. Liver
3. Duodenum
4. Ileum
5. 1, 2
6. 1, 3
7. 2, 4
8. 3, 4

Explanation

Pancreas is a lobed, leaf shaped gland situated between the stomach and duodenum. The gland’s upper surface bears the islets of Langerhans which have endocrine cells and secrete hormones in which α (alpha) cells secrete glucagon and β (beta) cells secrete insulin.

56. _________ acts both as an exocrine gland and as an endocrine gland

1. Liver
2. Stomach
3. Pancreas
4. Kidney

Explanation

Pancreas acts both as an exocrine gland and as an endocrine gland. The exocrine part of the pancreatic gland secretes pancreatic juice which contains three enzymes- lipase, trypsin and amylase which acts on fats, proteins and starch respectively.

57. The intestinal glands secrete intestinal juice called______

1. Bile
2. HCl
3. Succus entericus
4. Succus mesmerism

Explanation

The intestinal glands secrete intestinal juice called succus entericus which contains enzymes like maltase, lactase, sucrase and lipase which act in an alkaline medium. From the duodenum the food is slowly moved down to ileum, where the digested food gets absorbed.

58. Nutrients in the food are absorbed by________

1. Blood vessels
2. Villi
3. Lymph
4. All the above

Explanation

Absorption is the process by which nutrients obtained after digestion are absorbed by villi and circulated throughout the body by blood and lymph and supplied to all body cells according to their requirements.

59. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Assimilation means the incorporation of the absorbed food materials into the tissue cells as their internal and homogenous component
2. The final products of fat digestion (fatty acids and glycerol) are again converted into fats
3. The excess fats are stored in adipose tissue
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Assimilation means the incorporation of the absorbed food materials into the tissue cells as their internal and homogenous component. The final products of fat digestion (fatty acids and glycerol) are again converted into fats and excess fats are stored in adipose tissue.

60. Where does the excess sugars are converted into a complex polysaccharide, glycogen?

1. Stomach
2. Ileum
3. Liver
4. Kidney

Explanation

The excess sugars are converted into a complex polysaccharide, glycogen in the liver. The amino acids are utilized to synthesize different proteins required for the body.

61. What is the length of large intestine?

1. 5 m
2. 1.5 m
3. 2 m
4. 3 m

Explanation

The small intestine is about 5 m long and is the longest part of the digestive system. The large intestine is a thicker tube, but is about 1.5 m long.

62. Which of the following are the parts of large intestine?

1. Caecum
2. Colon
3. Anus
4. Rectum
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

The unabsorbed and undigested food is passed into the large intestine. It extends from the ileum to the anus. It is about 1.5 meters in length. It has three parts- caecum, colon and rectum.

63. _________ is situated the junction of the small and large intestine.

1. Caecum
2. Anus
3. Colon
4. Rectum

Explanation

The caecum is a small blind pouch like structure situated at the junction of the small and large intestine.

64. _________ vestigeal organ in human beings.

1. Colon
2. Rectum
3. Vermiform appendix
4. Anus

Explanation

From the blind end of caecum, a finger – like structure called vermiform appendix arises. It is a vestigeal (functionless) organ in human beings.

65. Which of the following statement about Colon is correct?

1. The colon is much broader than ileum.
2. It passes up the abdomen on the right
3. It crosses to the left just below the stomach
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The colon is much broader than ileum. It passes up the abdomen on the right (ascending colon), crosses to the left just below the stomach (transverse colon) and down on the left side (descending colon).

66. _______ is the last part which opens into the anus

1. Caecum
2. Colon
3. Rectum
4. None

Explanation

The rectum is the last part which opens into the anus. It is kept closed by a ring of muscles called anal sphincter which opens when passing stools. The undigested or unassimilated portion of the ingested food material is thrown out from the body through the anal aperture as faecal matter. This is known as egestion or defaecation.

67. Match the following

1. Pancreatic amylase 1. Protein
2. Trypsin 2. Emulsified fats
3. Chymotrypsin 3. peptones
4. Pancreatic lipase 4. Starch
5. 3, 1, 2, 4
6. 4, 1, 2, 3
7. 4, 3, 1, 2
8. 4, 1, 3, 2

Explanation

68. Match the following enzyme with their Products of digestion:

1. Maltase 1. Glucose and Fructose
2. Lactase 2. Glucose and Glucose
3. Sucrase 3. Glucose and Galactose
4. Lipase 4. Fatty acids and Glycerol
5. 2, 3, 1, 4
6. 3, 1, 4, 2
7. 4, 1, 2, 3
8. 1, 3, 2, 4

Explanation

69. Arrange the following in order:

1. Buccal Cavity
2. Mouth
3. Large intestine
4. Anus
5. 1, 4, 2, 3
6. 2, 1, 3, 4
7. 3, 1, 2, 4
8. 2, 3, 1, 4

Explanation

70. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Metabolic activities continuously take place in living cells
2. All metabolic products produced by the biochemical reactions are not utilized by the body
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Metabolic activities continuously take place in living cells. All metabolic products produced by the biochemical reactions are not utilized by the body because certain nitrogenous toxic waste substances are also produced. They are called excretory products.

71. In human beings, ____ is the major excretory product

1. Uric acid
2. Urea
3. Ammonia
4. Chlorine

Explanation

In human beings, urea is the major excretory product. The tissues and organs associated with the removal of waste products constitute the excretory system.

72. Which conduct the urine from kidneys to the urinary bladder?

1. Urethra
2. Uterus
3. Ureters
4. Colon

Explanation

The human excretory system consists of a pair of kidneys, which produce the urine, a pair of ureters which conduct the urine from kidneys to the urinary bladder.

73. Where does the urine is stored temporarily?

1. Urethra
2. Uterus
3. Urinary bladder
4. Ureters

Explanation

In urinary bladder, urine is stored temporarily and urethra through which the urine is voided by bladder contractions.

74. Assertion(A): Excretion plays an important role in maintaining the homeostatic condition of the body.

Reason(R): If the waste products are accumulated and not eliminated, they become harmful and poisonous to the body

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

If the waste products are accumulated and not eliminated, they become harmful and poisonous to the body. Hence, excretion plays an important role in maintaining the homeostatic condition of the body.

75. Which of the following organ other than kidney removes small amounts of water, urea and salts?

1. Lungs
2. Skin
3. Small intestine
4. Liver

Explanation
Some of the excretory organs other than kidneys are skin (removes small amounts of water, urea and salts in the form of sweat) and lungs (eliminate carbon-dioxide and water vapour through exhaling).

76. Skin accounts for _________% of an adult’s human body weight

1. 10
2. 15
3. 20
4. 25

Explanation

Skin is the outer most covering of the body. It stretches all over the body in the form of a layer. It accounts for 15% of an adult’s human body weight.

77. Skin eliminates metabolic wastes through_______

1. Perspiration
2. Prescription
3. Anxiety
4. None

Explanation

There are many structures and glands derived from the skin. It eliminates metabolic wastes through perspiration.

78. The human body functions normally at a temperature of about ____ degree C

1. 30
2. 37
3. 32
4. 29

Explanation

The human body functions normally at a temperature of about 37degree C. When it gets hot sweat glands start secreting sweat.

79. Which of the following are contained in sweat?

1. Ammonia
2. Urea
3. Lactic acid
4. Salts
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Skin contains water with small amounts of other chemicals like ammonia, urea, lactic acid and salts (mainly sodium chloride). The sweat passes through the pores in the skin and gets evaporated.

80. Kidneys are bean-shaped organs _____ in colour.

1. Orange
2. Reddish blue
3. Reddish brown
4. Pale blue

Explanation

Kidneys are bean-shaped organs reddish brown in colour. The kidneys lie on either side of the vertebral column in the abdominal cavity attached to the dorsal body wall.

81. Assertion(A): The right kidney is placed lower than the left kidney

Reason(R): Liver takes up much space on the right side

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

The right kidney is placed lower than the left kidney as the liver takes up much space on the right side. Each kidney is about 11 cm long, 5 cm wide and 3 cm thick. The kidney is covered by a layer of fibrous connective tissue, the renal capsules, adipose capsule and a fibrous membrane.

82. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Internally the kidney consists of an outer dark region, the cortex and an inner lighter region, the medulla
2. Both of these regions contain uriniferous tubules or neurons.
3. On the inner concave side of each kidney, a notch called hilum is present through which blood vessels and nerves enter in and the urine leaves through the Ureter
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Internally the kidney consists of an outer dark region, the cortex and an inner lighter region, the medulla. Both of these regions contain uriniferous tubules or nephrons. The medulla consists of multi-tubular conical masses called the medullary pyramids or renal pyramids whose bases are adjacent to cortex. On the inner concave side of each kidney, a notch called hilum is present through which blood vessels and nerves enter in and the urine leaves through the Ureter.

83. Which of the following statement about Ureters is correct?

1. Ureters are thin muscular tubes emerging out from the hilum
2. The ureters carry urine from kidney to urinary bladder
3. Urine enters the ureter from the renal pelvis
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Ureters are thin muscular tubes emerging out from the hilum. Urine enters the ureter from the renal pelvis and is conducted along the ureter by peristaltic movements of its walls. The ureters carry urine from kidney to urinary bladder.

84. ________ lies in the pelvic cavity of the abdomen

1. Kidney
2. Urethra
3. Urinary bladder
4. Ureters

Explanation

Urinary bladder is a sac-like structure, which lies in the pelvic cavity of the abdomen. It stores urine temporarily.

85. ___________ keep the urethra closed and opens only at the time of micturition

1. Uterus
2. Urethral sphincters
3. Renal Pelvis
4. Ureter

Explanation

Urethra is a membranous tube, which conducts urine to the exterior. The urethral sphincters keep the urethra closed and opens only at the time of micturition (urination).

86. Which of the following are functions of kidney?

1. Maintains the fluid and electrolytes balance in our body
2. Regulates acid-base balance of blood.
3. Helps to retain the important plasma constituents like glucose and amino acids.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Functions of kidney:

1. Maintains the fluid and electrolytes balance in our body.

2. Regulates acid-base balance of blood.

3. Maintains the osmotic pressure in blood and tissues.

4. Helps to retain the important plasma constituents like glucose and amino acids.

87. _______ are structural and functional units of the kidneys.

1. Nephrons
2. Neurons
3. Plasma
4. WBC

Explanation

Each kidney consists of more than one million nephrons. Nephrons or uriniferous tubules are structural and functional units of the kidneys. Each nephron consists of Renal corpuscle or Malphigian corpuscle and renal tubule.

88. ________ contains a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus

1. Renal corpuscle
2. Malphigian corpuscle
3. Renal tubule
4. Bowman’s capsule

Explanation

The renal corpuscle consists of a cup-shaped structure called Bowman’s capsule containing a bunch of capillaries called glomerulus.

89. Blood leaves the glomerular capillaries through ______

1. Afferent arterioles
2. Efferent arterioles
3. Efferent veins
4. Afferent veins

Explanation

Blood enters the glomerular capillaries through afferent arterioles and leaves out through efferent arterioles.

90. How many regions does Bowman’s capsule have?

1. 4
2. 5
3. 3
4. 2

Explanation

The Bowman’s capsule continues as the renal tubule which consists of three regions proximal convoluted tubule, U-shaped hair pin loop, the loop of Henle and the distal convoluted tubule. The distal convoluted tubule opens into the collecting tubule. The nitrogenous wastes are drained into renal pelvis which leads to ureters and stored in the urinary bladder. Urine is expelled out through the urethra.

91. How many processes of urine formation includes?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 3
4. 5

Explanation

The process of urine formation includes the following three stages.

• Glomerular filtration
• Tubular reabsorption
• Tubular secretion

92. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Urine formation begins with the filtration of blood through epithelial walls of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule
2. The filtrate is called as the glomerular filtrate.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Urine formation begins with the filtration of blood through epithelial walls of the glomerulus and Bowman’s capsule. The filtrate is called as the glomerular filtrate. Both essential and non-essential substances present in the blood are filtered.

93. Which of the following are essential substances contained in filtrate in the proximal tubule?

1. Potassium
2. Bicarbonates
3. Vitamins
4. Acetic acid
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 3
8. All the above

Explanation

The filtrate in the proximal tubule consists of essential substances such as glucose, amino acids, vitamins, sodium, potassium, bicarbonates and water that are reabsorbed into the blood by a process of selective reabsorption.

94. Which of the following ions are secreted into the tubule?

1. H+
2. K+
3. -OH
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Substances such as H+ or K+ ions are secreted into the tubule. This tubular filtrate is finally known as urine, which is hypertonic in man.

95. A healthy person excretes ________ litres of urine per day.

1. 1 to 2
2. 1 to 3
3. 2 to 3
4. 3 to 5

Explanation

Finally, the urine passes into collecting ducts to the pelvis and through the ureter into the urinary bladder. When the urinary bladder is full the urine is expelled out through the urethra. This process is called micturition. A healthy person excretes one to two litres of urine per day.

96. The kidneys reabsorb and redistribute _____ % of the blood volume and only _____ % of the blood filtered becomes urine.

1. 98, 2
2. 99, 1
3. 97, 3
4. 67, 33

Explanation

Two healthy kidneys contain a total of about 2 million nephrons, which filter about 170-180 litres of blood per day. The kidneys reabsorb and redistribute 99% of the blood volume and only 1% of the blood filtered becomes urine.

97. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. When kidneys lose their filtering efficiency, excessive amount of fluid and toxic waste accumulate in the body
2. This condition is known as kidney (renal) failure
3. When renal failure cannot be treated by drug or dialysis, the patients are advised for kidney transplantation
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

When kidneys lose their filtering efficiency, excessive amount of fluid and toxic waste accumulate in the body. This condition is known as kidney (renal) failure. For this, an artificial kidney is used to filter the blood of the patient. The patient is said to be put on dialysis and the process of purifying blood by an artificial kidney is called haemodialysis. When renal failure cannot be treated by drug or dialysis, the patients are advised for kidney transplantation.

98. When was the first successful kidney transplant took place?

1. 1994
2. 1954
3. 1984
4. 1964

Explanation

In 1954, Joseph E. Murray and his colleagues at Peter Bent Brigham Hospital in Boston, USA performed first successful kidney transplant between Ronald and Richard Herrick who were identical twins. The recipient Richard Herrick died after 8 years of transplantation.

99. Arrange the route of urine flow in order?

1. Glomerulus
2. Collecting tubule
3. Bowman’s capsule
4. Proximal convoluted tubule
5. 4, 2, 3, 1
6. 1, 3, 4, 2
7. 1, 4, 3, 2
8. 1, 2, 4, 3

Explanation

100. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The capacity to reproduce is one of the most important characteristics of living beings
2. Males are visibly different from females in physical build up, external genital organs and secondary sexual characters
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The capacity to reproduce is one of the most important characteristics of living beings. There is a distinct sexual dimorphism in human beings i.e., males are visibly different from females in physical build up, external genital organs and secondary sexual characters.

101. Which of the following is primary sex organs?

1. Gonads
2. Genital ducts
3. Genital glands
4. All the above

Explanation

The reproductive systems of male and female consist of many organs which are distinguished as primary and secondary sex organs. The primary sex organs are gonads, which produce gametes (sex cells) and secrete sex hormones. The secondary sex organs include the genital ducts and glands which help in the transportation of gametes and enable the reproductive process.

102. When does male attain sexual maturity?

1. 13-14 years
2. 12-16 years
3. 11-13 years
4. 9-12 years

Explanation

The reproductive organs become functional after attaining sexual maturity. In males, sexual maturity is attained at the age of 13-14 years.

103. When does male attain sexual maturity?

1. 13-14 years
2. 12-16 years
3. 11-13 years
4. 9-12 years

Explanation

In females, it is attained at the age of 11-13 years. This age is known as the age of puberty. During sexual maturity, hormonal changes take place in males and females and secondary sexual characters are developed under the influence of these hormones.

104. Which of the following are included in Human male reproductive system?

1. Testes
2. Scrotum
3. Vagina
4. Penis
5. 1, 3, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Human male reproductive system consists of testes (primary sex organs), scrotum, vas deferens, urethra, penis and accessory glands.

105. Which of the following is the male sex hormone?

1. Testosterone
2. Sperm
3. Oestrogen
4. Progesterone

Explanation

A pair of testes lies outside the abdominal cavity of the male. These testes are the male gonads, which produce male gametes (sperms) and male sex hormone (Testosterone). Along the inner side of each testis lies a mass of coiled tubules called epididymis. The Sertoli cells of the testes provide nourishment to the developing sperms.

106. _________ acts as a thermoregulator organ

1. Scrotum
2. Testes
3. Urethra
4. Penis

Explanation

The scrotum is a loose pouch-like sac of skin which is divided internally into right and left scrotal sacs by muscular partition. The two testes lie in the respective scrotal sacs. It also contains many nerves and blood vessels. The scrotum acts as a thermoregulator organ

107. The sperms develop at a temperature of _____ ⁰C lower than the normal body temperature

1. 1 – 5
2. 1 – 3
3. 2 – 6
4. 1 – 2

Explanation

The scrotum provides an optimum temperature for the formation of sperms. The sperms develop at a temperature of 1 – 3⁰C lower than the normal body temperature.

108. _______ is a source of energy for the sperm.

1. Glucose
2. Galactose
3. Fructose
4. Maltose

Explanation

Fructose is a source of energy for the sperm. The vas deferens along with seminal vesicles opens into ejaculatory duct which expels the sperm and its secretions from seminal vesicles into the urethra.

109. Sperm is rich in________

1. Fructose
2. Glucose
3. Calcium
4. Enzymes
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Vas deferens is a straight tube which carries the sperms to the seminal vesicles. The sperms are stored in the seminal plasma of seminal vesicle, which is rich in fructose, calcium and enzymes.

110. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Urethra is contained inside the penis and conveys the sperms from the vas deferens
2. The accessory glands associated with the male reproductive system consist of seminal vesicles, prostate gland and Cowper’s glands.
3. The secretions of these glands form seminal fluid and mixes with the sperm to form semen
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Urethra is contained inside the penis and conveys the sperms from the vas deferens which pass through the urethral opening. The accessory glands associated with the male reproductive system consist of seminal vesicles, prostate gland and Cowper’s glands. The secretions of these glands form seminal fluid and mixes with the sperm to form semen. This fluid provides nutrition and helps in the transport of sperms.

111. ______ is the smallest cell in the male body

1. Neuron
2. Nephron
3. Sperm
4. Ovum

Explanation

The sperm is the smallest cell in the male body. A normal male produces more than 500 billion sperm cells in his life time. The process of formation of sperms is known as spermatogenesis.

112. Which of the following are included in Female Reproductive System?

1. Ovaries
2. Oviducts
3. Uterus
4. Vagina
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

The female reproductive system consists of ovaries (primary sex organs), oviducts, uterus and vagina.

113. Which of the following statement about Ovaries is correct?

1. A pair of almond-shaped ovaries is located in the lower part of abdominal cavity near the kidneys in female.
2. The ovaries are the female gonads, which produce female gametes (eggs or ova)
3. A mature ovary contains a large number of ova in different stages of development.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

A pair of almond-shaped ovaries is located in the lower part of abdominal cavity near the kidneys in female. The ovaries are the female gonads, which produce female gametes (eggs or ova) and secrete female sex hormones (Oestrogen and Progesterone). A mature ovary contains a large number of ova in different stages of development.

114. _________ pick up the ovum released from ovary and push it into the fallopian tube

1. Oviducts
2. Penis
3. Fimbriae
4. Uterus

Explanation

Fallopian tubes (Oviducts) are paired tubes originating from uterus, one on either side. The terminal part of fallopian tube is funnel-shaped with finger-like projections called fimbriae lying near the ovary. The fimbriae pick up the ovum released from ovary and push it into the fallopian tube.

115. _________ lies between urinary bladder and rectum in female

1. Urethra
2. Uterus
3. Oviducts
4. Ovaries

Explanation

Uterus is a pear-shaped muscular, hollow structure present in the pelvic cavity. It lies between urinary bladder and rectum.

116. Development of foetus occurs inside the ________

1. Vagina
2. Cervix
3. Uterus
4. Urethra

Explanation

Development of foetus occurs inside the uterus. The narrower lower part of uterus is called cervix, which leads into vagina.

117. ________ connects cervix and the external genitalia

1. Vagina
2. Cervix
3. Uterus
4. Urethra

Explanation

The uterus narrows down into a hollow muscular tube called vagina. It connects cervix and the external genitalia. It receives the sperms, acts as birth canal during child birth (parturition).

118. _____ is the largest human cell

1. Neuron
2. Nephron
3. Sperm
4. Ovum

Explanation

An ovum is the largest human cell. The process of formation of ova is known as oogenesis. Vagina receives the sperms, acts as birth canal during child birth (parturition).

9th Science Lesson 21 Questions in English

21] Nutrition and Health

1. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Food is the basic necessity of life
2. Food is defined as any substance of either plant or animal origin
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Food is the basic necessity of life. Food is defined as any substance of either plant or animal origin consumed to provide nutritional support for an organism.

2. Which of the following functions can be obtained from food?

1. Nutrients that provide energy
2. Helps in normal growth
3. Helps in repairing the worn-out tissues
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Food contains essential nutrients that provide energy, helps in normal growth and development, repair the worn-out tissues and protect the body from diseases.

3. Assertion(A): Adulteration of foodstuffs is commonly practiced in India by traders

Reason(R): Food is contaminated or adulterated from production to consumption for financial

gain.

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Adulteration of foodstuffs is commonly practiced in India by traders. Food is contaminated or adulterated from production to consumption for financial gain. The normal physiological functions of a consumer are affected due to either addition of a deleterious substance or the removal of a vital component.

4. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Food contamination with microorganisms is a major source of illness either in the form of infections or poisoning
2. Food safety is becoming a major concern these days
3. Food laws have come into existence to maintain the quality of food produced in our country
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Food contamination with microorganisms is a major source of illness either in the form of infections or poisoning. Food safety is becoming a major concern these days. Food laws have come into existence to maintain the quality of food produced in our country.

5. Which of the following are the constituents of Carbohydrates?

1. Carbon
2. Oxygen
3. Nitrogen
4. Hydrogen
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 2, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Nutrients are classified into the following major groups as given below. Carbohydrates, Proteins, Fats, Vitamins, Minerals. Carbohydrates are organic compounds composed of carbon, hydrogen and oxygen.

6. Which of the following are the examples of Carbohydrates?

1. Lactose
2. Glucose
3. Cellulose
4. Starch
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Carbohydrate is an essential nutrient which provides the chief source of energy to the body. Glucose, sucrose, lactose, starch, cellulose are examples for carbohydrates.

7. Match the following:

1. Monosaccharide 1. Cellulose
2. Disaccharide 2. Glucose
3. Polysaccharide 3. Sucrose
4. 1, 3, 2
5. 2, 3, 1
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 3, 2, 1

Explanation

Carbohydrates are classified as monosaccharide (Glucose), disaccharide (Sucrose) and polysaccharide (Cellulose). The classification is based on the number of sugar molecules present in each group.

8. ______ the essential nutrients and also the building blocks of the body.

1. Fat
2. Lipid
3. Protein
4. Carbohydrates

Explanation

Proteins are the essential nutrients and also the building blocks of the body. They are essential for growth and repair of body cells and tissues. Proteins are made of amino acids.

9. Which of the following are essential amino acids?

1. Phenylalanine
2. Valine
3. Leucine
4. Tryptophan
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Essential amino acids are those that cannot be biosynthesized by the body and must be obtained from the diet. The nine essential amino acids are phenylalanine, valine, threonine, tryptophan, methionine, leucine, isoleucine, lysine and histidine.

10. ________ maintain cell structures and are involved in metabolic functions

1. Protein
2. Fats
3. Vitamins
4. Minerals

Explanation

Fat in the diet provides energy. They maintain cell structures and are involved in metabolic functions.

11. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Essential fatty acids can be synthesized in the body
2. They are provided through diet
3. Omega fatty acids is the essential fatty acid required in human nutrition
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Essential fatty acids cannot be synthesized in the body and are provided through diet. Essential fatty acids required in human nutrition are omega fatty acids.

12. Which of the following vitamin was discovered first?

1. A
2. D
3. E
4. K

Explanation

Dr. Funk introduced the term vitamin. Vitamin A was given the first letter of the alphabet, as it was the first vitamin discovered.

13. _______ is called as Sunshine vitamin.

1. Vitamin K
2. Vitamin D
3. Vitamin A
4. Vitamin B

Explanation

Vitamin D is called as Sunshine vitamin. Vitamin D improves bone strength by helping body to absorb calcium.

14. Human skin can synthesize Vitamin D when exposed to sunlight during_______

1. Early morning
2. Afternoon
3. Evening
4. All the above

Explanation

Human skin can synthesize Vitamin D when exposed to sunlight (especially early morning). When the sun rays fall on the skin dehydrocholesterol is converted into Vitamin D.

15. Minerals are the constituents of________

1. Teeth
2. Blood
3. Bones
4. Nerve cells
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 1, 2, 4
7. 2, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Minerals are inorganic substances required as an essential nutrient by organisms to perform various biological functions necessary for life. They are the constituents of teeth, bones, tissues, blood, muscle and nerve cells

16. Which of the following are the macro-minerals required by the human body?

1. Calcium
2. Phosphorus
3. Iron
4. Magnesium
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 1, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

The macro-minerals required by the human body are calcium, phosphorus, potassium, sodium and magnesium.

17. Which of the following are the micro-minerals required by the human body?

1. Iron
2. Sulphur
3. Zinc
4. Molybdenum
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

The micro-minerals required by the human body also called trace elements are sulphur, iron, chlorine, cobalt, copper, zinc, manganese, molybdenum, iodine and selenium

18. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Absence of certain nutrients in our daily diet over a long period of time leads to deficiency diseases
2. This condition is referred as Malnutrition
3. Deficiency of vitamin D and energy leads to severe conditions like: Kwashiorkar and Marasmus.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Absence of certain nutrients in our daily diet over a long period of time leads to deficiency diseases. This condition is referred as Malnutrition. Deficiency of proteins and energy leads to severe conditions like: Kwashiorkar and Marasmus.

19. Which of the following food stuff contains Carbohydrates?

1. Honey
2. Sugarcane
3. Rice
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Carbohydrates are contained in Honey, sugarcane, fruits, whole grains, starchy vegetables, rice, etc. Their Daily requirements 150-200 grams.

20. Which of the following contains protein?

1. Legumes
2. Egg
3. Fish
4. Unsaturated oil
5. 1, 2
6. 1, 3
7. 2, 3
8. All the above

Explanation

Proteins are contained in Legumes, pulses, nuts, soya bean, green leafy vegetables, fish, poultry products, egg, milk and dairy products. Their daily requirement is 40 grams.

21. What is the daily requirement of fat?

1. 10 grams
2. 50 grams
3. 35 grams
4. 25 grams

Explanation

Fats are contained in Egg yolk, saturated oil, meat. They daily requirement is 35 grams.

22. Match the following:

1. Vitamin A 1. Niacin
2. Vitamin D 2. Tocopherol
3. Vitamin E 3. Retinol
4. Vitamin B3 4. Calciferol
5. 3, 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 1, 4, 3
7. 3, 4, 2, 1
8. 4, 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Vitamin A (Retinol), Vitamin D (Calciferol), Vitamin E (Tocopherol), Vitamin K (Derivative of Quinone), Vitamin B1 (Thiamine), Vitamin B2 (Riboflavin), Vitamin B3 (Niacin), Vitamin B6 (Pyridoxine), Vitamin B12 (Cyanocobalamine), Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid).

23. Vitamin A deficiency results in_______

1. Xerophthalmia
2. Rickets
3. Nyctalopia
4. 1, 2
5. 3 alone
6. 1, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Vitamin A is rich in Carrot, papaya, leafy vegetables, fish liver oil, egg yolk, liver, dairy products. Its Deficiency results in Xerophthalmia Nyctalopia (Night blindness). Symptoms include dryness of Cornea Unable to see in the night (dim light) Scaly skin.

24. Which of the following are the symptoms of Rickets?

1. Sterility
2. Bow legs
3. defective ribs
4. development of pigeon chest
5. 1, 3, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Vitamin D (Calciferol) is rich in Egg, liver, dairy products, Fish, synthesized by the skin in sunlight. Its Deficiency results in Rickets (in children). Symptoms include Bow legs, defective ribs, development of pigeon chest.

25. Which of the following vitamin deficiency results in Reproductive abnormalities?

1. A
2. K
3. D
4. E

Explanation

Vitamin E (Tocopherol) is rich in Whole wheat, meat, vegetable oil, milk. Deficiency results in Sterility in rats, Reproductive abnormalities. Its symptoms include sterility.

26. Which vitamin deficiency results in delayed blood clotting?

1. A
2. D
3. E
4. K

Explanation

Vitamin K (Derivative of Quinone) is rich in Leafy vegetables, soyabeans, milk. Deficiency results in Excessive bleeding due to delayed blood clotting.

27. Match the following:

1. Vitamin B1 1. Scurvy
2. Vitamin B2 2. Beriberi
3. Vitamin B12 3. Ariboflavinosis
4. Vitamin C 4. Pernicious anaemia
5. 1, 3, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4, 1
7. 2, 3, 1, 4
8. 3, 4, 2, 1

Explanation

28. Match the following:

1. Calcium 1. osteoporosis
2. Sodium 2. Goitre
3. Potassium 3. Muscular cramps
4. Iodine 4. Muscular fatigue
5. 1, 2, 3, 4
6. 1, 4, 2, 3
7. 2, 1, 3, 4
8. 1, 3, 4, 2

Explanation

29. Which of the following statement about Kwashiorkar is correct?

1. It is a condition of severe vitamin D deficiency.
2. It affects children between 1-5 years of age
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Kwashiorkar is a condition of severe protein deficiency. It affects children between 1-5 years of age, whose diet mainly consists of carbohydrates but lack in proteins.

30. Which of the following deficiency in food results in Marasmus?

1. Carbohydrates
2. Fats
3. Minerals
4. Proteins
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 3
8. All the above

Explanation

Marasmus usually affects infants below the age of one year when the diet is poor in carbohydrates, fats and proteins.

31. Which of the following are the Signs of food spoilage?

1. Appearance
2. Colour
3. Texture
4. Odour
5. 1, 3, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 3
8. All the above

Explanation

Food spoilage is an undesirable change in the normal state of food and is not suitable for human consumption. Signs of food spoilage include changes in appearance, colour, texture, odour, and taste.

32. Which of the following are the Internal factors responsible for Food Spoilage?

1. Enzymatic activities
2. Adulterants in food
3. Moisture content of the food
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Factors responsible for Food Spoilage are given below.

Internal factors: It includes enzymatic activities and moisture content of the food.

External factors: It includes adulterants in food, contaminated utensils and equipment, unhygienic cooking area and lack of storage facilities.

33. For which of the following reasons food is preserved?

1. Increase the shelf life of food
2. Increase food supply
3. decrease wastage of food
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Food preservation is the process of prevention of food from decay or spoilage, by storing in a condition fit for future use. Food is preserved to: increase the shelf life of food, retain the colour, texture, flavour and nutritive value, increase food supply, decrease wastage of food.

34. Match the following:

1. Sun drying 1. Grapes
2. vacuum drying 2. Cereals
3. hot air drying 3. Cheese powder
4. 1, 3, 2
5. 2, 3, 1
6. 1, 3, 2
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Drying is the process of preservation of food by removal of water/moisture content in the food. It can be done either by sun drying, (e.g. cereals, fish) or vacuum drying (e.g. milk powder, cheese powder) or hot air drying (e.g. grapes, dry fruits, potato flakes). Drying inhibits the growth of microorganism such as bacteria, yeasts and moulds.

35. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. In smoking process, food products like meat and fish are exposed to smoke
2. The drying action of the smoke tends to preserve the food
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

In smoking process, food products like meat and fish are exposed to smoke. The drying action of the smoke tends to preserve the food.

36. Which of the following rays are used in Food irradiation?

1. X-rays
2. Gamma rays
3. UV rays
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Food irradiation is the process of exposing food to optimum levels of ionizing radiations like x-rays, gamma rays or UV rays to kill harmful bacteria and pests and to preserve its freshness.

37. Which of the following statement about Cold storage is correct?

1. It is a process of storing the perishable foods such as vegetables, fruits and fruit products, milk and milk products etc at low temperature
2. It is a process of storing the perishable foods such as vegetables, fruits and fruit products, milk and milk products etc
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Cold storage is a process of storing the perishable foods such as vegetables, fruits and fruit products, milk and milk products etc. at low temperature. Preserving the food products at low temperature slows down the biological and chemical reactions and prevents its spoilage.

38. At which microorganisms cannot grow, chemical reactions are reduced?

1. 0 degree C
2. 10 degree C
3. 25 degree C
4. 5 degree C

Explanation

Freezing is one of the widely used methods of food preservation. This process involves storing the food below 0 degree C at which microorganisms cannot grow, chemical reactions are reduced and metabolic reactions are also delayed.

39. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Pasteurization is a process of heat treatment of liquid food products.
2. This process also involves boiling of milk to a temperature of 63°C for about 30 minutes
3. It should be suddenly cooled to destroy the microbes present in the milk
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Pasteurization is a process of heat treatment of liquid food products. E.g. For preservation of milk and beverages. This process also involves boiling of milk to a temperature of 63°C for about 30 minutes and suddenly cooling to destroy the microbes present in the milk.

40. Assertion(A): Bananas should not be stored in refrigerator

Reason(R): When it is kept at refrigerator the enzyme responsible for browning and cell damage becomes more active thereby causing the skin colour change from yellow to dark brown

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Bananas are best stored at room temperature. When it is kept in a refrigerator, the enzyme responsible for ripening becomes inactive. In addition, the enzyme responsible for browning and cell damage becomes more active thereby causing the skin colour change from yellow to dark brown.

41. ______is World Food Day

1. October 10
2. October 16
3. October 2
4. October 30

Explanation

October 16th is World Food Day. It emphasizes on the food safety and avoiding the food wastage in the world.

42. Which of the following are preserved using Canning method?

1. Vegetables
2. Fruits
3. Meat
4. Fruit juices
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

In Canning method of food preservation, most vegetables, fruits, meat and dairy products, fruit juices and some ready-to-eat foods are processed and stored in a clean, steamed air tight containers under pressure and then sealed. It is then subjected to high temperature and cooled to destroy all microbes.

43. _______is one of the oldest methods of preserving food

1. Addition of salt
2. Addition of sugar
3. Addition of oil
4. All the above

Explanation

Some naturally available materials like salt, sugar and oil are used as food preservatives. Addition of salt is one of the oldest methods of preserving food.

44. Assertion(A): Addition of salt is a good method of preservation

Reason(R): Addition of salt removes the moisture content in the food by the process of osmosis thus, prevents the growth of bacteria

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Addition of salt removes the moisture content in the food by the process of osmosis. This prevents the growth of bacteria and reduces the activity of microbial enzymes. Meat, fish, gooseberry, lemon and raw mangoes are preserved by salting. Salt is also used as a preservative in pickles, canned foods etc.

45. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Sugar/Honey is added as a preservative to increase the shelf life of fruits and fruit products like jams, jellies, squash, etc.
2. The hygroscopic nature of sugar/honey helps in reducing the water content of food
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Sugar/Honey is added as a preservative to increase the shelf life of fruits and fruit products like jams, jellies, squash, etc. The hygroscopic nature of sugar/honey helps in reducing the water content of food and also minimizing the process of oxidation in fruits.

46. ______in pickles prevents the contact of air with food

1. Addition of salt
2. Addition of sugar
3. Addition of oil
4. All the above

Explanation

Addition of oil in pickles prevents the contact of air with food. Hence microorganisms cannot grow and spoil the food.

47. Which of the following are added to food products like sauces, jams, jellies, packed foods and

ready- to- eat foods?

1. Citric acid
2. Sodium benzoate
3. Potassium bisulphate
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Synthetic food preservatives like sodium benzoate, citric acid, vinegar, sodium meta bisulphate and potassium bisulphate are added to food products like sauces, jams, jellies, packed foods and ready- to- eat foods. These preservatives delay the microbial growth and keep the food safe for long duration.

48. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Adulteration is defined as the addition or subtraction of any substance to or from food, so that the natural composition and the quality of food substance is affected.
2. Adulterant is any material which is used for the purpose of adulteration.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Adulteration is defined as the addition or subtraction of any substance to or from food, so that the natural composition and the quality of food substance is affected. Adulterant is any material which is used for the purpose of adulteration.

49. Which of the following are the commonly adulterated foods?

1. Milk
2. coffee powder
3. saffron
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Some of the commonly adulterated foods are milk and milk products, cereals, pulses, coffee powder, tea powder, turmeric powder, saffron, confectionary, non-alcoholic beverages, spices, edible oils, meat, poultry products etc.

50. Assertion(A): Prussic acid in seeds of apples is an example of Natural adulterant

Reason(R): Natural adulterants are those chemicals or organic compounds that are naturally

present in food

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Natural adulterants are those chemicals or organic compounds that are naturally present in food. e.g. toxic substances in certain poisonous mushrooms, Prussic acid in seeds of apples and cherry, marine toxins, fish oil poisoning, environmental contaminants.

51. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Incidental adulterants are added unknowingly due to ignorance or carelessness during food handling and packaging
2. It includes Pesticide residues, Droppings of rodents in storage, Microbial contamination due to the presence of pathogens like Escherichia coli
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Incidental/unintentionally adulterants are added unknowingly due to ignorance or carelessness during food handling and packaging. It includes: a. Pesticide residues b. Droppings of rodents, insects, rodent bites and larva in food during its storage c. Microbial contamination due to the presence of pathogens like Escherichia coli, Salmonella in fruits, vegetables, ready-to-eat meat and poultry products.

52. _______ chemical is added to ripen bananas and mangoes.

1. Calcium sulphide
2. Calcium carbide
3. Sodium dioxide
4. Sodium carbide

Explanation

Chemicals like calcium carbide to ripen bananas and mangoes. Non certified food colours containing chemicals like metallic lead are used to give colours to vegetables like green leafy vegetables, bitter gourd, green peas etc. These colours are added to give a fresh look to the vegetables.

53. Which of the following is baking soda?

1. Sodium bicarbonate
2. Sodium carbonate
3. Calcium carbonate
4. Nitrous oxide

Explanation

Additives and preservatives like vinegar, citric acid, sodium bicarbonate (baking soda), hydrogen peroxide in milk, modified food starch, food flavours, synthetic preservatives and artificial sweeteners.

54. _________ is coated on fruits like apple, pear to give a shining appearance

1. Sodium Carbonate
2. Carnauba
3. Shellac
4. Both b and c

Explanation

Edible synthetic wax like shellac or carnauba wax is coated on fruits like apple, pear to give a shining appearance.

55. Consumption of these adulterated foods may lead to________

1. Nausea
2. Vomiting
3. Gastrointestinal disorders
4. Colon cancer
5. 1, 3, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 3
8. All the above

Explanation

Consumption of these adulterated foods may lead to serious health effects like fever, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, gastrointestinal disorders, asthma, allergy, neurological disorder, skin allergies, immune suppression, kidney and liver failure, colon cancer and even birth defects.

56. When does Indian Government enacted the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act?

1. 1954
2. 1956
3. 1965
4. 1975

Explanation

The government always ensures that pure and safe food is made available to the consumers. In 1954, the Indian Government enacted the Food Law known as Prevention of Food Adulteration Act and the Prevention of Food Adulteration Rules in 1955 with the objective of ensuring pure and wholesome food to the consumers and protect them from fraudulent trade practices.

57. World health day is celebrated on______

1. 7^th April
2. 2^nd November
3. 7^th December
4. 7^th March

Explanation

A slogan (From farm to plate, make food safe) was raised on World Health Day (7th April 2015) to promote and improve food safety.

58. When was FCI set up in India?

1. 1954
2. 1965
3. 1995
4. 1967

Explanation

ISI, AGMARK, FPO, FCI and other health departments enforce minimum standards for the consumer products. FCI (Food Corporation of India) was set up in the year 1965 with some objectives.

59. Which of the following are the objectives of FCI?

1. Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interest of farmers
2. Distributing food grains throughout the country
3. Regulate the market price to provide food grains to consumers at reliable price
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

FCI (Food Corporation of India) was set up with the following objectives:

• Effective price support operations for safeguarding the interest of farmers.
• Distributing food grains throughout the country
• Maintaining satisfactory levels of operational and buffer stock of food grains to ensure national security.
• Regulate the market price to provide food grains to consumers at reliable price.

60. Which of the following are certified by ISI?

1. Switches
2. Kitchen appliances
3. Heater
4. Butter
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

61. Which of the following are certified as AGMARK?

1. Cereals
2. Pulses
3. Honey
4. Butter
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

62. Which of the following are certified as FPO?

1. Jams
2. Sauce
3. Canned fruits
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

63. Who is responsible for protecting and promoting the public health through regulation?

1. fssai
2. ISO
3. ISI
4. FCI

Explanation

9th Science Lesson 22 Questions in English

22] World of Microbes

1. What is the origin of the word Microbiology?

a) Greek

b) Latin

c) French

d) Persian

Explanation

Microbiology (Greek words: mikros -small, bios- life bearing, logy- study) is a branch of biology that deals with living organisms of microscopic size.

2. Which of these are not included in the study of microbiology?

a) Bacteria

b) Plants

c) Fungi

d) Algae

Explanation

The study of microbiology includes bacteria, fungi, algae, protozoa and viruses.

3. Assertion(A): Microbes are found in terrestrial, aquatic, atmospheric and in living hosts.

Reasoning(R): Microbes cannot survive in extreme environments.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Microbes are found in habitats like terrestrial, aquatic, atmospheric or in living hosts. Some of them survive in extreme environments like hot springs, ice sheets, water bodies with high salt content and low oxygen and in arid places with limited water availability.

4. Choose the correct statements.

i) Micro-organisms are used in preparing curd, bread, alcohol and vaccines

ii) Mostly all the microorganisms causes disease to plants, animals and human being.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Some of the microorganisms are beneficial to us and they are used in the preparation of curd, bread, cheese, alcohol, vaccines and vitamins while some others are harmful causing diseases to plants and animals including human being.

5. In which of these factors microorganism differ with each other?

a) Size

b) Morphology

c) Habitat

d) All the above

Explanation

Microorganisms differ from each other in size, morphology, habitat, metabolism and several other features.

6. Assertion (A): Microbes are unicellular, multicellular and acellular.

Reasoning(R): Fungi are examples of multicellular microbes.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Microbes may be unicellular (Bacteria), multicellular (Fungi), acellular (not composed of cells-Virus).

7. Which is not included in the type of microbes?

a) Fungi

b) Protists

c) Viruses

d) Hydra

Explanation

Types of microbes include bacteria, viruses, fungi, microscopic algae and protists.

8. What are the features of bacteria?

i) Single cell

ii) Prokaryotic organisms

iii) Multicellular

iv) Without nucleus

a) i only

b) i, ii, iv only

c) ii, iv only

d) iii only

Explanation

Bacteria are microscopic, single celled prokaryotic organisms without nucleus and other cell organelles.

9. Assertion (A) : All the bacteria’s are mostly single celled species.

Reasoning(R): Very few bacteria appear as filaments of loosely joined cells.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Although majority of bacterial species exist as single celled forms, some appear to be filaments of loosely joined cells.

10. What is the maximum length value of a bacterium?

a) 1μm

b) 2mm

c) 10μm

d) 0.2 micrometer

Explanation

The size varies from less than 1 to 10 μm in length and 0.2 to 1 μm micrometer in width.

11. What is used for the motility of bacteria?

a) Flagella

b) Filaments

c) Cytoplasm

d) Scales

Explanation

Bacteria may be motile or non-motile. Special structures called flagella are found on the cell surfaces for motility.

12. Match

A. Bacilli i) Spiral

B. Cocci ii) Rod

C. Spirilla iii) Spherical

a) iii, i, ii

b) i, iii, ii

c) ii, iii, i

d) iii, ii, i

Explanation

Based on the shapes, bacteria are grouped as: Spherical shaped bacteria called as cocci (or coccus for a single cell). Rod shaped bacteria called as bacilli (or bacillus for a single cell). Spiral shaped bacteria called as spirilla (or spirillum for single cell).

13. Who was the first person to design his own microscope?

a) Alexander Fleming

b) Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek

c) Robert Koch

d) Louis Pasteur

Explanation

Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek, the first microbiologist designed his own microscope. In 1674, he took plaque from his own teeth and observed it under the microscope. He was astonished to see many tiny organisms moving around, which was otherwise invisible to naked eyes.

14. Which of these acts as an additional protective layer in some bacteria?

a) Polysaccharides

b) Flagella

c) Cell Membrane

d) All the above

Explanation

Bacterial cell has cell membrane covered by strong rigid cell wall. In some bacteria outside the cell wall there is an additional slimy protective layer called capsule made up of polysaccharides.

15. What is the genetic material for the bacteria?

a) DNA

b) Base

c) Gene

d) RNA

Explanation

The plasma membrane encloses the cytoplasm incipient nucleus (nucleoid), ribosomes and DNA which serve as genetic material.

16. In which of this protein synthesis take place in Bacterial cells?

a) DNA

b) Ribosomes

c) Cytoplasm

d) Cell membrane

Explanation

Ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. They lack membrane bound organelles. In addition to this a small extra chromosomal circular DNA called plasmid is found in the cytoplasm.

17. What is the meaning of the root word virus in Latin?

a) Unseen materials

b) Small species

c) Poisonous fluid

d) Hidden

Explanation

The term ‘virus’ in Latin means ‘venom’ or ‘poisonous fluid’.

18. Assertion (A): Virus are non- cellular, self-replicating parasites.

Reasoning(R): The central nucleic acid molecule of virus may be DNA or RNA.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Viruses are non-cellular, self-replicating parasites. They are made up of a protein that covers a central nucleic acid molecule either RNA or DNA.

19. What is the minimum percentage of protein present in virus?

a) 25%

b) 95%

c) 60%

d) 50%

Explanation

The amount of protein varies from 60% to 95% and the rest is nucleic acid. Nucleic acid is either DNA (T4 bacteriophage) or RNA (Tobacco mosaic virus, TMV).

20. Choose the incorrect statements.

i) A simple virus particle is called as a virion.

ii) Virus grows and multiplies in living and non-living cells.

iii) The range of a virus varies from 18-400 nano-meters.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

A simple virus particle is often called a virion. They grow and multiply only in living cells. They are the smallest among the infective agents varying over a wide range from 18-400 nm (nano-meter).

21. In which of this host virus can exist?

a) Plants

b) Bacteria

c) Human being

d) All the above

Explanation

Virus can live in plants, animals, human being and even bacteria. They can be easily transmitted from one host to another.

22. Which of these is not a living character of a virus?

a) The genetic material of a virus may be DNA or RNA.

b) Virus cannot self-replicate its genetic material.

c) Virus can attack specific hosts.

d) Virus can multiply in the living cell of the host.

Explanation

Living characters of viruses

1. They have the nucleic acid (DNA or RNA) i.e., the genetic material that can replicate.

2. They can multiply in the living cells of the host.

3. They can attack specific hosts.

23. Choose the Incorrect statements of non-living characters of virus.

i) Virus remains as an inert material inside the host.

ii) Virus cannot be crystallized.

iii) Viruses are devoid of cellular organelles like ribosomes, mitochondria.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Non-living characters of viruses

1. Viruses remain as inert material outside their hosts.

2. They are devoid of cell membrane and cell wall. Viruses are devoid of cellular organelles like ribosomes, mitochondria, etc.

3. They can be crystallized.

24. Assertion (A): Viroid are protein free pathogenic RNA of virus.

Reasoning(R): Viroid is found in plant cells causes’ disease in plants.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The protein free pathogenic RNA of virus is Viroid. They are found in plant cells and cause disease in plants.

25. Which of these is not a plant virus?

a) Tobacco mosaic virus

b) Potato virus

c) Retro virus

d) Cauliflower mosaic virus

Explanation

Viruses are categorized as Plant virus: Virus that infects plants. E.g. Tobacco, mosaic virus, Cauliflower mosaic virus, Potato virus.

26. Which of these is an Animal virus?

a) Adenovirus

b) Retrovirus

c) Polio virus

d) All the above

Explanation

Animal virus: Virus that infect animals. e.g. Adenovirus, Retrovirus(HIV), Influenza virus, Polio virus.

27. What is the name of virus that infects bacterial cells?

a) Bacteriophages

b) Animal Virus

c) Retro virus

d) Adneo virus

Explanation

Bacteriophages: Virus that infect bacterial cells. e.g. T4 bacteriophage

28. Choose the correct statements regarding fungus.

i) Fungi lacks in chlorophyll.

ii) Fungi living on living hosts are called parasites.

iii) Fungi living on dead organic matter are called saprophytes.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Fungi lack chlorophyll hence depends on living or dead host for their nutritional needs. Fungi living on living hosts are called parasites and those living on dead organic matter are called saprophytes.

29. What is the term used for body of the fungus?

a) Flagella

b) Thallus

c) Nuclei

d) Filaments

Explanation

The body of the fungus is called Thallus.

30. Which is not a feature of single celled yeast?

a) Ranges from 1 to 5 μm.

b) Spherical shape

c) Flagella’s are present

d) Non-motile

Explanation

Single celled yeast ranges from 1 to 5 μm in width. They are spherical in shape. Flagella are absent and hence they are non-motile.

31. Which of these makes the thallus in a multicellular fungus?

a) Mycelium

b) Flagella

c) Cytoplast

d) Hypha

Explanation

In the case of multicellular forms, thallus is called mycelium. Mycelium is a complex of several thin filaments called hyphae (singular: Hypha).

32. Which of this statement is not true regarding hypha?

a) Range of hypha is 5 to 10μm.

b) Structure of hypha is tube.

c) Rod and spherical structure.

d) Protoplasm is present.

Explanation

Each hypha is 5 to 10 μm wide. They are tube like structures filled with protoplasm and cellular organelles.

33. Choose the correct statements regarding hypha.

i) The cell wall is made up of cellulose or chitin.

ii) Food materials are stored in the form of glycogen or oil globules.

iii) The cytoplasm contains nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi body, ribosomes.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Hypha Cell wall is made up of cellulose or chitin. Cytoplasm contains small vacuoles filled with cell sap, nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi body, ribosomes, and endoplasmic reticulum. Food material is stored in the form of glycogen or oil globules.

34. Match

A. Asexual reproduction i) Antheridium

B. Sexual reproduction ii) Fragmentation

C. Vegetative reproduction iii) Spore formation

a) ii, i, iii

b) iii, i, ii

c) ii, iii, i

d) i, iii, ii

Explanation

Fungus reproduce vegetatively (binary fission, budding and fragmentation), asexually (spore formation- conidia) and sexually (male and female gametangium are called antheridium and oogonium).

35. Who coined the term prion in the year 1982?

a) B. Prusiner

b) Louis Pasteur

c) Ferdinand Cohn

d) Robert Koch

Explanation

The term ‘prion’ was coined by Stanley B. Prusiner in 1982.

36. Which of this statement is true regarding prions?

a) Prions contain only proteins.

b) Prions don’t have nucleic acid.

c) Prions are bigger than virus.

d) Prions are non-infectious.

Explanation

Prions are viral particles which contain only proteins. They do not contain nucleic acid. They are infectious and smaller than viruses.

37. In which of these prions are found?

a) Intestines

b) Neurons

c) Vein

d) Fatty acids

Explanation

Prions are found in neurons and are rod shaped. Prions induce changes in normal proteins. This results in the degeneration of nervous tissue.

38. Which of these elements are recycled by microbes?

a) Nitrogen

b) Carbon

c) Sulphur

d) All the above

Explanation

Microbes play a vital role in the cycling of elements like carbon, nitrogen, oxygen, sulphur and phosphorus. These are called biological scavengers.

39. Which of this micro-organism is not a main source of bio-fertilizers?

a) Bacteria

b) Cyanobacteria

c) Virus

d) Fungi

Explanation

Microbes as bio-fertilizers: Micro-organisms which enrich the soil with nutrients are called as bio-fertilizers. Microbes play an important role in agriculture as bio control agents and bio-fertilizers. Bacteria, cyanobacteria and fungi are the main sources of bio-fertilizers.

40. Which of this microorganism convert the atmospheric nitrogen?

a) Azotobacter

b) Rhizobium

c) Nitrosomonas Nostoc

d) All the above

Explanation

Nitrogen is one of the main sources of plant nutrients. Atmospheric nitrogen has to be converted to available form of nitrogen. This is done by microbes either in free living conditions or by having symbiotic relationship with the plants. e.g. Azotobacter, Nitrosomonas Nostoc (free living), symbiotic microbes like Rhizobium, Frankia.

41. Which of these bacteria produces cry protein?

a) Acinetobacter baumannii

b) Bacillus thuringiensis

c) Haemophilus ducreyi

d) Lactobacillus casei

Explanation

Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is a species of bacteria that produces a protein called as ‘cry’ protein. This protein is toxic to the insect larva and kills them.

42. Which of this bacterium is used for fermenting grape fruits?

a) Mycobacterium lepraemurium

b) Leptospira noguchii

c) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

d) Klebsiella pneumoniae

Explanation

Production of fermented beverages: Beverages like wine are produced by fermentation of grape fruits by Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

43. Which of these are fermented by Bacillus megaterium?

a) Coffee beans

b) Tea leaves

c) Tobacco leaves

d) All the above

Explanation

Beans of coffee and cocoa, leaves of tea and tobacco are fermented by the bacteria Bacillus megaterium. This gives the special aroma.

44. Which of this bacterium is involved in curd preparation?

a) Lactobacillus

b) Mycoplasma hominis

c) Streptococcus ferus

d) Yersinia pestis

Explanation

Production of curd: Lactobacillus sp. Converts milk to curd

45. Which of this acid is not produced y the fungus Aspergillus niger?

a) Oxalic acid

b) Acetic acid

c) Malic acid

d) Citric acid

Explanation

Production of organic acids, enzymes and vitamins: Oxalic acid, acetic acid and citric acid are produced by fungus Aspergillus niger.

46. Which of this enzyme is not derived from microbes?

a) Lipase

b) Oxytocin

c) Oxidase

d) Proteases

Explanation

Enzymes like lipases, invertase, proteases, and glucose oxidase are derived from microbes.

47. Which of this vitamin is present in yeasts?

a) Vitamin-B complex

b) Vitamin C

c) Vitamin A

d) Vitamin D

Explanation

Yeasts are rich source of vitamin-B complex.

48. Which of the following statement is true regarding antibiotics?

a) Low concentration is inhibitory.

b) Synthesized materials from micro-organisms.

c) Metabolic products of microorganisms.

d) Used as medicine.

Explanation

Antibiotics: These are metabolic products of microorganisms which in very low concentration are inhibitory or detrimental to other microbes.

49. Which of this antibiotic was produced by Alexander Fleming?

a) Penicillin

b) Cefalexin

c) Tobramycin

d) Gentamicin

Explanation

In 1929, Alexander Fleming produced the first antibiotic penicillin.

50. Which of the human disease are controlled by antibiotics?

a) Cholera

b) Pneumonia

c) Typhoid

d) All the above

Explanation

In human beings antibiotics are used to control infectious diseases like cholera, diphtheria, pneumonia, typhoid, etc.

51. Match

A. Bacillus subtilis i) Streptomycin

B. Penicillium notatum ii) Cephalosporin

C. Streptomyces erythreus iii) Bacitracin

D. Cephalosporium acremonium iv) Penicillin

a) ii, i, iv, iii

b) iii, iv, i, ii

c) iv, iii, i, ii

d) ii, i, iv, iii

Explanation

52. What is the purpose of using the vaccines?

a) To kill or attenuate the microbes.

b) To activate the microbes against the antibodies of human.

c) Stimulate the body to produce antibodies.

d) Both a and c

Explanation

Vaccines: These are prepared by killing or making the microbes inactive (attenuated). These inactive microbes are unable to cause disease, but stimulate the body to produce antibodies against the antigen in the microbes.

53. Identify the incorrect match.

A. Live Attenuated i) MMR

B. Toxoid ii) Tetanus toxoid

C. Killed antigens iii) Inactivated polio virus

D. Purified antigens iv) Hepatitis B vaccine

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

54. Which of this type of vaccine is used to cure diphtheria?

a) Activated antigen

b) Purified antigen

c) Inactivated antigen

d) Live attenuated antigen

Explanation

55. Which is not a category for a disease?

a) Extent of occurrence

b) Types of pathogens

c) Environmental pollution

d) Transmitting agent

Explanation

Disease can be categorized based on: The extent of occurrence (endemic, epidemic, pandemic or sporadic).Whether infectious or non-infectious. Types of pathogen – whether caused by bacterial, viral, fungal or protozoan infections. Transmitting agent – whether air borne, water borne or vector borne.

56. Match

A. April 7 i) World Malaria day

B. December 1 ii) World Anti-tuberculosis day

C. March 24 iii) World Health day

D. April 25 iv) World AIDS day

a) ii, iv, i, iii

b) iv, i, ii, iii

c) iii, iv, ii, i

d) iii, i, ii, iv

Explanation

World Health Day – 7th April

World Malaria Day – 25th April

World AIDS Day – 1st December

World Anti -Tuberculosis Day – 24th March

57. What is the significance of an endemic disease?

a) Distributed on a global scale.

b) Found in a certain geographical area.

c) Affects a large number of people.

d) Occurs occasionally.

Explanation

Endemic: Disease which is found in a certain geographical area affecting a fewer number ofpeople (low incidence). E.g. Occurrence of goiter in Sub-Himalayan regions.

58. Which of these statements is not true regarding the epidemic disease?

a) Spreads in a particular geographical region.

b) Affects a large number of people.

c) Spreads over different time period.

d) Influenza is an example of the epidemic disease.

Explanation

Epidemic: Disease which breaks out and affects large number of people in a particular geographical region and spreads at the same time. e.g. Influenza

59. Which of this disease is widely distributed on a global scale?

a) Epidemic

b) Endemic

c) Pandemic

d) Sporadic

Explanation

Pandemic: Disease which is widely distributed on a global scale. e.g. Acquired Immuno deficiency Syndrome (AIDS).

60. Which of these are known as sporadic disease?

a) AIDS

b) Cholera

c) Influenza

d) Goiter

Explanation

Sporadic: Disease which occur occasionally. e.g. Malaria and Cholera.

61. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Infectious diseases are also communicable diseases.

ii) Pathogenic organisms are the cause for infectious diseases.

iii) Goiter is an infectious disease.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Infectious diseases are communicable diseases. They are caused by external factors like pathogenic organisms (bacteria, virus, vectors, parasites) invading the body and causing diseases. e.g. Influenza, Tuberculosis, Chickenpox, Cholera, Pneumonia, Malaria, etc

62. Which of these causes non-infectious diseases?

a) Genetic cause

b) Hormonal imbalance

c) Defective immune system

d) All the above

Explanation

Non-infectious diseases are non-communicable diseases. They are caused by internal factors like malfunctioning of organs, genetic causes, hormonal imbalance and immune system defect. e.g. Diabetes, Coronary heart diseases, Obesity, Cancer, Goiter, etc

63. Assertion (A): Infectious pathogens enter the human body by contaminated environmental conditions.

Reasoning(R): The infectious pathogens may be organ specific or tissue specific.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The disease causing microbes enter the body through different means. An infection develops when these pathogens enter the human body through contaminated air, water, food, soil, physical contact, sexual contact and through infected animals. They may be organ specific or tissue specific within our body where microbes reside.

64. In which of this environment the pathogens can multiply without causing diseases?

a) Reservoir

b) Incubation place

c) Source of infection

d) All the above

Explanation

Reservoir of infection refers to the specific environment in which the pathogens can thrive well and multiply without causing diseases. eg. Water, soil and animal population

65. Assertion (A): The time interval between infection and the first appearance of disease is Incubation period.

Reasoning(R): Incubation period can exist for only few hours.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Incubation period: The interval between infections and first appearance of the diseases is called incubation period. It may vary from few hours to several days.

66. Which of the following are the effects of an infection in a living being?

a) Entry of infectious agent

b) Development of the infectious agent

c) Multiplication of an infectious agent

d) All the above

Explanation

Infection is the entry, development or multiplication of an infectious agent in the human body or animals.

67. In how many ways a pathogen can cause diseases?

a) 4

b) 2

c) 3

d) 5

Explanation

Pathogens cause disease in two ways. They are tissue damage and toxin secretion.

68. Assertion (A): Many pathogens destroy the human tissue or organs.

Reasoning(R): The bacterium of pulmonary tuberculosis damages the cells of the lungs.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Tissue Damage: Many pathogens destroy the tissues or organs of the body causing morphological and functional damage. For example, bacterium of pulmonary tuberculosis damages the cells of the lungs, and virus causing hepatitis destroys liver tissue.

69. What is the poisonous substance secreted by many pathogens?

a) Antibodies

b) Antigens

c) Toxins

d) None of the above

Explanation

Toxin Secretion: Many pathogens secrete poisonous substances called toxins which cause tissue damage leading to diseases.

70. Who is the known as the father of bacteriology?

a) Gregor Mendel

b) Robert Koch

c) Alexander Fleming

d) Edward Jenner

Explanation

Robert Koch (Father of Bacteriology) is the first German physician to study how pathogens cause diseases.

71. Which of this cause anthrax in sheep?

a) Treponema pallidum

b) Retrovirus

c) Influenza Virus

d) Bacillus anthracis

Explanation

In 1876 Robert Koch showed that the disease called anthrax of sheep was due to Bacillus anthracis which exist in pastures in the form of protective spores.

72. Which of these is the reason for the airborne infections in human beings?

a) Toxic gas

b) Atmospheric air

c) Carbon monoxide

d) All the above

Explanation

Human beings inhale atmospheric air. Due to continuous inhalation of contaminated air the chances for airborne microorganisms to find a host and cause infection are higher.

73. Which of these is the transmitting agent for the airborne diseases?

a) Dust

b) Cough or sneeze

c) Spores

d) All the above

Explanation

Most of the respiratory tract infections are acquired by inhaling air containing the pathogen that are transmitted through droplets caused by cough or sneeze, dust and spores.

74. Which of this organism is the cause for common cold in human?

a) Myxovirus

b) Rubeola virus

c) Rhino virus

d) Varicella zoster virus

75. Match

A. Mumps i) Rubeola virus

B. Measles ii) Myxovirus

C. Influenza iii) Varicella zoster virus

D. Chicken pox iv) Myxovirus parotidis

a) iv, i, ii, iii

b) ii, i, iii, iv

c) iv, iii, i, ii

d) iii, iv, i, ii

Explanation

76. Which of this symptom is not related to Measles?

a) Pneumonia

b) Eruption of small red spots

c) Air choking

d) Cough and sneezing

Explanation

77. Identify the Incorrect match.

A. Whooping Cough i) Bordetalla pertussis

B. Tuberculosis ii) Varicella zoster virus

C. Diphtheria iii) Cornyebacterium diphtheria

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Airborne diseases caused by bacteria:

78. Which is not a water borne disease?

a) Hepatitis

b) Poliomyelitis

c) Mumps

d) Diarrhea

Explanation

Microbes present in the contaminated water cause various infectious diseases. Some of the water borne diseases is cholera, typhoid infectious hepatitis, poliomyelitis, diarrhea, etc

79. Which of this disease affects the liver of human being?

a) Hepatitis A

b) Poliomyelitis

c) Diarrhoea

d) Measles

80. Which of this disease is prevented by Salk’s vaccine or OPV?

a) Infectious Hepatitis

b) Cholera

c) Poliomyelitis

d) Typhoid

81. State the symptoms of Poliomyelitis disease in human?

a) Nausea

b) Paralysis of limbs

c) Jaundice

d) Cough

Explanation

Waterborne diseases caused by virus:

82. Which of this organism causes cholera?

a) Vibrio cholerae

b) Myxovirus parotidis

c) Varicella zoster virus

d) Rota virus

83. Which of these are the preventive and control measures for typhoid?

a) Antibiotic treatments

b) Basic sanitation improvement

c) Preventing contamination of food

d) All the above

Explanation

Waterborne diseases caused by bacteria

84. Assertion (A): Vectors are the intermediate carrier of the pathogens.

Reasoning (R): Diseases transmitted by vectors are called vector borne diseases.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Vector is an agent that acts as an intermediate carrier of the pathogen. Many insects and animals act as vectors. Diseases transmitted by vectors are called vector borne diseases. These vectors can transfer infecting agents from an infected person to another healthy person.

85. Which is not an insect vector borne disease?

a) Filaria

b) Dengue

c) Swine flu

d) Chikungunya

Explanation

Some of the insect vector borne diseases is Malaria, Filaria, Chikungunya, Dengue, and the diseases which are transmitted through animals are Bird flu and Swine flu.

86. Which of these causes malaria?

a) Plasmodium Falciparum

b) Vibrio cholerae

c) Salmonella typhi

d) Bordetalla pertussis

Explanation

Malaria continues to be one of the major health problems of developing countries. Malaria is caused by protozoan parasite Plasmodium. Malaria caused by Plasmodium falciparum is malignant and fatal. Approximately 300 million people around the world get infected with Malaria every year.

87. Which of these is not a plasmodium species?

a) P.vivax

b) P.ovale

c) P. vibrio

d) P.malariae

Explanation

Four species of Plasmodium namely, P.vivax, P.malariae, P.falciparum and P.ovale cause malaria.

88. Which of the following is not a symptom of malaria?

a) Blood loss

b) Headache

c) Muscular pain

d) Shivering

Explanation

A person affected by malaria will show symptoms of headache, nausea, muscular pain, chillness and shivering, followed by rapid rise in temperature. Fever subsides with profuse sweating.

89. What is the effect of quinine drug in treating malaria?

a) Kill the stages of parasite

b) Generates antibodies

c) Improves immunity

d) None of the above

Explanation

Use of Quinine drugs kills the stages of malaria parasite.

90. Who identified the developing stages of malarial parasite?

a) Gregor Mendel

b) Robert Koch

c) Sir Ronald Ross

d) Louis Pasteur

Explanation

Sir Ronald Ross, an Indian born British doctor is famous for his work concerning malaria. He worked in the Indian Medical Service for 25years. He identified the developing stages of malarial parasite in the gastrointestinal tract of mosquito and proved that malaria was transmitted by mosquito.

91. Sir Ronald Ross was awarded Nobel Prize for his work on ____ of malaria in the year ____.

a) Medicines, 1927

b) Antibodies, 1923

c) Transmission, 1902

d) Sources, 1967

Explanation

In 1902 Ronald Ross received the Nobel Prize for Physiology or Medicine for his work on the transmission of malaria.

92. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Chikungunya is caused by bacteria.

ii) Aedes aegypti mosquito transmits this disease in humans.

iii) It causes severe joint pain, headache and fever.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Chikungunya is caused by virus. It is transmitted in humans by the bite of infected Aedes aegypti mosquito during the day time. It causes severe and persistent joint pain, body rashes, headache and fever. Joint pains can last for a very long time.

93. Which of this statement is true regarding Chikungunya fever?

a) The Incubation period of the causing virus is 20-30 days.

b) Persistent joint pain and walking difficulty are the symptoms of this disease.

c) Chillness and feverless are also associated with this disease.

d) Aspirin is given as pain reliever and to reduce fever.

Explanation

Incubation period of the virus is usually 2-12 days. Chillness, high fever, vomiting, nausea, headache, persistent joint pain and difficulty in walking are the common symptoms associated with this disease. The joints get inflamed and the person finds it difficult to walk. Paracetamol is given to relieve pain and reduce fever.

94. What is the other name for dengue?

a) Bone fever

b) Break bone fever

c) Muscle fever

d) Joint fever

Explanation

Dengue is known as break bone fever. The name break bone fever was given due to the cause of intense joint and muscle pain.

95. Which of this transmits the dengue fever?

a) Salmonella typhi

b) Bordetalla pertussis

c) Culex mosquito

d) Aedes aegypti mosquito

Explanation

Dengue fever is caused by virus. It is transmitted by Aedes aegypti mosquito.

96. Choose the correct statements regarding the virus dengue fever.

i) Difficulty in breathing and minute spots on the skin bleeding is the symptoms of dengue fever.

ii) The incubation period of the dengue fever is usually 5-6 days.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Incubation period of the dengue fever virus is usually 5-6 days. Onset of high fever, severe headache, muscle and joint pain, rashes, hemorrhage, fall in blood platelet count are the symptoms associated with this disease. Vomiting and abdominal pain, difficulty in breathing, minute spots on the skin signifying bleeding within the skin are also associated with dengue fever. Paracetamol is given to reduce fever and body ache. Complete rest and increased intake of fluid is essential.

97. What is given to increase the blood platelet count of dengue patients?

a) Tender papaya leaves

b) Paracetamol

c) Neem leaves

d) Aspirin

Explanation

An extraction of tender leaves of papaya and herbal drink Nilavembu Kudineer is given to dengue patients. It is known to increase the blood platelet count.

98. Which of this cause Filariasis?

a) Cornyebacterium

b) Bordetalla pertussis

c) Wuchereria bancrofti

d) Vibrio cholerae

Explanation

Filariasis is a major health problem in India. This disease is caused by nematode worm Wuchereria bancrofti. The adult worms are usually found in the lymphatic system of man. It is transmitted by the bite of infected Culex mosquito.

99. Which of this human system is affected by filariasis?

a) Digestive system

b) Lymphatic system

c) Nervous system

d) Respiratory system

Explanation

Filariasis : Incubation period of filarial worm is 8-16 months and the symptoms include acute infection, fever and inflammation in lymph glands. The adult worms are usually found in the lymphatic system of man.

100. What are the chronic effects of the filariasis?

a) Cholera

b) Abdominal pain

c) Jaundice

d) Elephantiasis

Explanation

In chronic infection the main feature of filariasis is elephantiasis which affects the legs, scrotum and the arms.

101. What are the techniques used to control mosquito bites and causing diseases?

a) Control of mosquito larva by spraying oil.

b) Eliminating mosquito breeding places.

c) Using insecticides for mosquitoes.

d) All the above

Explanation

Prevention of mosquito bites by using mosquito nets, mosquito screens, mosquito repellents and ointments.

• Elimination of breeding places by providing adequate sanitation, underground waste water disposable system and drainage of stagnant water.

• Collection of water in any uncovered container such as water tank, pots, flower pots, discarded tyres should be avoided.

• Control of mosquito larvae by spraying oil on stagnated water bodies.

• Adult mosquitoes can be killed by spraying insecticides.

• Application of citronella oil or eucalyptus oil on the exposed skin

102. Which of this statement is not true regarding Swine flu?

a) Originated from pigs.

b) Caused by bacterium.

c) Spreads through air.

d) Affects human respiratory system.

Explanation

Swine Flu first originated from pigs. It is caused by virus that affects pigs and has started infecting humans. The virus spreads through air. It affects the respiratory system.

103. Which of this virus cause the swine flu?

a) Influenza virus H1N1

b) Rubeola virus

c) Rota virus

d) Myxo virus

Explanation

Influenza virus H1N1 has been identified as the cause of this disease. It is transmitted from person to person by inhalation or ingestion of droplets containing virus from people sneezing or coughing. Fever, cough, nasal secretion, fatigue, headache, sore throat, rashes in the body, body ache or pain, chills, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea, and shortness of breath are the symptoms associated with the disease.

104. What are the preventive measures for swine flu?

a) Nasal spray vaccine

b) Hygienic lifestyle

c) Preventing dehydration

d) All the above

Explanation

Prevention and Control for Swine flu:

• Administration of nasal spray vaccine.

• Avoiding close contact with a person suffering from flu.

• Intake of water and fruit juices will help prevent dehydration.

• Plenty of rest will help the body to fight infection.

• Always wash hands and practice good hygiene.

105. In which year the swine flu was declared as pandemic by WHO?

a) 2009

b) 2013

c) 2004

d) 2001

Explanation

Swine flu first surfaced in April 2009 and affected millions of people. Then in June 2009 it was declared a pandemic by the World Health Organization (WHO). In 2015, India reportedly had over 31,000 people infected and 1,900 resulting deaths.

106. Avian influenza is a contagious _____ disease caused by _____.

a) Sheep, Bacteria

b) Pig, Virus

c) Bird, Virus

d) Rat, Virus

Explanation

Avian influenza is a contagious bird disease caused by viruses. Birds that can carry and spread avian influenza virus include poultry (chickens, turkeys or ducks), wild birds and pet birds.

107. Which of this statement is not true regarding the Avian influenza?

a) It is caused by influenza virus H5N1.

b) The Incubation period of the virus is 10-20 days.

c) Birds can carry and spread this disease.

d) People having close contact with infected birds can be affected by this disease.

Explanation

Avian influenza caused by Influenza Virus H5N1. The incubation period of the virus is 2-7 days. People who have close contact with infected birds or surfaces that have been contaminated by the bird’s secretion from mouth, eyes, mucus, nasal secretion or droppings (bird faeces) transmit this disease

108. What are the symptoms for the Avian Influenza disease?

a) Muscle and body aches

b) Fever and Headache

c) Breathing difficulty

d) All the above

Explanation

Avian Influenza symptoms: Fever, cough, sore throat, running nose, muscle and body aches, fatigue, headache, redness of eyes (conjunctivitis) and difficulty in breathing are the symptoms of this disease.

109. In which country H5N1 was identified first?

a) United States of America

b) Hong Kong

c) South Africa

d) Canada

Explanation

The avian influenza virus A (H5N1) emerged in 1996. It was first identified in Southern China and Hong Kong. H5N1 was first discovered in humans in 1997 by World Health Organization. First outbreak was in December 2003.

110. Which are identified as sexually transmitted diseases?

a) Genital Herpes

b) Gonorrhea

c) Syphilis

d) All the above

Explanation

Some pathogens are transmitted by sexual contact from one partner to another and not by casual physical contact. A few sexually transmitted diseases are AIDS, Gonorrhea, Genital warts, Genital herpes and Syphilis.

111. Which of this human part is affected by retro virus of AIDS?

a) Heart

b) Liver

c) White blood cells

d) Lungs

Explanation

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is caused by retrovirus (RNA virus) known as Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV). The virus attacks the white blood cells or lymphocytes and weakens the body’s immunity or self-defense mechanism.

112. By which of these AIDS is not transmitted in human?

a) Blood contact

b) Direct Touch

c) Surgical equipment’s

d) Foetal transmission

Explanation

AIDS is transmitted through sexual contact (from infected person to a healthy person), blood contact (transfusion of unscreened blood), by surgical equipment’s (infected needles and syringes), maternal – foetal transmission (from infected mother to the foetus).

113. What are the important symptoms of AIDS?

a) Weight loss

b) Chronic diarrhea

c) Prolonged fever

d) All the above

Explanation

Symptoms of AIDS: Weight loss, prolonged fever, sweating at night, chronic diarrhea are some of the important symptoms.

114. What are the preventive and control measures for AIDS?

a) Educating people about AIDS transmission.

b) Protected and safe sexual contact.

c) Screening of blood before blood transfusion.

d) All the above

Explanation

Prevention and Control for AIDS:

• Disposable syringes and needles should be used.

• Protected and safe sexual contact.

• Screening of blood before blood transfusion.

• Avoid sharing shaving blades/razors.

• People should be educated about AIDS transmission.

115. In which year HIV virus was recognized first?

a) 1981

b) 1934

c) 1972

d) 1949

Explanation

HIV was first recognized in Hatai (USA) in 1981. In India the first confirmed evidence of AIDS infection was reported in April 1986 from Tamil Nadu. The AIDS vaccine RV 144 trial was conducted in Thailand in 2003 and reports were presented in 2011.

116. Choose the correct statements regarding Hepatitis-B.

i) HBV virus causes this disease.

ii) This virus damages the human liver cells.

iii) It is also transferred by infected person secretions.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Hepatitis -B or Serum Hepatitis: It occurs due to infection of hepatitis-B virus (HBV). The virus damages the liver cells causing acute inflammation and cirrhosis of liver. It is transferred from infected mother to their babies or by sexual contact. It is also transmitted by contact with infected person’s secretions such as saliva, sweat, tears, breast milk and blood.

117. Which of these symptoms is not associated with Hepatitis-B?

a) Loss of appetite and fever.

b) Yellow skin and eyes.

c) Respiratory problem.

d) Skin itching and joint pains.

Explanation

Hepatitis -B or Serum Hepatitis: Symptoms observed are fever, loss of appetite, nausea vomiting, yellowness of eyes and skin, light colored stools, itching of skin, headache and joint pain.

118. Which of this disease is not caused by a virus?

a) AIDS

b) Syphilis

c) Genital Herpes

d) Genital Warts

119. Match.

A. Gonorrhoea i) Herpes Simplex Virus

B. Genital Herpes ii) Human Papilloma virus

C. Syphilis iii) Neisseria gonorrhoea

D. Genital Warts iv) Treponema pallidum

a) iii, i, iv, ii

b) ii, i, iv, iii

c) iii, i, iv, ii

d) iv, i, iii, ii

Explanation

Sexually transmitted diseases

120. What is meant by the process of immunization?

a) Increasing the white blood cells.

b) Creating new antibiotics.

c) Developing resistance to infections by antigens or antibodies.

d) All the above

Explanation

Immunization is a process of developing resistance to infections by administration of antigens or antibodies. Inoculation of vaccines into the body to prevent diseases is called as vaccination.

121. What is the most effective way to control the spread of infection?

a) Immunization

b) New vaccines

c) Decrease the population

d) Lifestyle improvement

Explanation

One effective way of controlling the spread of infection is to strengthen the host defenses. This is accomplished by immunization, which is one of the cost effective weapon of modern medicine. When a large proportion of a community is immunized against a disease, the rest of the people in the community are benefited because the disease does not spread.

122. How many type of vaccines are classified?

a) 5

b) 3

c) 4

d) 2

Explanation

Vaccines are preparation of living or killed microorganisms or their products used for prevention or treatment of diseases. Vaccines are of two types: Live vaccines and Killed vaccines

123. Which of this statement is true regarding the live vaccines?

a) Prepared for living organisms.

b) Pathogen is weakened.

c) MMS is a live vaccine.

d) Also termed as Inactive vaccine.

Explanation

Live Vaccines: They are prepared from living organisms. The pathogen is weakened and administered. e.g. BCG vaccine, oral polio vaccine.

124. Who introduced the process of vaccination?

a) Edward Jenner

b) Alexander Fleming

c) Robert Koch

d) Louis Pasteur

Explanation

The process of vaccination was introduced by Edward Jenner. According to the World Health Organization (WHO), Jennerian vaccination has eliminated small pox totally from the human population.

125. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Killed vaccines.

i) Bacteria or Virus are killed by heat and chemicals.

ii) Killed vaccines require only the primary dose.

iii) Typhoid and Cholera vaccines are examples of killed vaccines.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Killed Vaccines: Micro-organisms (bacteria or virus) killed by heat or chemicals are called killed or inactivated vaccines. They require a primary dose followed by a subsequent booster dose. e.g. Typhoid vaccine, cholera vaccine, pertussis vaccine.

126. Assertion (A): Louis Pasteur coined the term vaccine.

Reasoning(R): Louis Pasteur developed vaccine for chicken pox, cholera and anthrax.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Louis Pasteur is an 18th century French chemist and microbiologist. He coined the term vaccine. Pasteur developed vaccine against chicken pox, cholera, anthrax, etc.

127. When the World Health Organization issued common immunity schedule?

a) 1954

b) 1934

c) 1970

d) 1969

Explanation

The World Health Organization in the year 1970 has given a schedule of immunization for children. This schedule is carried out in almost all countries.

128. Who contributed in the preparing the BCG vaccine?

a) Calmette and Guerin

b) Oswald and James Black

c) Rachel Carson and Linda Buck

d) Elizabeth and Erwin

Explanation

BCG (Bacillus Calmette Guerin): This was prepared by two French workers Calmette and Guerin (1908-1921). The bacilli are weakened and used for immunization against tuberculosis.

129. Which of this disease is not cured by DPT vaccine?

a) Diphtheria

b) Small Pox

c) Pertussis

d) Tetanus

Explanation

DPT (Triple Vaccine): It is a combined vaccine for protection against Diphtheria, Pertussis (whooping cough) and Tetanus.

130. Which of this infection is cured by MMR vaccine?

a) Virus

b) Bacteria

c) Fungus

d) All the above

Explanation

MMR: Mumps, Measles, Rubella vaccine gives protection against viral infections.

131. Assertion (A): DT is a dual antigen or combined antigen.

Reasoning(R): Diphtheria and Tetanus is cured by DT vaccine.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

DT: It is a dual antigen or combined antigen. It gives protection from Diphtheria and Tetanus.

132. Which of this disease is cured by TT and TAB vaccine?

a) Measles

b) AIDS

c) Typhoid

d) Hepatitis-B

Explanation

TT (Tetanus Toxoid): Toxin of Tetanus bacteria

TAB: Combined vaccine for typhoid, paratyphi A and paratyphi B.

133. Which of this vaccine is given to the new born child?

a) BCG

b) MMR

c) TT

d) TAB

134. In which week the first dosage of DPT and polio vaccine is given to the child?

a) 14^th week

b) 10^th week

c) 9^th week

d) 6^th week

135. Which of this vaccine must be given to 10 year old child?

a) TT and TAB

b) MMR

c) BCG

d) Measles

Explanation

9th Science Lesson 23 Questions in English

23] Economic Biology

1. What is the animal based farming methodologies?

a) Aquaculture

b) Vermiculture

c) Apiculture

d) All the above

Explanation

In recent scenario more emphasis is given to the progress of economic aspects of zoology like aquaculture (culture of fish, prawn, crabs, pearl and edible oysters), Vermiculture, apiculture and dairy farming which are gaining more importance as animal-based farming due to their economic and commercial values.

2. Which of this cultivation is not dealt with Horticulture?

a) Fruits

b) Spices

c) Vegetables

d) Ornamental plants

Explanation

Horticulture is a branch of agriculture that deals with cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and ornamental plants.

3. What is the origin of the word horticulture?

a) Latin

b) Greek

c) Persian

d) Arabian

Explanation

The word horticulture is derived from the latin words ‘hortus’ meaning garden and ‘colere’ meaning to cultivate.

4. Assertion (A): Horticulture is a scientific methodology to improve the quality and growth of plants.

Reasoning(R): Horticulture provides resistance to plants against diseases, insects and stress.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Horticulture is both a science and an art of growing plants with improved growth, quality, yield, and with resistance to diseases, insects, stress etc.

5. Which is not a main class of horticulture?

a) Floriculture

b) Vermiculture

c) Olericulture

d) Pomology

Explanation

There are four main classes of horticulture: (i) Pomology (fruit farming),(ii) Olericulture (vegetable farming), (iii)Floriculture (flower farming), (iv) Landscape gardening.

6. What is the meaning of the word pomum in Latin?

a) Study

b) Flower

c) Fruit

d) Vegetables

Explanation

The term pomology is derived from the Latin word ‘pomum’ means fruit and ‘logy’ means study.

7. Which of these are the main factors of pomology?

a) Cultivation techniques

b) Regulating the production periods.

c) Enhancing the fruit quality

d) All the above

Explanation

Pomology deals with development, enhancement of fruit quality, cultivation techniques, regulation of production periods and reduction of production cost of fruits.

8. What is the science of growing vegetables?

a) Olericulture

b) Vermiculture

c) Apiculture

d) All the above

Explanation

Olericulture is the science of growing vegetables.

9. How many type of vegetable farming is classified?

a) 5

b) 3

c) 2

d) 4

Explanation

Vegetable farming can be classified into: i) Kitchen or Nutrition gardening ii) Commercial gardening iii) Vegetable forcing.

10. State some of the vegetables grown in kitchen gardening?

a) Tomato

b) Spinach

c) Brinjal

d) All the above

Explanation

Kitchen gardening is growing of vegetables in small scale at household. e.g. Beans, Cabbage, Lady’s finger, Tomato, Brinjal, Carrot, Spinach etc.

11. Which of these statements is true regarding the Uzhavan mobile application?

i) The application is used for the government of Tamil Nadu to gather information on farmers.

ii) This application also provides information on available stock of seeds and fertilizers in local government and private stores.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Government of Tamil Nadu has launched Uzhavan (farmer) mobile application. It can be used by farmers to gather information on farm subsidies, farm equipment’s, crop insurance and weather conditions. It also provides information on available stock of seeds and fertilizers in local government and private stores.

12. Which of this gardening method involves large scale production of vegetables?

a) Commercial Gardening

b) Vegetable Forcing

c) Kitchen Gardening

d) All the above

Explanation

Commercial gardening: It is the production of vegetables in large scale to be sold in markets.

13. In which of these places vegetable forcing is used?

a) Green Houses

b) Cold Farms

c) Artificial growing conditions

d) All the above

Explanation

Vegetable forcing: It is the method of growing vegetables in buildings, green houses, cold farms or under other artificial growing conditions. It is the most intensive type of vegetable growing. e.g. Cabbage, Tomato, Brinjal etc.

14. Choose the Incorrect statements regarding Greenhouse gardening.

i) A framed structure gardening covered with transparent material.

ii) The crops are grown under partially or fully controlled environmental conditions.

iii) This method is the least growing sector in the agriculture worldwide.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Green House or Poly House: It is a framed structure covered with transparent material to grow crops under partially or fully controlled environmental conditions to get optimum growth and productivity. It is the fastest growing sector in the agriculture worldwide.

15. Which of the following is not an advantage of greenhouse gardening?

a) Less water requirement.

b) Huge amount of pesticide is needed.

c) Protecting plants from uncertain weather conditions.

d) Disease free plants.

Explanation

Advantages of Greenhouse

1. Disease-free plants can be produced continuously.

2. Water requirement of crops is very less.

3. Yield is very high compared to outdoor cultivation.

4. Limited pesticide is needed.

5. It protects plants from uncertain weather.

16. Assertion (A): Floriculture is the art of cultivating flowering and ornamental plants.

Reasoning(R): Traditional flowers, Beautification and value added products are included in floriculture.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Floriculture is the art of cultivation of flowering and ornamental plants in garden for beauty or floristry. It is concerned with growing traditional flowers, cut flowers, bedding plants, foliage potted plants, arboriculture trees, turf grass for beautification and value added products like essential oils, pharmaceutical and nutraceutical compounds.

17. Which of the following is not grown under the floriculture technique?

a) Geranium

b) Cabbage

c) Busy Lizzies

d) Petunia

Explanation

Some of the plants by floriculture techniques are, Geraniums (Pelargonium), Busy lizzies (Impatiens), Chrysanthemum and Petunia.

18. Which of the following is true regarding the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana?

a) An agricultural crops insurance scheme of Indian government.

b) The State Governments provides financial assistance to farmers.

c) The farmers may apply loan for cultivation.

d) The scheme was launched in the year 2013.

Explanation

Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY): It is an agricultural crops insurance scheme of Indian government. Under this scheme the central government provides insurance cover and financial assistance to farmers. It was launched on 18th February 2016.

19. What are the uses of flowers?

a) Decoration purpose

b) Religious and ceremonial offerings

c) Increase country’s economy

d) All the above

Explanation

Uses of flowers

1. Flowers are used for decoration purpose.

2. They are also used for personal needs and religious and ceremonial offerings.

3. They impart color and beauty to the garden.

4. They increase country’s economy.

20. Assertion (A): Landscape horticulture is the study of designing and constructing landscapes.

Reasoning(R): Landscape designing are used for Business firms, public areas and private houses.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Landscape horticulture is the study of designing and constructing landscapes in homes, business firms and public areas to imitate natural scenery.

21. From which of these organic manures are derived?

a) Plant debris

b) Animal faeces

c) Microbes

d) All the above

Explanation

Organic manures are predominantly derived from plant debris, animal faeces and microbes. They make the soil fertile by adding nutrients like nitrogen.

22. Assertion (A): Animal manure consists of faeces and urine from various domesticated livestock’s.

Reasoning(R): Manures from different animals have the same quality and same applications.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Animal Manure: It consists of faeces and urine from livestocks like cattle, horses, pigs, sheep, chickens, turkeys, rabbits, etc. Manures from different animals have different qualities and different applications.

23. What is the percentage of nitrogen in well decomposed farmyard manure?

a) 0.5%

b) 1.8%

c) 0.2%

d) 10%

Explanation

Farmyard manure: It is a mixture of cattle dung, urine, litter material and other dairy wastes. On an average well decomposed farm yard manure contains 0.5% Nitrogen, 0.2% available phosphate and 0.5% available potash.

24. Which of these are composed in the sheep and goat manure?

a) 5% Nitrogen, 2% phosphate and 5% potash

b) 13% Nitrogen, 10% phosphorus pentoxide and 0.2% potassium oxide.

c) 0.5% Nitrogen, 0.2% phosphate and 0.5% potash.

d) 3% Nitrogen, 1% phosphorus pentoxide and 2% potassium oxide.

Explanation

Sheep and Goat manure: It contains higher nutrients than farm yard manure. It contains 3% Nitrogen, 1% phosphorus pentoxide and 2% potassium oxide.

25. Which of these is a soil conditioner is produced by natural decomposition of organic matters?

a) Compost

b) Worm castings

c) Nutrients

d) Minerals

Explanation

Compost is a soil conditioner as well as a fertilizer that is rich in nutrients. It is produced by natural decomposition of organic matter such as crop residues, animal wastes, and food wastes, industrial and municipal wastes by microorganisms under controlled conditions.

26. What are the advantages of using Green manure?

a) Improves soil structure

b) Increases water holding capacity

c) Decreases soil loss by erosion

d) All the above

Explanation

Green manure is obtained by collection and decomposition of green leaves, twigs of trees, field bunds etc. Green manure improves soil structure, increases water holding capacity and decreases soil loss by erosion.

27. Which of these plants are decomposed to provide the green manure?

a) Crotolaria juncea

b) Sesbania aculeata

c) Sesbania speciosa

d) All the above

Explanation

Green manure also helps in reclamation of alkaline soils and reduces weed proliferation. It is manure obtained from un-decomposed green material derived from leguminous plants e.g. Sunhemp (Crotolaria juncea), Dhaincha (Sesbania aculeata), and Sesbania (Sesbania speciosa).

28. In which part of the plants bio-fertilizers are applied?

a) Plant surfaces

b) Soil

c) Seeds

d) All the above

Explanation

Bio fertilizers are substances that contain living microorganisms which, when applied to seeds, plant surfaces, or soil, colonize the rhizosphere or the interior of the plant and promote growth by increasing the supply or availability of primary nutrients to the host plant.

29. Which of this bacterium colonizes the roots of leguminous plants?

a) Rhizobium

b) Cyanobacteria

c) Streptomycin

d) Bacillus

Explanation

Rhizobium: Rhizobium is a soil bacterium that colonizes the roots of leguminous plants to form root nodules. The bacteria fix atmospheric nitrogen and convert them to ammonia.

30. Which of these crops are inoculated by Azospirillum bacteria?

a) Maize

b) Barley

c) Sorghum

d) All the above

Explanation

Azospirillum: Azospirillum bacteria have the ability to use atmospheric nitrogen and transport this nutrient to the crop plants. It is inoculated on maize, barley, oats and sorghum crops. It increases productivity of cereals by 5 -20%, of millets by 30% and fodder by over 50%.

31. What are the benefits of Azotobacter?

a) Yield increase

b) Nitrogen fixation

c) Anti-fungal and anti-bacterial

d) All the above

Explanation

Azotobacter: Application of Azotobacter bacteria has been found to increase yield of wheat, rice, maize and sorghum. Apart from nitrogen fixation, these organisms are capable of producing antifungal and antibacterial compounds.

32. Which of this uptake is increased by Mycorrhizae fungi in vascular plants?

a) Nitrogen

b) Phosphorus

c) Carbon

d) Oxygen

Explanation

Mycorrhizae: These fungi have symbiotic association with the roots of vascular plants. They increase the uptake of phosphorus. e.g. Citrus, Papaya.

33. Assertion (A): Azolla is a free floating aquatic fern having a cyanobacterial association with anabaena.

Reasoning(R): Azolla uses energy from photosynthesis to fix atmospheric nitrogen.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Azolla: Azolla is a free floating, aquatic fern found on water surfaces having a cyanobacterial symbiotic association with Anabaena. It is a live floating nitrogen factory using energy from photosynthesis to fix atmospheric nitrogen.

34. What is the aim of Biofertiliser scheme of Tamil Nadu government?

a) Natural farming to boost soil fertility.

b) Financial assistance for farmers.

c) Usage of natural agriculture methodologies.

d) All the above

Explanation

Tamil Nadu Government has recently launched ‘Biofertiliser Scheme’. It is aimed at better management of natural farming and helps to boost and maintain soil fertility.

35. Which of these major medicine systems use drugs from plants and animals?

a) Unani

b) Ayurveda

c) Siddha

d) All the above

Explanation

Most medicines are obtained either directly or indirectly from plants. All the major system of medicines such as Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha, Homeopathy (AYUSH) use drugs obtained from plants and animals.

36. Assertion (A): Homeopathy drugs are obtained from plants and animals.

Reasoning(R): The primary metabolites are the drugs obtained from medicinal plants.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Homeopathy use drugs obtained from plants. These drugs from medicinal plants are called secondary metabolites.

37. What are the primary metabolites of a plant?

a) Carbohydrates

b) Amino acids

c) Protoplast

d) All the above

Explanation

Plants produce primary metabolites for their own living e.g. carbohydrates, amino acids etc.,

38. What are the functions of secondary metabolites of a plant?

a) Protection

b) Species interaction

c) Living

d) Both a and b

Explanation

The secondary metabolites for plants are used for protection, competition and species interaction. e.g. alkaloids, terpenoids, flavonoids etc.

39. From which of these the phytochemicals substances are derived?

a) Animal wastes

b) Parts of plants

c) Aquatic animals

d) Natural minerals

Explanation

Phytochemistry is the study of phytochemicals which are chemical substances derived from various parts of the plant.

40. Which of this botanical name refers to tulsi?

a) Hemidesmus indicus

b) Wrightia tinctoria

c) Ocimum sanctum

d) Carcia papaya

41. Match the drugs with their Tamil names.

A. Quinine i) Nithya Kalyani

B. Alkaloids ii) Vetpalai

C. Terpenoids iii) Cinchona

D. Flavonoids iv) Nilavembu

a) ii, i, iii, iv

b) iii, i, iv, ii

c) iv, iii, i, ii

d) ii, iv, i, iii

42. Which of this drug used as an antidote for snake bite?

a) Reserpine

b) Papain

c) Terpene

d) Anthraquinone

43. Which of these plant leaves are not used as a drug?

a) Tulsi

b) Katrazhai

c) Nannari

d) Pappali

Explanation

Drugs derived from Medicinal plants

44. Which of these organizations launched the first anti-diabetic drug BGR-34?

a) The National Botanical Research Institute

b) The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research

c) The Central Institute for Medicinal and Aromatic Plants

d) All the above

Explanation

The Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and National Botanical Research Institute (NBRI) and Central Institute for Medicinal and Aromatic Plants (CIMAP) have jointly launched India’s first anti diabetic ayurvedic drug BGR -34 (BGR-Blood Glucose Regulator). It contains 34 identified active phytoconstituents from herbal resources. It works by controlling blood sugar levels.

45. Which of these wastes are used for mushroom cultivation?

a) Plant wastes

b) Animal wastes

c) Industrial wastes

d) All the above

Explanation

Mushroom cultivation is a technology of growing mushrooms using plant, animal and industrial waste. In short it is wealth out of waste technology. This technology has gained importance worldwide because of its dietary fibers and protein value.

46. Which type of plant is mushroom?

a) Fungi

b) Plants

c) Saprophytes

d) Photoautotrophs

Explanation

Mushroom is a fungi belonging to basidiomycetes. It is rich in proteins, fibers, vitamins and minerals.

47. Match

A. Paddy straw mushroom i) Pleurotus species

B. Oyster mushroom ii) Agaricus bisporus

C. Button mushroom iii) Volvariella volvacea

a) i, ii, iii

b) ii, iii, i

c) iii, i, ii

d) i, iii, ii

Explanation

There are more than 3000 types of mushrooms. e.g. Button mushroom (Agaricus bisporus), Oyster mushroom (Pleurotus sps.), Paddy straw mushroom (Volvariella volvacea).

48. How many major stages of are involve in mushroom cultivation?

a) 3

b) 8

c) 5

d) 10

Explanation

Major stages of mushroom cultivation are Composting, spawning, casing, pinning and harvesting.

49. How long a composting material is kept at 50°C?

a) One Day

b) One Month

c) One Week

d) One Year

Explanation

Composting: Compost is prepared by mixing paddy straw with number of organic materials like cow dung and inorganic fertilizers. It is kept at about 50°C for one week.

50. What is spawning?

a) Growing fungal mycelium’s under sterile conditions.

b) Developing the compost material for mushrooms.

c) Supporting mechanism for growing mushrooms.

d) Harvesting method of mushrooms.

Explanation

Spawning: Spawn is the mushroom seed. It is prepared by growing fungal mycelium in grains under sterile conditions. Spawn is sown on compost.

51. What are the benefits of casing in mushroom cultivation?

a) Provides humidity

b) Regulate the temperature

c) Gives support to growing mushroom

d) All the above

Explanation

Casing: Compost is covered with a thin layer of soil. It gives support to the growing mushroom, provides humidity and helps regulate the temperature.

52. Which is known as pinning in mushroom harvesting?

a) Little white buds of mycelium.

b) Technique used to develop mushroom

c) Mycelium creation

d) Temperature regulation technique

Explanation

Pinning: Mycelium starts to form little bud, which will develop into mushroom. Those little white buds are called pins.

53. Which of the following is not true regarding Mushroom harvesting?

a) Mushrooms grow 3 cm in a week.

b) The ideal temperature for mushrooms is 15°C to 23°C.

c) Mushrooms can be grown above 35°C also.

d) Third week of mushroom flush can be used harvested.

Explanation

Harvesting: Mushroom grow better in 15°C -23°C. They grow 3 cm in a week which is the normal size for harvesting. In the third week the first flush mushroom can be harvested.

54. Which of these are the main problems in mushroom harvesting?

a) Discoloration

b) Flavor loss

c) Weight loss

d) All the above

Explanation

Preservation: Discoloration, weight and flavor loss are the main problems during harvesting of mushrooms.

55. Which of these methods increase the life of mushrooms?

a) Gamma radiation and storing at 15°C

b) Vacuum cooling

c) Freezing

d) All the above

Explanation

The following methods are used to increase their life. (i) Freezing (ii) Drying (iii) Canning (iv) Vacuum cooling (v) Gamma radiation and storing at 15°C.

56. By which of this medium hydroponics plants are grown?

a) Plain water

b) Rain water

c) Mineral nutrient solutions in water

d) None of the above

Explanation

Hydroponics is the method of growing plants without soil, using mineral nutrient solutions in water. The containers are made of glass, metal or plastic. They range in size from small pots for individual plants to huge tank for large scale growing.

57. Who demonstrated hydroponics method in the year 1980?

a) Julius Von Sachs

b) Hyde Wollaston

c) Conrad Gesner

d) Ferdinand Cohn

Explanation

Hydroponics was demonstrated by a German Botanist Julius Von Sachs in 1980.

58. In which of this commercial production the hydroponics technique is not used?

a) Paddy

b) Flowers

c) Seedless Cucumber

d) Coffee

Explanation

Hydroponics is successfully employed for the commercial production of seedless cucumber and tomato. Plants are suspended with their roots submerged in water that contain plant nutrients.

59. Which of this function is externally given to the hydroponics plants?

a) Absorbing

b) Anchoring

c) Sunlight

d) All the above

Explanation

In Hydroponics the roots absorb water and nutrients, but do not perform the anchoring function. Therefore, the plants must be mechanically supported from above.

60. What is the importance of hydroponics?

a) Controlled plant growth

b) Effective alternate method in deserts and arctic regions

c) Water and nutrient conservation

d) All the above

Explanation

Importance of hydroponics

(i) Conservation of water and nutrients.

(ii) Controlled plant growth.

(iii) In deserts and Arctic regions hydroponics can be an effective alternative method.

61. Choose the correct statements.

i) The growth medium in aeroponic system is air.

ii) The roots of aeroponic plants are hanged in the air and misted with water.

iii) The misting of aeroponic plants is done for few weeks.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

The aeroponic system is the high-tech type of hydroponic gardening. The growth medium in this type is primarily air. The roots hang in the air and are misted with nutrient solution. The misting is usually done for every few minutes, as roots will dry out rapidly if the misting cycles are interrupted.

62. What is the significance of aeroponic technique?

a) The nutrient solution is used as a growth medium.

b) Aeroponic system uses a short cycle timer to run the pump.

c) Misting of nutrient solution.

d) None of the above

Explanation

In aeroponic plants a timer controls the nutrient pump much like other types of hydroponic systems except that the aeroponic system needs a short cycle timer that runs the pump for a few seconds every couple of minutes.

63. Which of this combination provides the aquaponics system?

a) Hydroponics, Aquaculture

b) Hydroponics, Apiculture

c) Aeroponic, Vermiculture

d) Aeroponic, Aquaculture

Explanation

Aquaponics is a system of a combination of conventional aquaculture with hydroponics in a symbiotic environment, in which plants are fed with the aquatic animals’ excreta or wastes.

64. What type of nutrient is utilized by the aquaponics plants?

a) Water nutrients

b) Nitrates

c) Carbonates

d) Sulphate

Explanation

The animal wastes are broken down by nitrifying bacteria initially into nitrites and later into nitrates that are utilized by the plants as their nutrients. Thus the wastes are utilized and water is re-circulated back to the aquaculture system.

65. Which of this technique is used for raising plants in aquaponics?

a) Vermiculture

b) Apiculture

c) Hydroponics

d) Aquaculture

Explanation

Aquaponics consists of two main parts, aquaculture- for raising aquatic animals like fish and hydroponics-for raising plants.

66. Which of these plants cannot be grown in aquaponics?

a) Green leafy vegetables

b) Egg plant

c) Tomatoes

d) Sugarcane

Explanation

Green leafy vegetables like Chinese cabbage, lettuce, basil, coriander, parsley, spinach and vegetables like tomatoes, capsicum, chilies, bell peppers, sweet potato, cauliflower, broccoli and egg-plant can be grown in aquaponics.

67. Assertion (A): Dairying is the production and marketing of milk and its products.

Reasoning(R): Cattle rising, collection and processing of milk and milk products are involved in dairying.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Dairy farming involves rising of cattle for milk production. It involves the proper maintenance of cattle, along with collection and processing of milk and milk products which are useful to man. Dairying is the production and marketing of milk and its products.

68. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) The Indian cattle include cows and buffaloes.

ii) Indian cattle’s belongs to five different species.

iii) Cattles are domesticated for milk, meat and leather transportation.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

The Indian cattle include cows and buffaloes. They are domesticated for milk, meat, leather and transportation. They belong to two different species, Bos indicus (Indian cows and bulls) and Bos bubalis (buffaloes).

69. How many breeds are classified in Indian cattle animals?

a) 5

b) 10

c) 2

d) 3

Explanation

The Indian cattle animals are reared for milk and farm labor. They are classified into three types: Dairy breeds, Draught (or) Draft breeds, Dual purpose breeds.

70. What are the dairy breeds available for domestication?

a) Indigenous breeds, Exotic breeds

b) Exotic breeds, Draft breeds

c) Draft breeds, Indigenous breeds

d) Dual purpose breeds, Draft breeds

Explanation

Dairy breeds: Dairy animals are domesticated for obtaining milk. The cows (milk producing females) are high milk yielders (milch animals). The dairy breeds are: Indigenous breeds, Exotic breeds.

71. Which of these statements are not true regarding the Indigenous breeds of India?

a) The Local breeds have high resistant to diseases.

b) The cattle’s have strong limbs, prominent hump and loose skin.

c) Milk production depends on the geographical area.

d) Sahiwal, Red Sindhi, Deoni and Gir are examples of Indian Indigenous breeds.

Explanation

Indigenous breeds are native of India. They include Sahiwal, Red Sindhi, Deoni and Gir. These cattle are well built with strong limbs, prominent hump and loose skin. Milk production depends on the duration of the lactation period (the period of milk production after the birth of a calf). These local breed animals show excellent resistant to diseases.

72. On what basis the exotic breeds are selected from foreign countries?

a) Long lactation period

b) Disease resistant

c) Strong limbs

d) All the above

Explanation

Exotic breeds (Bos Taurus) are imported from foreign countries. They include Jersey, Brown Swiss and Holstein-Friesian etc. These foreign breeds are selected for long lactation periods.

73. Which of this is not a draught breed of India?

a) Kangayam

b) Umblachery

c) Holstein-Friesian

d) Malvi

Explanation

Draught (or) Draft breeds: They are used for agricultural work, such as tilling, irrigation and carting. These include Amritmahal, Kangayam, Umblachery, Malvi, Siri and Hallikar breeds. Bullocks are good draft animals while the cows are poor milk yielders.

74. Which of these belongs to the Dual purpose breeds in India?

a) Ongole

b) Kankrej

c) Tharparkar

d) All the above

Explanation

Dual purpose breeds: The cows of these breeds provide milk and the bulls are useful for farm work. In India these breeds are favored by farmers. They include Haryana, Ongole, Kankrej and Tharparkar.

75. Which of these breed belongs to Tamil Nadu?

a) Ongole

b) Kankrej

c) Pulikulam

d) Tharparkar

Explanation

Indigenous Draught breeds – Native to Tamil Nadu

Kangayam: It originated in Kangayam and is observed in Dharapuram, Perundurai, Erode, Bhavani and part of Gobichettipalayam Taluk of Erode and Coimbatore district.

Pulikulam: This breed is commonly seen in Cumbum valley of Madurai district in Tamil Nadu. It is also known as Jallikattu madu. They are mainly used for penning in the field and useful for ploughing.

76. How many types are feeds are classified for dairy cattle’s?

a) 3

b) 2

c) 5

d) 4

Explanation

The food requirement for cattle should support healthy life of the animal and milk producing requirement. The feed for dairy cattle is broadly classified into two: Roughages and Concentrates.

77. Which of these included in the roughage feeds?

a) Succulent feed

b) Root crops

c) Dry fodder

d) All the above

Explanation

Roughage is a coarse and fibrous fodder. It consists of succulent feed (cultivated grass, fodder and root crops) and dry fodder (hay, straw and chaff).

78. Which of these statements are true regarding Concentrates?

i) Concentrates are high in fiber and contain carbohydrates, protein and other nutrients.

ii) Rice bran, wheat bran, mango seed, Neem cake and sesame cake can be used to make concentrate feeds.

iii) Green fodder is not included in concentrate feeds.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Concentrates are low in fiber and contain high level of carbohydrates, protein and other nutrients. A variety of raw materials such as Cholam (Jowar), kambu (pearl millet), ragi (finger millet), rice bran, wheat bran, cotton seed cake, mustard cake, linseed cake, groundnut cake, mango seed, neem cake and yellu (sesame) cake can be used to make concentrate feed. They should also be fed on green fodder (maize, lucerne, berseem, and millet and elephant grass).

79. Which of these food additives promote the growth of animals and yield?

a) Antibiotics

b) Hormones

c) Minerals

d) All the above

Explanation

Dairy cattle need balanced rations containing all nutrients in proportional amounts and food additives which contain minerals, vitamins, antibiotics and hormones to promote the growth of animals, good yield of milk and to protect them from diseases.

80. Which of these is not included in a daily average feed of a milking cow?

a) 4-5 kg of grain mixture

b) 100-150 liters of water

c) 1-3 kg of Linseed cake

d) 15-25 kg of roughage

Explanation

The daily average feed ratio of a milking cow is: 15-25 kg of roughage (dry grass and green fodder), 4-5 kg of grain mixture, 100-150 liters of water.

81. Who was the architect of India’s Modern Dairy Industry?

a) Dr. Verghese Kurein

b) M.S.Swaminathan

c) B.V. Nimbkar

d) E.A. Siddiq

Explanation

Dr. Verghese Kurein was the founder of National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) and was called the Architect of India’s Modern Dairy Industry and the Father of White Revolution.

82. When did White Revolution started in India?

a) 1965

b) 1970

c) 1984

d) 1952

Explanation

Operation Flood or the White revolution started in the year 1970 and was aimed to create a nationwide milk grid. It was a rural development program initiated by NDDB – National Dairy Development Board of India

83. Which of the following is the largest dairy development program of NDDB, India?

a) OPERATION FLOOD

b) OPERATION WHITE

c) OPERATION MILK

d) OPERATION BLUE

Explanation

NDDB designed and implemented the world’s largest dairy development program called OPERATION FLOOD. Operation Flood Program is based on dairy commodity aid to increase milk supply in urban areas.

84. Which of these are included in the Intensive Cattle development program?

a) Cross breeding of Indigenous and Exotic cows.

b) Increasing Milk production.

c) New methods and machines for milking.

d) All the above

Explanation

Intensive Cattle Development Program: It is based on cross breeding of indigenous cows with exotic (European) breeds to increase milk production. New methods and modern equipment’s are made available for machine –milking of cows.

85. What is the significance of aquaculture?

a) Rearing of economically important aquatic organisms.

b) Controlled and confined environmental conditions.

c) Usage of advanced technologies

d) All the above

Explanation

Aquaculture is the rearing of economically important aquatic organisms like fishes, prawns, shrimps, crabs, lobsters, edible oysters, pearl oysters and seaweeds under controlled and confined environmental conditions using advanced technologies.

86. How many types of aquaculture are classified?

a) 3

b) 2

c) 5

d) 4

Explanation

Aquaculture is classified into: Freshwater aquaculture, Marine water aquaculture (Mariculture)

87. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Freshwater aquaculture involves rearing of aquatic organisms in freshwater.

ii) Culture of organism is carried in pond, river, dam and cold water.

iii) Freshwater resources remain in land and sea water.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Freshwater aquaculture: The rearing of aquatic organisms in freshwater is called freshwater aquaculture. Culture of organisms is carried out in pond, river, dam, lake and cold water. These freshwater resources remain within the land.

88. Which of these fishes are not cultured in freshwater?

a) Tilapia

b) Salmons

c) Rohu

d) Carps

Explanation

Tilapia, carps (Catla, Rohu, and Mrigal), catfishes and air breathing fishes are cultured in freshwater.

89. What type of aquaculture is followed in Tamil Nadu?

a) Marine

b) Inland

c) Coastal

d) All the above

Explanation

Tamil Nadu is a leading state endowed with rich fishery resources from Marine, Inland and Coastal Aquaculture. The marine fisheries potential of the state is estimated at 0.719 million tonnes. The inland fishery resources have a potential to yield 4.5 lakh metric tonnes of fishes.

90. What is the national rank of Tamil Nadu in coastal farming?

a) 10

b) 3

c) 6

d) 8

Explanation

Tamilnadu ranks sixth among the maritime states in coastal farming.

91. Which of these methods cultivate aquatic organisms in sea water?

a) Marine water aquaculture

b) Mariculture

c) Sea farming

d) All the above

Explanation

Marine water aquaculture: The cultivation of aquatic organisms is in sea water. This is also referred as Mariculture or Sea farming.

92. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Culture of organisms is carried out along the sea coast only.

ii) Salmons, sea bass, milk fishes and mullets are cultured in marine water.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Culture of organisms is carried out along the sea coast (inshore area) and in deep sea. Organisms like shrimps (marine prawns), pearl oysters, edible oysters, mussels and fin fishes like salmons, sea bass, milk fishes and mullets are cultured in marine water.

93. Which of this revolution is related with aquaculture?

a) Blue revolution

b) White revolution

c) Green revolution

d) Yellow revolution

Explanation

Aquaculture aims at blue revolution. It is a major source of export and foreign exchange earnings for the country. It generates employment through fish farming in rural and under developed area.

94. Assertion (A): Pisciculture is the process of breeding and rearing of fishes in reservoirs, lakes and paddy fields.

Reasoning(R): The Economically important fishes are farmed under controlled conditions in pisciculture.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Pisciculture or Fish culture is the process of breeding and rearing of fishes in ponds, reservoirs (dams), lakes, rivers and paddy fields. It is the farming of economically important fishes under controlled conditions.

95. Match

A. Polyculture i) Low stocking density

B. Intensive fish culture ii) Mono species culture

C. Monoculture iii) Composite fish culture

D. Extensive fish culture iv) Artificial feeding

a) i, iii, iv, ii

b) ii, iii, i, iv

c) iii, iv, ii, i

d) iv, ii, iii, i

Explanation

Extensive fish culture: Culture of fishes in large areas with low stocking density and natural feeding. Intensive fish culture: Culture of fishes in small areas with high stocking density and providing artificial feed to increase production. Monoculture: It is the culture of single type of fish in a water body. It is also called mono species culture. Polyculture: It is the culture of more than one type of fish in a water body. It is also called composite fish culture. Integrated fish farming: It is the culture of fishes along with agricultural crops or animal husbandry farming. Rearing of fish along with paddy, poultry, cattle, pig and ducks.

96. Assertion (A): The Mature male and female fishes are collected in the breeding pond.

Reasoning(R): The fertilized eggs are transferred into hatching pits for hatching.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Fish farm requires different types of pond for the various developmental stages of fish growth.

Breeding pond: Healthy and sexually mature male and female fishes are collected and introduced in this pond for breeding. The eggs released by the female are fertilized by the sperm and fertilized eggs float in water as frothy mass.

Hatching pits: The fertilized eggs are transferred to hatching pits or hatching hapas for hatching.

97. What is the maximum length of the fry in a nursery pond?

a) 1cm

b) 2.5cm

c) 1.5cm

d) 0.5cm

Explanation

Nursery ponds: The hatchlings are transferred from hatching pits after 2 to 7 days. The hatchlings grow into fry and are cultured in these ponds for about 60 days with proper feeding till they reach 2 – 2.5 cm in length.

98. Choose the Incorrect statements regarding rearing ponds.

i) The fish fry is developed as fingerlings in the rearing ponds.

ii) In the rearing ponds the fish fry reaches 10 to 15 cm length.

iii) The fish fry are transferred to nursery ponds from the rearing ponds.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Rearing ponds: Rearing ponds are used to culture the fry. The fish fry are transferred from nursery pond to rearing ponds and are maintained for about three months till they reach 10 to 15 cm in length. In these rearing ponds the fry develops into fingerlings.

99. What are the other names for stocking pond?

a) Culture pond

b) Production pond

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

Explanation

Stocking pond: The stocking pond is also called as culture pond or production pond. These ponds are used to rear fingerlings up to the marketable size.

100. Which of these fishes are freshwater cultivable?

a) Catfishes

b) Tilapia

c) Mrigal

d) All the above

Explanation

Freshwater cultivable fishes: Indian major carps (Kendai) – Catla, Rohu, Mrigal, catfishes (Keluthi), Murrels (Veral) and Tilapia (Jilebi kendai) are cultured in freshwater.

101. Which of these does not belong to the marine water cultivable fishes?

a) Sea bass

b) Murrels

c) Grey mullet

d) Chanos chanos

Explanation

Marine water cultivable fishes: Sea bass (Koduva), Grey mullet (Madavai) and Chanos chanos (Milk fish) are the fishes cultured in marine water.

102. Which of the following is not a water soluble vitamin?

a) Pyridoxine

b) Niacin

c) Vitamin D

d) Cyanocobalamine

Explanation

Fat soluble vitamins A, D and water soluble B-complex vitamins like pyridoxine, cyanocobalamine and niacin.

103. Which are the most economically important fish resources in India?

a) Prawns

b) Clams

c) Oysters

d) Mussels

Explanation

One of the most economically important shell fish resources of India are prawns. They are of great demand both in the local and international market. Due to their great taste, they are a cherished delicacy to be served as food. In view of their popularity and marketing avenues in foreign countries there is a need for developing advanced technology and intensify prawn culture in India.

104. What are the factors considered for commercial prawn culture?

a) Size and weight of the prawn

b) Availability

c) Easily cultivatable

d) All the above

Explanation

A number of species of prawns of different sizes are found distributed in water resources. Only those prawns which are good in size, weight, available in plenty and easily cultivable are commonly selected for prawn culture on commercial basis.

105. Which of these prawns are reared in marine water prawn culture?

a) Macrobrachium malcomsonii

b) Macrobrachium rosenbergii

c) Penaeus monodon

d) Tilapia

Explanation

Marine water prawn culture: The rearing of marine penaied prawn is called marine prawn culture or shrimp culture. Penaeus indicus and Penaeus monodon are cultured in marine water.

106. Assertion (A): Rearing of freshwater prawn is called as Freshwater prawn culture.

Reasoning(R): Macrobrachium rosenbergii is a fresh water prawn.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The rearing of freshwater prawn is called freshwater prawn culture. Macrobrachium rosenbergii and Macrobrachium malcomsonii are cultured in freshwater.

107. Which of these methods is not employed for prawn culture?

a) Seed collection

b) Hatchery method

c) Paddy cum Prawn culture

d) Vermiculture

Explanation

The methods employed for prawn culture are: Seed collection and hatchery method, Paddy cum prawn culture method.

108. By which of these methods seed collection and hatchery techniques are executed?

a) Estuaries

b) Backwaters

c) Controlled breeding

d) All the above

Explanation

Seed collection and hatchery method: The larvae and juveniles obtained by collection from natural resources (estuaries, and backwaters) or by hatchery methods (controlled breeding). They are reared and grown into adults.

109. Which part of India practices the Pokkali culture?

a) Kerala

b) Andhra Pradesh

c) Tamil Nadu

d) Maharashtra

Explanation

Paddy cum prawn culture: It is also called Pokkali culture. It is the oldest and traditional method of prawn culture practiced in Kerala. The low lying paddy fields along the coastal areas serve as suitable grounds for prawn culture. Prawns are cultured in these fields after the harvest of paddy.

110. State the technology used to maintain organic matter of the soil and productivity.

a) Vermitechnology

b) Aquaculture

c) Horticulture

d) None of the above

Explanation

The awareness of organic matter and concept of sustainable agriculture is gaining importance among our farmers in the recent years to produce good quality crops. Maintenance of soil organic matter is very important for sustainable productivity and this is attained by Vermitechnology.

111. Assertion (A): Vermiculture refers to artificial rearing or cultivation of earthworms.

Reasoning(R): It is used to produce compost from natural organic wastes.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Vermiculture involves the artificial rearing or cultivation of earthworms and using them for the production of compost from natural organic wastes.

112. Match

A. Red worm i) Eudrilus eugeniae

B. Indian Blue worm ii) Perionyx excavatus

C. African Night crawler iii) Eisenia fetida

a) ii, i, iii

b) i, iii, ii

c) iii, ii, i

d) ii, iii, i

Explanation

The earthworms used for vermicomposting production are Perionyx excavatus (Indian blue worm), Eisenia fetida (Red worms), and Eudrilus eugeniae (African night crawler).

113. Choose the correct statements.

i) Vermicomposting method converts bio-wastes into nutrient organic manure by earthworms.

ii) The organic wastes are excreted by the earthworms known as castings.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Vermicomposting: It is an important component of organic farming which can convert bio-wastes into nutrient rich organic manure by using earthworms. It feeds on the organic wastes and excretes it in digested form known as castings. The compost is generally called vermicompost.

114. Assertion (A): Vermicompost is an ideal fertilizer for increasing the nutrients of the soil.

Reasoning(R): Vermicompost is formed by decomposing organic materials by the earthworm.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Vermicompost is the excreta (worm castings) which is a fine, granular organic matter formed by the decomposition of organic materials by the earthworm. It is an ideal fertilizer for the soil.

115. What are the organic sources for vermicomposting?

a) Agricultural wastes

b) Fruit and vegetable wastes

c) Animal wastes

d) All the above

Explanation

Biologically degradable organic wastes are used as potential organic resources for vermicomposting. They are:

• Agricultural wastes (crop residue, vegetables waste, sugarcane trash)

• Crop residues (rice straw, tea wastes, cereal and pulse residues, rice husk, tobacco wastes, coir wastes)

• Leaf litter

• Fruit and vegetable wastes

• Animal wastes (cattle dung, poultry droppings, pig slurry, goat and sheep droppings)

• Biogas slurry

116. What is the bedding materials filled in a vermicomposting bin method?

a) Leaves

b) Paddy husk

c) Saw dust and manure

d) All the above

Explanation

Vermicomposting by Bin Method: It is the rearing of earthworms in a container or bin. The container is half filled with bedding materials such as shredded cardboard, leaves, paddy husk, chopped straw, saw dust and manure. Small quantity of soil and sand is added to provide necessary grit for the worms. The bedding material should be moistened by adding water that enables free movements of the worms. The worms are gently placed and spread evenly on the bedding.

117. After how many days the organic wastes are transformed to nutrient materials in vermicomposting bin method?

a) 20 days

b) 15 days

c) 30 days

d) 60 days

Explanation

Organic wastes (kitchen wastes, vegetable and fruit wastes) are added which are fed by the earthworms. The bin is covered with coconut leaves or gunny bags to conserve moisture provide darkness and keep out of pests. After a period of 60 days the wastes are completely transformed into nutrient rich materials that are excreted by earthworms known as worm castings.

118. Which of these statements is not true regarding Vermicompost?

a) Rich source of nutrients to make soil fertile.

b) Enhances the decomposition of Inorganic matters of the soil.

c) It is free from pathogens and toxic elements.

d) Rich in beneficial micro flora.

Explanation

Vermicompost is dark brown in color and similar to farmyard manure in color and appearance.

• It is a rich source of nutrients essential for plant growth. It makes the soil fertile.

• It improves the water holding capacity and helps to prevent soil erosion.

• It contains valuable vitamins, enzymes and growth regulator substances for increasing growth, vigour and yield of plants.

• It enhances decomposition of organic matter in soil.

• Vermicompost is free from pathogens and toxic elements.

• Vermicompost is rich in beneficial microflora.

119. Which of these refers to Bee keeping?

a) Pokkali culture

b) Vermiculture

c) Apiculture

d) Polyculture

Explanation

Apiculture is the rearing of honey bee for honey. It is also called Bee keeping. It is a profitable rural based industry. Honey bees are domesticated by farmers to produce honey.

120. How many types of bee are available in a honey bee colony?

a) 3

b) 5

c) 4

d) 2

Explanation

There are three types of individuals in a honey bee colony namely the queen bee, the drones and the worker bees.

121. Which of these statements are true regarding Queen Bee?

a) Fertile female of the bee colony.

b) Formed by unfertilized eggs.

c) Responsible for egg fertilization.

d) All the above

Explanation

Queen Bee: The queen is the largest member and the fertile female of the colony. They are formed from fertile eggs. The queen is responsible for laying eggs in a colony.

122. Choose the Incorrect statements regarding the drones.

i) Fertile males are developed from unfertilized eggs.

ii) Larger than the Queen and the worker bees.

iii) The main function is to fertilize the eggs produced by the queen.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Drones: They are the fertile males. They develop from unfertilized eggs. They are larger than the workers and smaller than the queens. Their main function is to fertilize the eggs produced by the queen.

123. What are the functions of worker bees?

a) Maintaining the temperature of bee hive

b) Cleaning the comb

c) Collecting honey

d) All the above

Explanation

Worker Bees: They are sterile female bees and are the smallest members of the colony. Their function is to collect honey, look after the young ones, clean the comb, defend the hive and maintain the temperature of the bee hive.

124. Which is not an indigenous variety honey bee?

a) Apis florea

b) Apis mellifera

c) Apis dorsata

d) Apis indica

Explanation

Varieties of Honey Bee

Indigenous varieties

i) Apis dorsata (Rock bee or Wild bee)

ii) Apis florea (Little bee)

iii) Apis indica (Indian bee)

125. Which of the following is an African species of honey bee?

a) Apis adamsoni

b) Apis dorsata

c) Apis indica

d) Apis mellifera

Explanation

Exotic varieties

i) Apis mellifera (Italian bee)

ii) Apis adamsoni (African bee)

126. Assertion (A): A Honey comb is a vertical sheet of wax with double layer of hexagonal cells.

Reasoning(R): The comb of the bee hive is formed by the wax glands of the worker bees.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The comb of the bees is formed mainly by the secretion of the wax glands present in the abdomen of the worker bee. A comb is a vertical sheet of wax with double layer of hexagonal cells.

127. In which part of the bee hive the nectar is converted into honey?

a) Chambers

b) Honey sac

c) Pollen

d) All the above

Explanation

Formation of Honey: The honey bees suck the nectar from various flowers. The nectar passes to the honey sac. In the honey sac, sucrose present in the nectar mixes with acidic secretion and by enzymatic action it is converted into honey which is stored in the special chambers of the hive.

128. Which of this factor decides the quality of honey?

a) Nectar and Pollen collection

b) Season

c) Type of bee

d) All the above

Explanation

Quality of honey depends upon the flowers available to the bees for nectar and pollen collection.

129. Which of these are the useful products of honey?

a) Royal jelly

b) Bee venom and bee wax

c) Propolis

d) All the above

Explanation

Honey bees are used in the production of honey and bee wax. Other useful products obtained from honey bees are bee pollen, royal jelly, propolis and bee venom.

130. Which of the following is not present in honey?

a) Tartaric acid

b) Amino acids

c) B-complex vitamins

d) Ascorbic acid

Explanation

Honey is a sweet, viscous, edible natural food product. Dextrose and sucrose gives sweet taste to the honey. It also contains amino acids, B-complex vitamins, ascorbic acid, and minerals. Formic acid is a preservative in honey. Invertase is an enzyme present in honey.

131. Which of this acid is used as a preservative in honey?

a) Ascorbic Acid

b) Acetic Acid

c) Formic Acid

d) Folic Acid

Explanation

Formic acid is a preservative in honey.

132. Which of this enzyme is present in honey?

a) Fructose

b) Invertase

c) Lactose

d) Maltose

Explanation

Invertase is an enzyme present in honey.

133. What are the uses of honey?

a) Antiseptic and Antibacterial

b) Used in Ayurvedic and Unani medicine systems.

c) Enhances digestion and appetite.

d) All the above

Explanation

Uses of Honey

• Honey has an antiseptic and antibacterial property. It is a blood purifier.

• It helps in building up of hemoglobin content in the blood.

• It is used in Ayurvedic and Unani system of medicines.

• It prevents cough, cold, fever and relieves sore throat.

• It is a remedy for ulcers of tongue, stomach and intestine.

• It enhances digestion and appetite.

134. How many calories does one kilogram of honey contain?

a) 3200 calories

b) 1000 calories

c) 50 calories

d) 250 calories

Explanation

One kilogram of honey contains 3200 calories and is an energy rich food.

135. What is the measure of total life time collection of honey by an average bee?

a) One milliliter

b) One teaspoon

c) Half scoop

d) 1/12^th of a teaspoon

Explanation

Honey bee visits 50 to 100 flowers during a collection trip. Average bee will make only 1/12th of a teaspoon of honey in its lifetime.

9th Science Lesson 24 Questions in English

24] Environmental Science

1. Which of the following statement is correct?

• Elements of nature continuously undergo changes and transformation
• Environmental protection provides holistic knowledge about natural processes, effects of human intervention and solutions to overcome environmental problems

1. 1 alone
2. 2 alone
3. 1, 2
4. None

Explanation

“Nature has the power to refresh and renew”

– Helen Keller

Elements of nature continuously undergo changes and transformations. Environmental protection provides holistic knowledge about natural processes, effects of human intervention and solutions to overcome environmental problems.

2. Which of the following are environmental issues?

1. Pollution
2. Stock market fall
3. Global warming
4. Ozone layer depletion
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 1, 3, 4
7. 2, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Environmental issues such as pollution, global warming, ozone layer depletion, acid rain, deforestation, landslide, drought and desertification have gained major focus across the world.

3. Assertion(A): Natural resources are recycled over and over again on earth for continued availability

Reason(R): It reminds us of our responsibility to reduce and restrain our activities that will affect the natural processes

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Natural resources are recycled over and over again on earth for continued availability. At the same time, it also reminds us of our responsibility to reduce and restrain our activities that will affect the natural processes.

4. Which of the adaptations helps Living organisms adjust themselves according to their habitat?

1. Anatomical
2. Morphological
3. Reproductive
4. Physiological
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 2, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Living organisms adjust themselves according to their habitat and changes in the ecosystem. All living organisms develop certain morphological, anatomical, physiological and reproductive adaptations which help them to survive better and to withstand environmental conditions.

5. All resources of biosphere can be grouped into____ major categories

1. 4
2. 3
3. 2
4. 5

Explanation

Biosphere is the part of the earth where life exists. All resources of biosphere can be grouped into two major categories namely Biotic and Abiotic.

6. Which of the following is not a Abiotic factor?

1. Temperature
2. Soil
3. Animals
4. Sunlight

Explanation

Abiotic or non-living factors which include all factors like temperature, pressure, water, soil, air and sunlight which affect the ability of organisms to survive and reproduce.

7. Which of the following components in the biosphere makes it a dynamic and stable system?

1. Biotic
2. Abiotic
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

There is a constant interaction between biotic and abiotic components in the biosphere and that makes the biosphere a dynamic and stable system.

8. Cyclic flow of nutrients between non-living and living factors are termed as_______ cycle

1. Bio-chemical
2. Geo-chemical
3. Bio-geo-chemical
4. Chemical

Explanation

Cyclic flow of nutrients between non-living and living factors of the environment are termed as bio–geo-chemical cycles.

9. Which of the following is not an important bio-geo-chemical cycle?

1. Water cycle
2. Carbon cycle
3. Sulphur cycle
4. Nitrogen cycle

Explanation

Some of the important biogeochemical cycles are:

1. Water cycle
2. Nitrogen cycle
3. Carbon cycle

10. In which of the following process water moves from one reservoir to another?

1. Transpiration
2. Sublimation
3. surface runoff
4. All the above

Explanation

Water cycle or hydrological cycle is the continuous movement of water on earth. In this process, water moves from one reservoir to another by processes such as evaporation, sublimation, transpiration, condensation, precipitation, surface runoff and infiltration, during which water converts itself to various forms like liquid, solid and vapour.

11. In Evaporation, liquid is converted to gas________

1. At reaching its boiling point
2. Before reaching its boiling point
3. After reaching its boiling point
4. None

Explanation

Evaporation is a type of vaporization, where liquid is converted to gas before reaching its boiling point. Water evaporates from the surface of the earth and water bodies such as the oceans, seas, lakes, ponds and rivers.

12. ______is conversion of solid to gas, without passing through liquid phase

1. Evaporation
2. Condensation
3. Sublimation
4. Precipitation

Explanation

Sublimation:

Sublimation is conversion of solid to gas, without passing through the intermediate liquid phase

13. Where does sublimation takes place in earth?

1. North poles
2. Icecaps on mountains
3. South poles
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Ice sheets and ice caps from north and south poles, and icecaps on mountains, get converted into water vapour directly, without converting into liquid.

14. Transpiration place in_____

1. Animals
2. Plants
3. Bacteria
4. Virus

Explanation

Transpiration is the process by which plants release water vapour into the atmosphere through stomata in leaves and stems.

15. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Condensation is the changing of gas phase into liquid phase
2. At lower altitudes, the temperature is low.
3. It is the reverse of vaporisation
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Condensation is the changing of gas phase into liquid phase and is the reverse of vaporisation. At higher altitudes, the temperature is low. The water vapour present there condenses to form very tiny particles of water droplets. These particles come close together to form clouds and fog.

16. Which of the following are included in Precipitation?

1. Drizzle
2. Strom
3. Snow
4. Hail
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Due to change in wind or temperature, clouds combine to make bigger droplets, and pour down as precipitation (rain). Precipitation includes drizzle, rain, snow and hail

17. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. As the water pours down, it runs over the surface of earth
2. Some of the precipitated water moves deep into the soil known as infiltration
3. Runoff water combines to form channels, rivers, lakes and ends up into seas and oceans.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

As the water pours down, it runs over the surface of earth. Runoff water combines to form channels, rivers, lakes and ends up into seas and oceans. Some of the precipitated water moves deep into the soil. Then it moves down and increases the ground water level.

18. Porous rocks also known as_________

1. Igneous rocks
2. Sedimentary rocks
3. Metamorphic rocks
4. Fractured rocks

Explanation

Some of the precipitated water flows through soil and porous or fractured rock. Infiltration and percolation are two related but different processes describing the movement of water through soil.

19. Which of the following are the impacts of human activities on water cycle?

1. Urbanisation
2. Dumping of plastic waste on land and into water
3. Deforestation
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Major human activities affecting the water cycle on land are urbanisation, dumping of plastic waste on land and into water, polluting water bodies and deforestation.

20. Which of the following component contains Nitrogen as essential component?

1. DNA
2. Chlorophyll
3. Proteins
4. All the above

Explanation

Nitrogen is the important nutrient needed for the survival of all living organisms. It is an essential component of proteins, DNA and chlorophyll.

21. Atmosphere is a rich source of nitrogen and contains about ____% nitrogen

1. 21
2. 78
3. 79
4. 82

Explanation

Atmosphere is a rich source of nitrogen and contains about 78% nitrogen. Plants and animals cannot utilize atmospheric nitrogen.

22. Plants and animals cannot utilize atmospheric nitrogen only when they are in the form of_____

1. Ammonia
2. Amino acids
3. Nitrates
4. 1 alone
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Plants and animals cannot utilize atmospheric nitrogen. They can use it only if it is in the form of ammonia, amino acids or nitrates. Processes involved in nitrogen cycle are explained below.

23. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Nitrogen fixation is the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen, which is in inert form, to reactive compounds available to living organisms
2. This conversion is done by a number of bacteria and Nitrobacter
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Nitrogen fixation is the conversion of atmospheric nitrogen, which is in inert form, to reactive compounds available to living organisms. This conversion is done by a number of bacteria and blue green algae (Cyanobacteria).

24. Rhizobium occur in the _________ nodules of leguminous plants

1. Leave
2. Stem
3. Root
4. All the above

Explanation

Leguminous plants like pea and beans have a symbiotic relationship with nitrogen fixing bacteria Rhizobium. Rhizobium occur in the root nodules of leguminous plants and fixes nitrogenous compounds.

25. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Plants absorb nitrate ions and use them for making organic matter like proteins and nucleic acids
2. Carnivorous animals convert plant proteins into animal proteins
3. Herbivorous animals synthesize proteins from their food
4. 1, 2
5. 1 alone
6. 1, 3
7. 2, 3

Explanation

Plants absorb nitrate ions and use them for making organic matter like proteins and nucleic acids. Herbivorous animals convert plant proteins into animal proteins. Carnivorous animals synthesize proteins from their food.

26. Animal proteins are excreted in the form of_______

1. Ammonia
2. Uric acid
3. Urea
4. All the above

Explanation

Animal proteins are excreted in the form of urea, uric acid or ammonia. The putrefying bacteria and fungi decompose these animal proteins, dead animals and plants into ammonium compounds.

27. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The ammonium compounds formed by ammonification process are oxidised to soluble nitrates
2. The bacteria responsible for nitrification are called as nitrifying bacteria
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The ammonium compounds formed by ammonification process are oxidised to soluble nitrates. This process of nitrate formation is known as nitrification. The bacteria responsible for nitrification are called as nitrifying bacteria.

28. Match the following

1. Nitrogen fixation 1. Pseudomonas
2. Ammonification 2. Rhizobium
3. Nitrification 3. Fungi
4. Denitrification 4. Nitrosomonas
5. 3, 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 1, 4, 3
7. 1, 3, 2, 4
8. 2, 3, 4, 1

Explanation

29. _______ reduce nitrate ions of soil into gaseous nitrogen which enters the atmosphere.

1. Pseudomonas sp.
2. Nitrosomonas
3. Putrefying bacteria
4. Azotobacter

Explanation

Free living soil bacteria such as Pseudomonas sp. reduce nitrate ions of soil into gaseous nitrogen which enters the atmosphere

30. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Burning fossil fuels, application of nitrogen-based fertilizers and other activities can increase the amount of biologically available nitrogen in an ecosystem
2. Nitrogen applied to agricultural fields enters rivers and marine systems
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Burning fossil fuels, application of nitrogen-based fertilizers and other activities can increase the amount of biologically available nitrogen in an ecosystem. Nitrogen applied to agricultural fields enters rivers and marine systems. It alters the biodiversity, changes the food web structure and destroys the general habitat

31. In which of the following forms carbon occur on earth?

1. Charcoal
2. Graphite
3. Diamond
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Carbon occurs in various forms on earth. Charcoal, diamond and graphite are elemental forms of carbon. Combined forms of carbon include carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide and carbonate salts.

32. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. All living organisms are made up of carbon containing molecules like proteins and nucleic acids.
2. The atmospheric carbon dioxide enters into the plants through the process of photosynthesis to form carbohydrates.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

All living organisms are made up of carbon containing molecules like proteins and nucleic acids. The atmospheric carbon dioxide enters into the plants through the process of photosynthesis to form carbohydrates. From plants, it is passed on to herbivores and carnivores.

33. Carbon dioxide is also returned to the atmosphere through______

1. Volcanic eruption
2. Decomposition of dead organic matter
3. Burning fossil fuels
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

During respiration, plants and animals release carbon into atmosphere in the form of carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide is also returned to the atmosphere through decomposition of dead organic matter, burning fossil fuels and volcanic activities.

34. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. More carbon moves into the atmosphere due to burning of fossil fuels and deforestation
2. Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas
3. By increasing the amount of carbon dioxide, earth becomes warmer
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

More carbon moves into the atmosphere due to burning of fossil fuels and deforestation. Most of the carbon in atmosphere is in the form of carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas. By increasing the amount of carbon dioxide, earth becomes warmer. This leads to greenhouse effect and global warming.

35. On the basis of water availability, plants have been classified into____ types

1. 2
2. 5
3. 4
4. 3

Explanation

Any feature of an organism or its part that enables it to exist under conditions of its habitat is called adaptation. On the basis of water availability, plants have been classified as:

1. Hydrophytes
2. Xerophytes
3. Mesophytes

36. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Plants growing in or near water are called hydrophytes
2. Hydrophytes face certain challenges in their habitat.
3. Hydrophytes may be free floating or submerged plants living in lakes, ponds, shallow water
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Plants growing in or near water are called hydrophytes. Hydrophytes may be free floating or submerged plants living in lakes, ponds, shallow water, marshy lands and marine habitat. Hydrophytes face certain challenges in their habitat.

37. Which of the following challenges are faced by hydrophytes?

1. Availability of more water than needed
2. Water levels may change regularly
3. Water current may damage the plant body
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Hydrophytes face certain challenges in their habitat. They are:

1. Availability of more water than needed
2. Water current may damage the plant body
3. Water levels may change regularly
4. Maintain buoyancy in water

38. Match the following

1. Roots are absent 1. Hydrilla
2. Plant body is greatly reduced 2. Wolffia
3. Submerged leaves are narrow 3. Lemna
4. 2, 1, 3
5. 2, 3, 1
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 3, 1, 2

Explanation

Adaptations of hydrophytes:

1. Roots are poorly developed as in Hydrilla or absent as in Wolffia.
2. Plant body is greatly reduced as in Lemna.
3. Submerged leaves are narrow or finely divided. e.g. Hydrilla.

39. Which of the floating leaves have long leaf stalks to enable the leaves move up and down?

1. Lotus
2. Lily
3. Eichhornia
4. Hydrilla

Explanation

Floating leaves have long leaf stalks to enable the leaves move up and down in response to changes in water level. e.g. Lotus.

40. _____ provide buoyancy and mechanical support to plants as in Eichhornia

1. Water chambers
2. Air Chambers
3. Solid leaves
4. Spongy petiole

Explanation

Air chambers provide buoyancy and mechanical support to plants as in Eichhornia (swollen and spongy petiole).

41. Plants that grow in dry habitat are called______

1. Xerophytes
2. Mesophytes
3. Hydrophytes
4. None

Explanation

Plants that grow in dry habitat are called xerophytes. These plants develop special structural and physiological characteristics to meet the conditions.

42. Which of the following conditions are meet by Xerophytes?

1. To absorb as much water as they can get from the surroundings
2. To increase the transpiration rate
3. To reduce consumption of water
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Xerophytes develop special structural and physiological characteristics to meet the following conditions:

1. To absorb as much water as they can get from the surroundings.
2. To retain water in their organs for very long time.
3. To reduce the transpiration rate.
4. To reduce consumption of water

43. Match the following

1. Roots grow very deep and reach the layers 1. Acacia
2. Succulent water storing parenchymatous tissues 2. Calotropis
3. Small sized leaves with waxy coating 3. Aloe vera
4. 2, 1, 3
5. 2, 3, 1
6. 3, 1, 2
7. 1, 3, 2

Explanation

1. They have well developed roots. Roots grow very deep and reach the layers where water is available as in Calotropis.
2. They store water in succulent water storing parenchymatous tissues. e.g. Opuntia, Aloe vera.
3. They have small sized leaves with waxy coating. e.g. Acacia. In some plants, leaves are modified into spines. e.g. Opuntia.

44. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Mesophytes are common land plants which grow in situations that are neither too wet nor too dry
2. They do not need any extreme adaptations
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Mesophytes are common land plants which grow in situations that are neither too wet nor too dry. They do not need any extreme adaptations.

45. Which of the following is not an adaptation of mesophyte?

1. The roots of mesophytes are well developed and are provided with root caps.
2. The leaves have spines
3. Leaves have stomata which close in extreme heat and wind to prevent transpiration
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Adaptations of mesophytes:

1. The roots of mesophytes are well developed and are provided with root caps.

2. The stem is generally straight and branched.

3. The leaves are generally broad and thin.

4. The presence of waxy cuticle in leaves traps the moisture and lessens water loss.

5. Leaves have stomata which close in extreme heat and wind to prevent transpiration

46. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Animals can adapt themselves according to their habitat.
2. Animals develop special features or behaviour patterns to escape from extreme conditions of temperature and light.
3. Temperature and light are forms of energy which influence various stages of life activities
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Animals can adapt themselves according to their habitat. Temperature and light are forms of energy which influence various stages of life activities such as growth, metabolism, reproduction, movement, distribution and behaviour. Animals develop special features or behaviour patterns to escape from extreme conditions of temperature and light.

47. Which of the following is the only mammal that can fly?

1. Rat
2. Mice wings
3. Bat
4. Whale

Explanation

Bats are the only mammals that can fly. Mostly, bats live in caves. Apart from caves, bats also live in trees, hollowed logs and rock.

48. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Bats are active at night.
2. They are thin, white wing membrane (Patagium) may cause excessive heat absorption during the day
3. Their night time adaptation is useful for them, as flight requires a lot of energy during day
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Bats are active at night. This is a useful adaptation for them, as flight requires a lot of energy during day. Their thin, black wing membrane (Patagium) may cause excessive heat absorption during the day. This may lead to dehydration.

49. _____ of bats are modified serve wings

1. Forelimbs
2. Hindlimbs
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

Forelimbs are modified serve wings. Tail supports and controls movements during flight. Muscles are well developed and highly powerful and achieve in beating of wings. Tendons of hind limbs provide a tight grasp when the animals are suspended upside down at rest.

50. ______ is a state of inactivity in which the body temperature drops with a lowered metabolic rate during winter

1. Incineration
2. Insertion
3. Hibernation
4. None

Explanation

Hibernation is a state of inactivity in which the body temperature drops with a lowered metabolic rate during winter.

51. Bats are_____ blooded animals

1. Warm
2. Cold
3. Both a and b
4. Neither a nor b

Explanation

Bats are warm blooded animals but unlike other mammals, they let their internal temperature reduce when they are resting. They go to a state of decreased activity to conserve energy.

52. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Bats use a remarkable high-frequency system called echolocation.
2. Bats give out high-frequency sounds
3. It is known as Infrasonic sound
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Bats use a remarkable high-frequency system called echolocation. Bats give out high-frequency sounds (ultrasonic sounds). These sounds are reflected back from its prey and perceived by the ear. Bats use these echoes to locate and identify the prey.

53. Which of the following statement about earthworm is correct?

1. It is commonly found in soil, feeding on live and dead organic matter
2. It facilitates aeration, water infiltration and producing organic matter to increase crop growth
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Earthworm is commonly found in soil, feeding on live and dead organic matter. Earthworm plays a vital role in maintaining soil fertility. It facilitates aeration, water infiltration and producing organic matter to increase crop growth.

54. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The earthworm has a cylindrical, elongated and segmented body
2. Mucus covers the skin which does not allow soil particles to stick to it
3. Moist skin helps in oxygenation of blood.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The earthworm has a cylindrical, elongated and segmented body. This helps them to live in narrow burrows underground and for easy penetration into the soil. Mucus covers the skin which does not allow soil particles to stick to it. Moist skin helps in oxygenation of blood.

55. Earthworm body is flexible having _______ and _____ muscles

1. Circular, latitudinal
2. Circular, longitudinal
3. Square, latitudinal
4. Square, longitudinal

Explanation

Earthworm body is flexible having circular and longitudinal muscles which help in movement and subsoil burrowing. Each segment on the lower surface of the body has number of setae. They help the earthworm to move through the soil and provide anchor in the burrows.

56. When the soil becomes too hot or dry, earthworms undergo a process called____

1. Estivation
2. Aestivation
3. Segmentation
4. None

Explanation

When the soil becomes too hot or dry, earthworms become inactive and undergo a process called aestivation. Earthworm moves deeper into the soil.

57. _____ are referred as ‘Farmer’s friend

1. Snake
2. Snail
3. Earthworm
4. Roundworm

Explanation

Earthworms are referred as ‘Farmer’s friend’. After digesting organic matter, earthworms excrete a nutrient-rich waste product called castings which is used as Vermicompost.

58. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Earthworms are sensitive to light
2. They have 12 pair of eyes
3. They react negatively to bright light
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Earthworms are sensitive to light. It has no eyes but can sense light through light sensitive cells (Photoreceptors) present in their skin. They react negatively to bright light (Photophobic). It remains in its burrow during the day to avoid light.

59. Which of the following sphere is protected by water conservation?

1. Lithosphere
2. Hydrosphere
3. Thermosphere
4. Atmosphere

Explanation

Water conservation is the preservation, control and management of water resources. It also includes activities to protect the hydrosphere and to meet the current and future human demand.

60. Which of the following are importance of Water Conservation?

1. It creates more efficient use of the water resources
2. It helps in decreasing water pollution.
3. It helps in increasing energy saving
4. 1, 3
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 2
7. All the above

Explanation

Importance of Water Conservation:

1. It creates more efficient use of the water resources.
2. It ensures that we have enough usable water.
3. It helps in decreasing water pollution.
4. It helps in increasing energy saving.

61. World Water Day is on______

1. 22^nd March
2. 22^nd April
3. 23^rd March
4. 20^th January

Explanation

World Water Day on 22nd March every year, is about focusing attention on the importance of water. Agricultural water is often lost due to leaks in canals, run off and evaporation.

62. Which of the following statement is correct about Farm Ponds?

1. Farm ponds are used as one of the strategies to support water conservation.
2. Farm ponds help the farmers to store water and to use it for irrigation
3. The run off not only causes loss of water but also washes away precious top soil.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Farm ponds are used as one of the strategies to support water conservation. Much of the rainfall runs off the ground. The run off not only causes loss of water but also washes away precious top soil. Farm ponds help the farmers to store water and to use it for irrigation.

63. Water recycling is reusing treated wastewater from____

1. industrial processes
2. flushing in toilets
3. purposes such as agricultural and landscape irrigation
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Water recycling, apart from rain water harvesting, is also one of the key strategies to conserve water. Water recycling is reusing treated wastewater for beneficial purposes such as agricultural and landscape irrigation, industrial processes, flushing in toilets and ground water recharge.

64. Which of the following statement is correct about primary treatment?

1. Primary treatment involves temporary holding of the wastewater in a tank
2. The heavy solids get settled at the bottom while oil, grease and lighter solids float over the surface.
3. The remaining liquid undergoes secondary treatment
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Primary treatment involves temporary holding of the wastewater in a tank. The heavy solids get settled at the bottom while oil, grease and lighter solids float over the surface. The settled and floating materials are removed. The remaining liquid undergoes secondary treatment.

65. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Tertiary or advanced treatment is the final step of sewage treatment
2. It involves removal of inorganic constituents such as nitrogen, phosphorus and microorganisms
3. The fine colloidal particles in the sewage water are precipitated by adding chemical coagulants like bromine sulphate
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Tertiary or advanced treatment is the final step of sewage treatment. It involves removal of inorganic constituents such as nitrogen, phosphorus and microorganisms. The fine colloidal particles in the sewage water are precipitated by adding chemical coagulants like alum or ferric sulphate.

66. _____ is the global authority on the status of the natural world and the measures needed to

safeguard it

1. IUCN
2. ICARE
3. IMO
4. WHO

Explanation

IUCN is an international organization working in the field of nature conservation and sustainable use of natural resources. IUCN is the global authority on the status of the natural world and the measures needed to safeguard it.

67. India, a mega diverse country with only___ % of world’s land area

1. 2.4
2. 10
3. 15
4. 24

Explanation

The organization is best known to the wider public for compiling and publishing the IUCN red list of threatened species, which assesses the conservation status of species worldwide. India, a mega diverse country with only 2.4 % of world’s land area, accounts for 7-8% of all recorded species.

68. How many species of plants are included in IUCN species?

1. 91000
2. 45000
3. 66000
4. 21000

Explanation

IUCN recorded species in India includes over 45,000 species of plants and 91,000 species of animals. The mission of IUCN is to influence, encourage and assist societies throughout the world to conserve the integrity and diversity of nature and to ensure that any use of natural resources is equitable and ecologically sustainable.

69. How many globally identified biodiversity hotspots are found in India?

1. 4
2. 5
3. 3
4. 10

Explanation

The country’s diverse physical features and climatic conditions have resulted in a variety of ecosystems such as forests, wetlands, grasslands, desert, coastal and marine ecosystems. Four of 34 globally identified biodiversity hotspots are found in India.

70. India became state member of IUCN in____

1. 1991
2. 1969
3. 1996
4. 1989

Explanation

India became state member of IUCN in 1969, through the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate change (MoEFCC).

71. IUCN was founded on______

1. 4^th October 1948
2. 5^th October 1948
3. 15^th October 1948
4. 25^th October 1948

Explanation

IUCN (International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources) was founded on 5th October 1948 at Gland, Switzerland.