11th Std Science Lesson Wise Questions in English – Part 3

11th Science Lesson 9 Questions in English

9] Diversity of Living World

1. Earth was formed how many years ago?

1. 4.6 trillion years ago
2. 4.6 billion years ago
3. 4.6 million years ago
4. None of the above

Explanation

Earth was formed some 4.6 billion years ago. It is the life supporting planet with land forms like mountains, plateaus, glaciers, etc.

2. Life on earth exists within a complex structure called ____

1. Biosphere
2. Atmosphere
3. Hotspot
4. Crust

Explanation

Life on earth exists within a complex structure called biosphere. There exist many mysteries and wonders in the living world some are not visible but the activity of some captures the attention of all.

3. DNA molecule is not made up of which among the following?

1. Carbon
2. Nitrogen
3. Phosphorus
4. Zinc

Explanation

DNA molecule is essential for the regulation of life and is made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and phosphorus. Thus, non-living and living things exist together to make our planet unique.

4. According to whose survey made in 2011 the number of estimated species on earth is 8.7 million?

1. Cal ci ta
2. Mora et al
3. Heat pi ta
4. Sui cha ta

Explanation

According to a survey made by Mora et al., 2011 the number of estimated species on earth is 8.7 million. The living world includes microbes, plants, animals and human beings which possess unique and distinct characteristic feature.

5. Which among the following is not the attributes of living organisms?

1. Growth
2. Reproduction
3. Irritability
4. None of the above

Explanation

Attributes of living organisms are growth, nutrition, movement, reproduction, excretion, irritability, respiration and metabolism.

6. Which among the following statement is correct regarding growth

1. Growth is an intrinsic property of all living organisms through which they can increase cells both in number and mass. Unicellular and multicellular organisms grow by cell division. In plants, growth is indefinite and occurs throughout their life. In animals, growth is definite and occurs for some period.
2. Growth in non-living objects is intrinsic. Mountains, boulders and sand mounds grow by simple aggregation of material on the surface. Living cells grow by the addition of new potassium within the cells. Therefore, growth in living thing is extrinsic.
3. In unicellular organisms like Bacteria and Amoeba growth occurs by cell division and such cell division also leads to the growth of their population. Hence, growth and reproduction are mutually inclusive events.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Growth in non-living objects is extrinsic. Mountains, boulders and sand mounds grow by simple aggregation of material on the surface. Living cells grow by the addition of new protoplasm within the cells. Therefore, growth in living thing is intrinsic.

7. Which are unicellular, lack membrane bound nuclei and organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi bodies and so on?

1. Prokaryotes
2. Eukaryotes
3. Zygote
4. Homozygote

Explanation

Prokaryotes are unicellular, lack membrane bound nuclei and organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi bodies and so on (Example: Bacteria and Blue green algae).

8. In which a definite nucleus and membrane bound organelles are present?

1. Eukaryotes
2. Zygote
3. Homozygote
4. Lepidote

Explanation

In Eukaryotes a definite nucleus and membrane bound organelles are present. Eukaryotes may be unicellular (Amoeba) or multicellular (Oedogonium). All living organisms are made up of cells which may be prokaryotic or eukaryotic.

9. How many types of reproduction are there?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Explanation

Reproduction is one of the fundamental characteristic features of living organisms. It is the tendency of a living organism to perpetuate its own species. There are two types of reproduction namely asexual and sexual.

10. Match the following Asexual reproductive type with its organism

1. Conidia formation – 1. Spirogyra
2. Budding – 2. Yeast
3. Fragmentation – 3. Planaria
4. Regeneration – 4. Penicillium
5. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
8. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2

Explanation

Types of Asexual Reproduction (a) Conidia formation-Penicillium, (b) Budding-Yeast, (c) Fragmentation-Spirogyra, (d) Regeneration-Planaria.

11. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Asexual reproduction refers to the production of the progeny possessing features more or less similar to those of parents. The sexual reproduction brings out variation through recombination.
2. Asexual reproduction in living organisms occurs by the production of conidia (Aspergillus, Penicillium), budding (Hydra and Yeast), binary fission (Bacteria and Amoeba) fragmentation (Spirogyra), protonema (Mosses) and regeneration (Planaria). Exceptions are the sterile worker bees and mules.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

12. The sum of all the chemical reactions taking place in a cell of living organism is called ____?

1. Homeostasis
2. Metabolism
3. Movement
4. Irritability

Explanation

The sum of all the chemical reactions taking place in a cell of living organism is called metabolism.

13. Which among the following is not the type of metabolism?

1. Catabolism
2. Anabolism
3. Diabolism
4. None of the above

Explanation

Metabolism is broadly divided into anabolism and catabolism.

14. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Anabolism is breaking down process. Larger molecules break into smaller units. In anabolism the stored chemical energy is released and used. Example: Breaking down of glucose to CO₂ and water.
2. Catabolism is a building up process. Smaller molecules combine together to form larger molecule. In catabolism Chemical energy is formed and stored. Example: Synthesis of proteins from amino acids.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Anabolism is a building up process. Smaller molecules combine together to form larger molecule. In Anabolism Chemical energy is formed and stored. Example: Synthesis of proteins from amino acids

Catabolism is breaking down process. Larger molecules break into smaller units. In catabolism the stored chemical energy is released and used. Example: Breaking down of glucose to CO₂ and water.

15. Property of self-regulation and tendency to maintain a steady state within an external environment which is liable to change is called _____

1. Irritability
2. Homeostasis
3. Planaria
4. Excretion

Explanation

Property of self-regulation and tendency to maintain a steady state within an external environment which is liable to change is called Homeostasis. It is essential for the living organism to maintain internal condition to survive in the environment.

16. Which among the following statement is correct

1. All organisms are capable of sensing their environment and respond to various physical, chemical and biological stimuli. Animals sense their surroundings by sense organs. This is called Consciousness.
2. Plants also respond to the stimuli. Bending of plants towards sunlight, the closure of leaves in touch-me-not plant to touch are some examples for response to stimuli in plants. This type of response is called Irritability.
3. Movement, Nutrition, Respiration and Excretion are also considered as the property of living things. The levels of organization in living organism begin with atoms and end in Biosphere. Each level cannot exist in isolation instead they form levels of integration
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

17. The movement of cytoplasm is called ____

1. Zygosis
2. Coniosis
3. Cyclosis
4. Genesis

Explanation

The movement of cytoplasm is called cytoplasmic streaming or cyclosis.

18. Which among the following is not the virus?

1. EBOLA
2. AQUIFICAE
3. ZIKA
4. SARS

Explanation

EBOLA, ZIKA, AIDS, SARS, H1N1 are example of virus. The word virus is derived from Latin meaning ‘Poison’. Viruses are sub-microscopic, obligate intracellular parasites. They have nucleic acid core surrounded by protein coat. Aquificae is a bacterium.

19. The study of viruses is called ___

1. Virucidal
2. Virulency
3. Virology
4. Virusoid

Explanation

The study of viruses is called Virology. Viruses in their native state contain only a single type of nucleic acid which may be either DNA or RNA.

20. Which American Scientist obtained virus in crystallised form from infected tobacco juice in the year 1935?

1. W.M. Stanley
2. J.H. Northrop
3. Dmitri Ivanovsky
4. T.H. Morgan

Explanation

W.M. Stanley is American Scientist obtained virus in crystallised form from infected tobacco juice in the year 1935. He was jointly awarded “Nobel Prize” with Dr. J.H. Northrop for Chemistry in 1946.

21. Who among the following used and created vaccination for small pox in 1796?

1. F.W. Twort
2. Robert Gallo
3. Edward Jenner
4. Adolf Mayer

Explanation

Edward Jenner used and created vaccination for small pox in 1796.

22. Viruses infecting bacteria are called ____

1. Bacterially
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Bacteriophages
4. All the above

Explanation

Viruses infecting bacteria are called Bacteriophages. It literally means ‘eaters of bacteria’ (Gr: Phagein = to eat). Phages are abundant in soil, sewage water, fruits, vegetables, and milk.

23. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Structure of T₄ bacteriophage?

1. The T₄ phage is tadpole shaped and consists of head, collar, tail, base plate and fibres. The head is hexagonal which consists of about 2000 identical protein subunits. The long helical tail consists of an inner tubular core which is connected to the head by a collar. There is a base plate attached to the end of tail.
2. The base plate contains seven spikes and tail fibres. These fibres are used to attach the phage on the cell wall of bacterial host during replication. A dsDNA molecule of about 100 µm is tightly packed inside the head. The DNA is about 1000 times smaller than the phage itself.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The base plate contains seven spikes and tail fibres. These fibres are used to attach the phage on the cell wall of bacterial host during replication. A dsDNA molecule of about 100 µm is tightly packed inside the head. The DNA is about 1000 times smaller than the phage itself.

24. Which among the following is not the non-living characteristic of virus?

1. Can be crystallised
2. Absence of metabolism
3. Inactive outside the host
4. Show irritability

Explanation

The Non-living characters of viruses are 1. Can be crystallized, 2. Absence of metabolism, 3. Inactive outside the host, 4. Do not show functional autonomy and 5. Energy producing enzyme system is absent.

25. Who among the following demonstrated the infectious nature of Tobacco mosaic virus using sap of mosaic leaves in 1886?

1. Dimitry Ivanowsky
2. M.W. Beijirink
3. F.W. Twort
4. Adolf Mayer

Explanation

In 1886 Adolf Mayer demonstrated the infectious nature of Tobacco mosaic virus using sap of mosaic leaves.

26. Viruses are smaller than bacteria and their diameter range from ____

1. 0.2 to 20 nm
2. 20 to 300 nm
3. 200 to 2000 nm
4. 2000 to 4000 nm

Explanation

Viruses are ultramicroscopic particles. They are smaller than bacteria and their diameter range from 20 to 300 nm. (1nm = 10^-9 metres). Bacteriophage measures about 10-100 nm in size. The size of TMV is 300×20 nm.

27. Generally viruses are how many types based on shape and symmetry?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Explanation

Generally, viruses are of three types based on shape and symmetry. They are i. Cuboid symmetry, ii. Helical symmetry and iii. Complex or Atypical.

28. Who gave the virus classification in year 1971 based on mechanism of RNA production, the nature of the genome, RNA or DNA, the use of reverse transcriptase (RT)?

1. David Baltimore
2. Dimitry Ivanowsky
3. F.W. Twort
4. Robert Gallo

Explanation

Among various classifications proposed for viruses the classification given by David Baltimore in the year 1971 is given below. The classification is based on mechanism of RNA production, the nature of the genome (single stranded –ss or double stranded – ds), RNA or DNA, the use of reverse transcriptase (RT), ss RNA may be (+) sense or (–) antisense. Viruses are classified into seven classes.

29. Which among the following is not the example of cuboid symmetry virus?

1. Adenovirus
2. Herpes virus
3. Bacteria phage
4. None of the above

Explanation

Cuboid symmetry – Example: Adenovirus, Herpes virus.

30. Which among the following is not the example of Helical symmetry virus?

1. Influenza virus
2. Vaccinia virus
3. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)
4. None of the above

Explanation

Helical symmetry – Example: Influenza virus, Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV). Complex or Atypical – Example: Bacteriophage, Vaccinia virus.

31. Which among the following is not the living characteristic of virus?

1. Presence of nucleic acid and protein
2. Capable of mutation
3. Host –specific
4. None of the above

Explanation

Living characters of virus are 1. Presence of nucleic acid and protein, 2. Capable of mutation, 3. Ability to multiply within living cells, 4. Able to infect and cause diseases in living beings,5. Show irritability and 6. Host –specific.

32. Which among the following statement is correct?

1. Each virus possesses only one type of nucleic acid either DNA or RNA. The nucleic acid may be in a linear or circular form. Generally nucleic acid is present as a single unit but in wound tumour virus and in influenza virus it is found in segments.
2. Majority of animal and bacterial viruses are RNA viruses (HIV is the animal virus which possess DNA). Plant viruses generally contain DNA (Cauliflower Mosaic virus possess RNA). The nucleic acids may be single stranded or double stranded.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Majority of animal and bacterial viruses are DNA viruses (HIV is the animal virus which possess RNA). Plant viruses generally contain RNA (Cauliflower Mosaic virus possess DNA). The nucleic acids may be single stranded or double stranded.

33. The viruses possessing DNA are called ____

1. Ominiviruses
2. Dvireviruses
3. Coxiviruses
4. Deoxyviruses

Explanation

The viruses possessing DNA are called ‘Deoxyviruses’.

34. The viruses possessing RNA are called _____

1. Riboviruses
2. Retroviruses
3. Coxiviruses
4. Temperviruses

Explanation

The viruses possessing RNA are called ‘Riboviruses’.

35. On the basis of nature of nucleic acid viruses are classified into how many categories?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Explanation

On the basis of nature of nucleic acid viruses are classified into four Categories. They are Viruses with ssDNA (Parvo viruses), dsDNA (Bacteriophages), ssRNA (TMV)and dsRNA(Wound Tumour Virus).

36. Tobacco mosaic virus was discovered in 1892 by whom from the Tobacco plant?

1. Dimitry Ivanowsky
2. M.W. Beijirink
3. F.W. Twort
4. Adolf Mayer

Explanation

Tobacco mosaic virus was discovered in 1892 by Dimitry Ivanowsky from the Tobacco plant. Viruses infect healthy plants through vectors like aphids, locusts etc. The first visible symptom of TMV is discoloration of leaf colour along the veins and show typical yellow and green mottling which is the mosaic symptom. The downward curling and distortion of young apical leaves occurs, plant becomes stunted and yield is affected.

37. Which among the following statement is correct regarding structure of Tobacco Mosaic Virus?

1. Electron microscopic studies have revealed that TMV is a rod shaped helical virus measuring about 300x20nm with a molecular weight of 39×106 Daltons. The virion is made up of two constituents, a protein coat called capsid and a core called nucleic acid.
2. The protein coat is made up of approximately 140 identical protein subunits called miterwort which are present around a central single stranded DNA molecule. The genetic information necessary for the formation of a complete TMV particle is contained in its DNA.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The protein coat is made up of approximately 2130 identical protein subunits called capsomeres which are present around a central single stranded RNA molecule. The genetic information necessary for the formation of a complete TMV particle is contained in its RNA.

38. In Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) RNA consists of how many nucleotides?

1. 1800
2. 3700
3. 6500
4. 9800

Explanation

In Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) RNA consists of 6,500 nucleotides.

39. Who among the following proved that viruses are smaller than bacteria?

1. Robert Gallo
2. Luc Montagnier
3. F.W. Twort
4. Dimitry Ivanowsky

Explanation

In 1892 Dimitry Ivanowsky proved that viruses are smaller than bacteria.

40. Which among the following is not the life cycle through which Phages multiply?

1. Lytic cycle
2. Lysogenic cycle
3. Lynchpin cycle
4. None of the above

Explanation

Phages multiply through two different types of life cycle. a. Lytic or Virulent cycle b. Lysogenic or Avirulent life cycle.

41. Which among the following is not the step involved in lytic cycle?

1. Adsorption
2. Penetration
3. Synthesis
4. Catalyst

Explanation

During lytic cycle of phage, disintegration of host bacterial cell occurs and the progeny virions are released (Figure 1.5a). The steps involved in the lytic cycle are as follows: (i) Adsorption, (ii) Penetration, (iii) Synthesis, (iv) Assembly and Maturation and (v) Release.

42. Which among the following statement is correct regarding adsorption process in lytic cycle?

1. Phage (T₄) particles interact with cell wall of host (E. coli). The phage tail makes contact between the two, and tail fibres recognize the specific receptor sites present on bacterial cell surface. The lipopolysaccharides of tail fibres act as receptor in phage.
2. The process involving the recognition of phage to bacterium is called sliding. Once the contact is established between tail fibres and bacterial cell, tail fibres bend to anchor the pins and base plate to the cell surface. This step is called surfacing.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The process involving the recognition of phage to bacterium is called landing. Once the contact is established between tail fibres and bacterial cell, tail fibres bend to anchor the pins and base plate to the cell surface. This step is called pinning.

43. Who among the following defined the infectious agent in tobacco leaves as ῾Contagium vivum fluidum’ in 1898?

1. Dimitry Ivanowsky
2. M.W. Beijirink
3. F.W. Twort
4. Adolf Mayer

Explanation

In 1898, M.W. Beijierink defined the infectious agent in tobacco leaves as ῾Contagium vivum fluidum’.

44. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding penetration process in lytic cycle?

1. The penetration process involves mechanical and enzymatic digestion of the cell wall of the host. At the recognition site phage digests certain cell wall structure by viral enzyme (lysozyme). After pinning the tail sheath contracts (using ATP) and appears shorter and thicker
2. After contraction of the base plate enlarges through which RNA is injected into the cell wall without using metabolic energy. The step involving injection of RNA particle alone into the bacterial cell is called Transfection. The empty protein coat leaving outside the cell is known as ‘Hall’.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

After contraction of the base plate enlarges through which DNA is injected into the cell wall without using metabolic energy. The step involving injection of DNA particle alone into the bacterial cell is called Transfection. The empty protein coat leaving outside the cell is known as ‘ghost’.

45. Who among the following identified Viral infection in Bacteria in 1915?

1. David Baltimore
2. d’Herelle
3. Robert Gallo
4. F.W. Twort

Explanation

In 1915 F.W.Twort identified Viral infection in Bacteria.

46. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding synthesis process in lytic cycle?

1. Synthesis step involves the degradation of bacterial chromosome, protein synthesis and DNA replication. The phage nucleic acid takes over the host biosynthetic machinery. Host DNA gets inactivated and breaks down.
2. Phage DNA suppresses the synthesis of bacterial protein and directs the metabolism of the cell to synthesis the proteins of the phage particles and simultaneously replication of Phage DNA also takes place.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Synthesis step involves the degradation of bacterial chromosome, protein synthesis and DNA replication. The phage nucleic acid takes over the host biosynthetic machinery. Host DNA gets inactivated and breaks down. Phage DNA suppresses the synthesis of bacterial protein and directs the metabolism of the cell to synthesis the proteins of the phage particles and simultaneously replication of Phage DNA also takes place.

47. The DNA of the phage and protein coat are synthesized separately and are assembled to form phage particles. The process of assembling the phage particles is known as ____

1. Contamination
2. Conjunction
3. Maturation
4. Release

Explanation

The DNA of the phage and protein coat are synthesized separately and are assembled to form phage particles. The process of assembling the phage particles is known as maturation. After 20 minutes of infection, about 300 new phages are assembled. The phage particle gets accumulated inside the host cell and are released by the lysis of host cell wall.

48. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Lysogenic Cycle

1. In the lysogenic cycle the phage DNA gets integrated into host RNA and gets multiplied along with nucleic acid of the host. More independent viral particle is formed. As soon as the phage injects its linear DNA into the host cell, it becomes rectangular and integrates into the bacterial chromosome by recombination.
2. The integrated phage DNA is now called prophage. The activity of the prophage gene is repressed by two repressor proteins which are synthesized by phage genes. This checks the synthesis of new phage within the host cell. However, each time the bacterial cell divides, the prophage multiplies along with the bacterial chromosome. On exposure to UV radiation and chemicals the excision of phage DNA may occur and results in lytic cycle.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

In the lysogenic cycle the phage DNA gets integrated into host DNA and gets multiplied along with nucleic acid of the host. No independent viral particle is formed. As soon as the phage injects its linear DNA into the host cell, it becomes circular and integrates into the bacterial chromosome by recombination.

49. Viruses infecting blue green algae are called _____

1. Cyanophages
2. Prions
3. Monera
4. Plantae

Explanation

Viruses infecting blue green algae are called Cyanophages.

50. Who coined the term ‘Bacteriophage’ in 1917?

1. Luc Montagnier
2. Robert Gallo
3. d’Herelle
4. David Baltimore

Explanation

In 1917 d’Herelle coined the term ‘Bacteriophage’.

51. Who among the following first reported cyanophages in 1963?

1. Luc Montagnier and Robert Gallo
2. Safferman and Morris
3. David Baltimore and Adolf Mayer
4. Edward Jenner and Carl Linnaeus

Explanation

Cyanophages are first reported by Safferman and Morris in the year 1963(Example LPP1 – Lyngbya, Plectonema and Phormidium).

52. The viruses attacking fungi are called ____

1. Herpesviruses
2. Hantaviruses
3. Parvoviruses
4. Mycoviruses

Explanation

Hollings (1962) reported viruses infecting cultivated Mushrooms and causing die back disease. The viruses attacking fungi are called Mycoviruses or Mycophages.

53. Which is an intact infective virus particle which is non-replicating outside a host cell?

1. Viroid
2. Virion
3. Virusoid
4. Prions

Explanation

Virion is an intact infective virus particle which is non-replicating outside a host cell.

54. Which among the following were discovered by J.W.Randles and Co-workers in 1981?

1. Viroid
2. Virion
3. Virusoids
4. Prions

Explanation

Virusoids were discovered by J.W.Randles and Co-workers in 1981.They are the small circular RNAs which are similar to viroids but they are always linked with larger molecules of the viral RNA.

55. Viroid is a circular molecule of ssRNA without a capsid and was discovered by whom in the year 1971?

1. T.O. Diener
2. Stanley B. Prusiner
3. Carl Linnaeus
4. R.H. Whittaker

Explanation

Viroid is a circular molecule of ssRNA without a capsid and was discovered by T.O. Diener in the year 1971. The RNA of viroid has low molecular weight. Viroids cause citrus exocortis and potato spindle tuber disease in plants.

56. Prions were discovered by whom in 1982?

1. Stanley B. Prusiner
2. Carl Linnaeus
3. R.H. Whittaker
4. Copeland

Explanation

Prions were discovered by Stanley B. Prusiner in the year 1982 and are proteinaceous infectious particles. They are the causative agents for about a dozen fatal degenerative disorders of the central nervous system of humans and other animals. For example, Creutzfeldt – Jakob Disease (CJD), Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) – commonly known as mad cow disease and scrapie disease of sheep.

57. Streaks on Tulip flowers are due to Tulip Breaking Virus which belong to what group?

1. Baculoviridae group
2. Potyviridae group
3. Secoviridae group
4. All the above

Explanation

Streaks on Tulip flowers are due to Tulip Breaking Virus which belong to Potyviridae group.

58. Virus of which group are commercially exploited as insecticides?

1. Baculoviridae group
2. Secoviridae group
3. gakoviridae group
4. All the above

Explanation

Viruses of Baculoviridae group are commercially exploited as insecticides. Cytoplasmic Polyhedrosis Granulo viruses and Entomopox viruses were employed as potential insecticides.

59. Which among the following is not example of disorder caused by Prions?

1. Creutzfeldt – Jakob Disease
2. Mad cow disease
3. Scrapie disease of sheep
4. none of the above

Explanation

Creutzfeldt – Jakob Disease (CJD), Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) – commonly known as mad cow disease and scrapie disease of sheep are the example of disorder caused by prions.

60. Who among the following discovered HIV (Human Immuno Deficiency Virus) in 1984?

1. Luc Montagnier and Robert Gallo
2. Safferman and Morris
3. David Baltimore and Adolf Mayer
4. Edward Jenner and Carl Linnaeus

Explanation

In 1984 Luc Montagnier and Robert Gallo discovered HIV (Human Immuno Deficiency Virus).

61. Who among the following is “Father of Botany”?

1. Carl Linnaeus
2. Copeland
3. Theophrastus
4. Aristotle

Explanation

Theophrastus, “Father of Botany” used the morphological characters to classify plants into trees, shrubs and herbs.

62. Who classified animals into two groups. i.e., Enaima (with red blood) and Anaima (without red blood)?

1. Socrates
2. Aristotle
3. Copeland
4. Plato

Explanation

Aristotle classified animals into two groups. i.e., Enaima (with red blood) and Anaima (without red blood).

63. Match the following system of classification with who proposed it

1. Two Kingdom – 1. Copeland
2. Three Kingdom – 2. R.H. Whittaker
3. Four Kingdom – 3. Ernst Haeckel
4. Five Kingdom – 4. Carl Linnaeus
5. 4 – 3 – 1 – 2
6. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
7. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
8. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

Explanation

Two kingdom – Carl Linnaeus; Three kingdom – Ernst Haeckel; Four Kingdom – Copeland; Five kingdom – R.H. Whittaker.

64. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Carl Linnaeus classified living world into two groups namely Plants and Animals based on morphological characters. His classification faced major setback because Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes were grouped together.
2. Similarly, fungi, heterotrophic organisms were placed along with the photosynthetic plants. In course of time, the development of tools compelled taxonomists to look for different areas like cytology, anatomy, embryology, molecular biology, phylogeny etc., for classifying organisms on earth. Thus, new dimensions to classifications were put forth from time to time.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

65. Which among the following was not included in Five kingdom classification proposed by R.H. Whittaker?

1. Protista
2. Baryta
3. Monera
4. Plantae

Explanation

R.H. Whittaker, an American taxonomist proposed five Kingdom classification in the year 1969. The Kingdoms include Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. The criteria adopted for the classification include cell structure, thallus organization, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationship.

66. Which among the following is not the merits of Five Kingdom Classification?

1. The classification is based on the complexity of cell structure and organization of thallus.
2. It is based on the mode of nutrition and Separation of fungi from plants
3. It shows the phylogeny of the organisms
4. None of the above

67. Which among the following was not included in Five Kingdom Classification?

1. Fungi
2. Monera
3. Virus
4. Protista

Explanation

The Kingdom Monera and Protista accommodate both autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms, cell wall lacking and cell wall bearing organisms thus making these two groups more heterogeneous. Viruses were not included in the system.

68. Who among the following in the year 1990 introduced three domains of life?

1. Carl Woese
2. Thomas Cavalier Smith
3. Copeland
4. Ruggierio et al

Explanation

Carl Woese and co-workers in the year 1990 introduced three domains of life viz.,Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya based on the difference in rRNA nucleotide sequence, lipid structure of the cell membrane.

69. A revised six Kingdom classification for living world was proposed by whom in year 1998?

1. Ruggierio et al
2. Copeland
3. Thomas Cavalier Smith
4. Ernst Haeckel

Explanation

A revised six Kingdom classification for living world was proposed by Thomas Cavalier-Smith in the year 1998 and the Kingdom Monera is divided in to Archaebacteria and Eubacteria.

70. Who among the following in 2015 published a seven Kingdom classification which is a practical extension of Thomas Cavalier’s six Kingdom scheme?

1. Robert Koch
2. Christian Gram
3. Copeland
4. Ruggierio et al

Explanation

Ruggierio et al., 2015 published a seven Kingdom classification which is a practical extension of Thomas Cavalier’s six Kingdom scheme. According to this classification there are two Super Kingdoms. (Prokaryota and Eukaryota).

71. In seven kingdom classification, which among the following doesn’t come under Eukaryota?

1. Protozoa
2. Fungi
3. Eubacteria
4. Chromista

Explanation

Prokaryota includes two Kingdoms namely Archaebacteria and Eubacteria. Eukaryota includes the Protozoa, Chromista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.

72. Which among the following kingdom includes all algae whose chloroplasts contain chlorophyll a and c, as well as various colourless forms that are closely related to them?

1. Protozoa
2. Chromista
3. Fungi
4. Plantae

Explanation

A new Kingdom, the Chromista was erected and it included all algae whose chloroplasts contain chlorophyll a and c, as well as various colourless forms that are closely related to them. Diatoms, Brown algae, Cryptomonads and Oomycetes were placed under this Kingdom.

73. Which is caused by toxic bloom of Dinoflagellates like Gymnodinium breve and Gonyaulax tamarensis?

1. Blue tide
2. Red tide
3. Green tide
4. Yellow tide

Explanation

Red tide is caused by toxic bloom of Dinoflagellates like Gymnodinium breve and Gonyaulax tamarensis.

74. Which bacterium present in curd that turns milk into curd when added?

1. Lactobacillus lactis
2. Viridian streptococci
3. Eikenella cloacae
4. Acetobacter

Explanation

A little drop of curd turns the milk into curd after some time. The change is brought by Lactobacillus lactis, a bacterium present in the curd. The sourness is due to the formation of Lactic acid.

75. Typhoid is a bacterial disease caused which bacterium?

1. Salmonella typhi
2. Acetobacter typhi
3. Gardnerella typhi
4. Klebsiella typhi

Explanation

Typhoid is a bacterial disease caused by Salmonella typhi, a bacterium. So, we can consider this prokaryotic organism as friend and foe, due to their beneficial and harmful activities.

76. Which German physician and microbiologist is considered as the founder of modern bacteriology?

1. Robert Koch
2. Joshua Lederberg
3. Christian gram
4. C.G. Ehrenberg

Explanation

Robert Heinrich Hermann Koch was a German physician and microbiologist. Robert Koch is considered as the founder of modern bacteriology. The experimental evidence for the concept of infection was proved by him (Koch’s postulates). He was awarded Nobel prize in Medicine/Physiology in the year 1905.

77. Which among the following disease causal organism was not identified by Robert Koch?

1. Anthrax
2. Cholera
3. Tuberculosis
4. Small pox

Explanation

Robert Koch identified the causal organism for Anthrax, Cholera and Tuberculosis.

78. Who among the following coined the term Bacterium?

1. Joshua Lederberg
2. C.G. Ehrenberg
3. Christian gram
4. Fredrick Griffith

Explanation

In 1829 C.G. Ehrenberg coined the term Bacterium.

79. Bacteria were first discovered by which Dutch scientist in 1676?

1. Robert Hooke
2. Rudolf Virchow
3. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
4. Matthias Jakob Schleiden

Explanation

Bacteria are prokaryotic, unicellular, ubiquitous, microscopic organisms. The study of Bacteria is called Bacteriology. Bacteria were first discovered by a Dutch scientist, Anton van Leeuwenhoek in 1676 and were called “animalcules”.

80. Which among the following characteristic features of Bacteria is incorrect

1. They are Prokaryotic organisms and lack nuclear membrane and membrane bound organelles.
2. The Genetic material is called nucleoid or genophore or incipient nucleus
3. The cell wall is made up of melanocyte and carbons
4. They reproduce vegetatively by Binary fission and endospore formation.

Explanation

The cell wall is made up of Polysaccharides and proteins. Most of them lack chlorophyll, hence they are heterotrophic (Vibrio cholerae) but some are autotrophic and possess Bacteriochlorophyll (Chromatium).

81. The bacterial cell reveals how many layers?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Explanation

The bacterial cell reveals three layers (i) Capsule/Glycocalyx (ii) Cell wall and (iii) Cytoplasm.

82. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Capsule/Glycocalyx layer of bacteria?

1. Some bacteria are surrounded by a gelatinous substance which is composed of polysaccharides or polypeptide or both. A thick layer of glycocalyx bound tightly to the cell wall is called capsule.
2. Capsule protects cell from desiccation and antibiotics. The sticky nature helps them to attach to substrates like plant root surfaces, Human teeth and tissues. It helps to retain the nutrients in bacterial cell.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

83. Which among the following is not caused by Helicobacter pylori, a Gram negative bacterium?

1. Duodenal
2. Dermatitis
3. Gastric ulcers
4. None of the above

Explanation

Duodenal and Gastric ulcers are caused by Helicobacter pylori, a Gram negative bacterium.

84. Bt toxin from which bacterium finds application in raising insect resistant crops (Bt Crops)?

1. Arthrobacter luteus
2. Beauveria bassiana
3. Micrococcus lylae
4. Bacillus thuringiensis

Explanation

Bt toxin from Bacillus thuringiensis finds application in raising insect resistant crops (Bt Crops).

85. Which among the following statement is correct regarding bacterial cell?

1. The bacterial cell wall is granular and is flexible. It provides protection and gives shape to the cell. The chemical composition of cell wall is rather simple and is made up of histone or peptidoglycan. One of the most abundant polypeptides called sine is present and it helps in the diffusion of solutes.
2. Cytoplasm is thick and semi-transparent. It contains ribosomes and other cell inclusions. Cytoplasmic inclusions like glycogen, poly-βhydroxybutyrate granules, sulphur granules and gas vesicles are present
3. The plasma membrane is made up of lipoprotein. It controls the entry and exit of small molecules and ions. The enzymes involved in the oxidation of metabolites (i.e., the respiratory chain) as well as the photosystems used in photosynthesis are present in the plasma membrane.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The bacterial cell wall is granular and is rigid. It provides protection and gives shape to the cell. The chemical composition of cell wall is rather complex and is made up of peptidoglycan or mucopeptide (N-acetyl glucosamine, N-acetyl muramic acid and peptide chain of 4 or 5 aminoacids). One of the most abundant polypeptide called porin is present and it helps in the diffusion of solutes.

86. In 1884 Christian Gram introduced which method?

1. Gram folio method
2. Gram staining method
3. Gram ribsome method
4. Gram calibre method

Explanation

In 1884 Christian Gram introduced Gram staining method.

87. Which among the following statement regarding Bacterial chromosome is correct?

1. The bacterial chromosome is a single circular DNA molecule, tightly coiled and is not enclosed in a membrane as in Eukaryotes. This genetic material is called Nucleoid or Genophore.
2. It is amazing to note that the DNA of E.coli which measures about 1nm long when uncoiled, contains all the genetic information of the organism. The DNA is bound to the histone proteins.
3. The single chromosome or the DNA molecule is circular and at one point it is attached to the plasma membrane and it is believed that this attachment may help in the separation of two chromosomes after DNA replication.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

It is amazing to note that the DNA of E.coli which measures about 1mm long when uncoiled, contains all the genetic information of the organism. The DNA is not bound to histone proteins.

88. Which among the following statement is correct regarding plasmid in bacterial cell

1. Plasmids are extra chromosomal double stranded, circular, self-replicating, autonomous elements. The size of a plasmid varies from 1 to 500 kb usually plasmids contribute to about 0.5 to 5.0% of the total DNA of bacteria.
2. They contain genes for fertility, antibiotic resistant and heavy metals. It also help in the production of bacteriocins and toxins which are not found in bacterial chromosome. The number of plasmids per cell varies.
3. Plasmids are classified into different types based on the function. Some of them are F (Fertility) factor, R (Resistance) plasmids, Col (Colicin) plasmids, Ri (Root inducing) plasmids and Ti (Tumour inducing) plasmids.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

89. Certain motile bacteria have numerous thin hair like projections of variable length emerge from the cell wall called _____

1. Polysomes
2. Polyribsomes
3. Flagella
4. Pili

Explanation

Certain motile bacteria have numerous thin hair like projections of variable length emerge from the cell wall called flagella. It is 20–30 μm in diameter and 15 μm in length. The flagella of Eukaryotic cells contain 9+2 microtubles but each flagellum in bacteria is made up of a single fibril. Flagella are used for locomotion. Based on the number and position of flagella there are different types of bacteria.

90. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Mesosomes are localized infoldings of plasma membrane produced into the cell in the form of vesicles, tubules and lamellae. They are clumped and folded together to maximize their surface area and helps in respiration and in binary fission.
2. The ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. The number of ribosomes per cell varies from 1000 to 5,000. The ribosomes are 70S type and consists of three subunits (65S, 50S and 30S). The ribosomes are held together by DNA and form polyribosomes or polysomes.
3. Pili or fimbriae are hair like appendages found on surface of cell wall of gram-negative bacteria (Example: Enterobacterium). The pili are 0.2 to 20 µm long with a diameter of about 0.025µm. In addition to normal pili there are special type of pili which help in conjugation called sex pili are also found.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. The number of ribosomes per cell varies from 10,000 to 15,000. The ribosomes are 70S type and consists of two subunits (50S and 30S). The ribosomes are held together by mRNA and form polyribosomes or polysomes.

91. Who published First edition of Bergey’s Manual in 1923?

1. Fredrick Griffith
2. Joshua Griffith
3. David H. Bergy
4. Robert Koch

Explanation

In 1923 David H. Bergy published First edition of Bergey’s Manual.

92. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Gram staining procedure?

1. The Gram staining method to differentiate bacteria was developed by Danish Physician Christian Gram in the year1884. It is a differential staining procedure and it classifies bacteria into two classes – Gram positive and Gram negative. The steps involved in Gram staining procedure.
2. The Gram-positive bacteria retain crystal red and appear dark brown whereas Gram negative type lose the crystal red and when counterstained by safranin appear yellow under a microscope. Most of the gram-positive cell wall contain considerable amount of teichoic acid and teichuronic acid. In addition, they may contain polysaccharide molecules.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The Gram-positive bacteria retain crystal violet and appear dark violet whereas Gram negative type loose the crystal violet and when counterstained by safranin appear red under a microscope. Most of the gram-positive cell wall contain considerable amount of teichoic acid and teichuronic acid. In addition, they may contain polysaccharide molecules.

93. Which among the following is not the component of gram-negative cell wall?

1. Lipoprotein
2. Outer membrane
3. Lipopolysaccharide
4. Histone

Explanation

The gram-negative cell wall contains three components that lie outside the peptidoglycan layer. 1. Lipoprotein 2. Outer membrane 3. Lipopolysaccharide. Thus, the different results in the gram stain are due to differences in the structure and composition of the cell wall.

94. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Two types of respiration are found in Bacteria. They are 1. Aerobic respiration 2. Anaerobic respiration. Anaerobic respiration bacteria do not use oxygen for growth and metabolism but obtain their energy from fermentation reactions. Example: Clostridium.
2. Aerobic respiration bacteria require oxygen as terminal acceptor and will not grow under anaerobic conditions. (i.e., in the absence of O2) Example: Streptococcus. Some Micrococcus species are obligate aerobes (i.e., they must have oxygen to survive).
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Two types of respiration are found in Bacteria. They are Aerobic respiration, Anaerobic respiration. Aerobic respiration bacteria require oxygen as terminal acceptor and will not grow under anaerobic conditions. (i.e. in the absence of O2) Example: Streptococcus.Obligate aerobes

Some Micrococcus species are obligate aerobes (i.e. they must have oxygen to survive).

Anaerobic respiration These bacteria do not use oxygen for growth and metabolism but obtain their energy from fermentation reactions.Example: Clostridium.

95. There are bacteria that can grow either using oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor or anaerobically using fermentation reaction to obtain energy. This respiration is called ____

1. Facultative anaerobes
2. Precipitative anaerobes
3. Phenomena anaerobes
4. Conjunction anaerobes

Explanation

There are bacteria that can grow either using oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor or anaerobically using fermentation reaction to obtain energy. This respiration is called facultative anaerobes. When a facultative anaerobe such as E. coli is present at a site of infection like an abdominal abscess, it can rapidly consume all available O2 and change to anaerobic metabolism producing an anaerobic environment and thus allow the anaerobic bacteria that are present to grow and cause disease. Example: Escherichia coli and Salmonella.

96. Who among the following discovered bacterial transformation in 1928?

1. Fredrick Griffith
2. Joshua Griffith
3. David H. Bergy
4. Robert Koch

Explanation

In 1928 Fredrick Griffith discovered Bacterial transformation.

97. Which among the following bacteria is not the example of facultative anaerobes?

1. Escherichia coli
2. Streptococcus
3. Salmonella
4. None of the above

Explanation

Examples of facultative anaerobes are Escherichia coli and Salmonella.

98. Bacteria which require CO2 for their growth are called as _____

1. Capnophilic bacteria
2. Caprification bacteria
3. Capercaillie bacteria
4. Capitularies bacteria

Explanation

Bacteria which require CO₂ for their growth are called as capnophilic bacteria. Example: Campylobacter.

99. Who among the following discovered plasmid in 1952?

1. Robert Koch
2. Joshua Lederberg
3. Alexander Fleming
4. E.J. Butler

Explanation

In 1952 Joshua Lederberg discovered Plasmid.

100. Which among the following is not the classification of bacteria on the basis of their mode of nutrition?

1. Autotrophs
2. Heterotrophs
3. Saprotrophs
4. None of above

Explanation

On the basis of their mode of nutrition bacteria are classified into two types namely autotrophs and heterotrophs.

101. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Bacteria which can synthesise their own food are called autotrophic bacteria. They may be further subdivided as Photoautotrophic bacteria and Chemoautotrophic bacteria. In Photoautotrophic bacteria use sunlight as their source of energy to synthesize food. They may be Photolithotrophs and Photo organotrophs.
2. In photolithotrophs the nitrogen donor is an inorganic substance. They are white and purple sulphur bacteria. In White sulphur bacteria the nitrogen donor is H₂S and possess pigment called Bacteriocanil. Example: Chlorobium.
3. Purple sulphur bacteria belong to this group the hydrogen donor is thiosulphate, Bacteriochlorophyll is present. Chlorophyll containing chlorosomes are present Example: Chromatium. Photoorganotrophs utilize organic acid or alcohol as hydrogen donor. Example: Purple non sulphur bacteria – Rhodospirillum.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

In photolithotrophs the hydrogen donor is an inorganic substance. They are green and purple sulphur bacteria. In Green sulphur bacteria the hydrogen donor is H2S and possess pigment called Bacterioviridin. Example: Chlorobium.

102. Which among the following is the example of Sulphur bacteria?

1. Hydrogenomonas
2. Ferrobacillus ferrooxidans
3. Thiobacillus thiooxidans
4. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter

Explanation

Chemolithotrophs type of bacteria oxidize inorganic compound to release energy. Sulphur bacteria – Thiobacillus thiooxidans.

103. Which among the following is not Chemoorganotrophs?

1. Methanococcu
2. Acetobacter
3. Lactobacillus
4. Nitrobacter

Explanation

Chemoorganotrophs type of bacteria oxidize organic compounds to release energy. Examples: 1. Methane bacteria – Methanococcus 2. Acetic acid bacteria – Acetobacter 3. Lactic acid bacteria – Lactobacillus

104. Which among the following is example of Iron bacteria?

1. Hydrogenomonas
2. Ferrobacillus ferrooxidans
3. Thiobacillus thiooxidans
4. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter

Explanation

Examples of Chemolithotrophs are Iron bacteria – Ferrobacillus ferrooxidans; Hydrogen bacteria – Hydrogenomonas; Nitrifying bacteria – Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.

105. Which among the following is not Heterotrophic Bacteria?

1. Mycobacterium
2. Bacillus mycoides
3. Rhizobium
4. None of the above

Explanation

Heterotrophic Bacteria are Parasites (Mycobacterium) Saprophytes (Bacillus mycoides) or Symbiotic (Rhizobium in root nodules of leguminous crops).

106. Which among the following is not the asexual reproduction method of bacteria?

1. Binary fission
2. Conidia
3. Conjugation
4. Endospore formation

Explanation

Bacteria reproduces asexually by binary fission, conidia and endospore formation. Among these, binary fission is the most common one.

107. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Binary fission: Under favourable conditions the cell divides into four daughter cells. The nuclear material divides first and it is followed by the formation of a simple median constriction which finally results in the separation of four cells.
2. Endospores: During unfavourable condition bacteria produce endospores. Endospores are produced in Bacillus megaterium, Bacillus sphaericus and Clostridium tetani. Endospores are thick-walled resting spores. During favourable condition, they germinate and form bacteria.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Binary fission: Under favourable conditions the cell divides into two daughter cells. The nuclear material divides first and it is followed by the formation of a simple median constriction which finally results in the separation of two cells.

108. In sexual reproduction gene recombination can occur in bacteria by how different methods?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Six

Explanation

Typical sexual reproduction involving the formation and fusion of gametes is absent in bacteria. However gene recombination can occur in bacteria by three different methods they are 1. Conjugation 2. Transformation 3. Transduction.

109. Who among the following demonstrated conjugation in E. coli. in the year 1946?

1. Mark S. Smolinski and Sydney Brenner
2. J. Lederberg and Edward L. Tatum
3. Fredrick Griffith and Norton Zinder
4. Sydney Brenner and Edward L. Tatum

Explanation

J. Lederberg and Edward L. Tatum demonstrated conjugation in E. coli. in the year 1946.

110. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. In this method of gene transfer the donor cell gets attached to the recipient cell with the help of pili. The pilus grows in size and forms the conjugation tube. The plasmid of donor cell which has the F+ (fertility factor) undergoes replication.
2. One pair of strands of DNA is transferred to the recipient cell through conjugation tube. The recipient completes the structure of quad stranded DNA by synthesizing the strand that complements the strand acquired from the donor.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Only one strand of DNA is transferred to the recipient cell through conjugation tube. The recipient completes the structure of double stranded DNA by synthesizing the strand that complements the strand acquired from the donor.

111. Match the following host plant with its disease?

1. Rice – 1. Angular leaf spot
2. Apple – 2. Bacterial blight
3. Carrot – 3. Ring rot
4. Cotton – 4. Fire blight
5. Potato – 5. Soft rot
6. 4 – 2 – 1 – 5 – 3
7. 3 – 1 – 5 – 2 – 4
8. 5 – 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
9. 2 – 4 – 5 – 1 – 3

Explanation

Rice – Bacterial blight (Xanthomonas oryzae); Apple – Fire blight (Erwinia amylovora); Carrot – Soft rot (Erwinia caratovora); Cotton – Angular leaf spot (Xanthomonas malvacearum); Potato – Ring rot (Clavibacter michiganensis subsp. Sepedonicus).

112. In 1928 which bacteriologist demonstrated transformation in Mice using Diplococcus pneumoniae?

1. J. Lederberg
2. Fredrik Griffith
3. Edward L. Tatum
4. Norton Zinder

Explanation

In 1928 the bacteriologist Frederick Griffith demonstrated transformation in Mice using Diplococcus pneumoniae.

113. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Transformation in sexual reproduction of bacteria?

1. Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another is called transformation. Two strains of this bacterium are present. One strain produces smooth colonies and are virulent in nature (S-type). In addition another strain produce rough colonies and are avirulent (R-type).
2. When S-type of cells were injected into the mouse, the mouse died. When R-type of cells were injected, the mouse survived. He injected heat killed S-type cells into the mouse. The mouse did not die. When the mixture of heat killed S-type cells and R-type cells were injected into the mouse, the mouse died.
3. The avirulent rough strain of Diplococcus had been transformed into S-type cells. The hereditary material of heat killed S-type cells had transformed R-type cell into virulent smooth strains. Thus, the phenomenon of changing the character of one strain by transferring the DNA of another strain into the former is called Transformation.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

114. In 1952 who discovered Transduction in Salmonella typhimurum?

1. Brenner and Lederberg
2. Gunther Avery and Smolinski
3. Zinder and Lederberg
4. Oswald and Brenner

Explanation

Zinder and Lederberg (1952) discovered Transduction in Salmonella typhimurum. Phage mediated DNA transfer is called Transduction. Transduction is of two types (i) The ability of a bacteriophage to carry genetic material of any region of bacterial DNA is called generalised transduction and (ii) The ability of the bacteriophage to carry only a specific region of the bacterial DNA is called specialized or restricted transduction.

115. Which among the following animal disease is incorrectly matched with its pathogen(bacteria)?

1. Anthrax (sheep) – Bacillus anthracis
2. Brucellosis (Cattle) – Brucella abortus
3. Bovine tuberculosis (Cattle) – Mycobacterium bovis
4. Black leg (Cattle) – Treponema pallidum

Explanation

Black leg (Cattle) – Clostridium chauvoei.

116. Scab disease in potato is caused by which bacteria?

1. Xanthomonas scabies
2. Streptomyces scabies
3. Bacillus scabies
4. Streptomyces scabies

Explanation

Scab disease in potato is caused by Streptomyces scabies.

117. Which among the following is not the Nitrogen fixation bacteria?

1. Escherichia
2. Azotobacter
3. Clostridium
4. Rhizobium

Explanation

Nitrogen fixation bacteria are 1. Azotobacter 2. Clostridium 3. Rhizobium.

118. Which synthesize PHB (Poly-β-hydroxyl butyrate) a microbial plastic which is biodegradable?

1. Ralstonia
2. Clostridium
3. Mycoides
4. Clostridium

Explanation

Bacteria forms Biofilms and leads to dental caries and Urinary tract infection (UTI). Ralstonia synthesize PHB (Poly-β-hydroxyl butyrate) a microbial plastic which is biodegradable.

119. Which among the following are primitive prokaryotes and are adapted to thrive in extreme environments like hot springs, high salinity, low pH and so on?

1. Archaebacteria
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Salmonella
4. Mycobacterium

Explanation

Archaebacteria are primitive prokaryotes and are adapted to thrive in extreme environments like hot springs, high salinity, low pH and so on. They are mostly chemoautotrophs. The unique feature of this group is the presence of lipids like glycerol & isopropyl ethers in their cell membrane. Due to the unique chemical composition the cell membrane show resistance against cell wall antibiotics and lytic agents. Example: Methanobacterium, Halobacterium, Thermoplasma.

120. Match the following disease along with its pathogen(Bacteria)

1. Plague – 1. Treponema pallidum
2. Food poisoning – 2. Mycobacterium leprae
3. Syphilis – 3. Yersinia pestis
4. Leprosy – 4. Clostridium botulinum
5. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
6. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
7. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
8. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

Explanation

1. Cholera – Vibrio cholerae, 2. Typhoid – Salmonella typhi, 3. Tuberculosis – Mycobacterium tuberculosis, 4. Leprosy – Mycobacterium leprae, 5. Pneumonia – Diplococcus pneumoniae, 6. Plague – Yersinia pestis, 7. Diphtheria – Corynebacterium diptheriae, 8. Tetanus – Clostridium tetani, 9. Food poisoning – Clostridium botulinum and 10. Syphilis – Treponema pallidum.

121. Intracellular chains of 40-50 magnetite (Fe₃O₄) particles are found in which bacterium?

1. Aquaspirillum magnetotacticum
2. Clostridium magnetotacticum
3. Lactobacillus magnetotacticum
4. Bacillus magnetotacticum

Explanation

Intracellular chains of 40-50 magnetite (Fe3O4) particles are found in bacterium Aquaspirillum magnetotacticum. and it help the bacterium to locate nutrient rich sediments. This is known as Magnetosomes.

122. Which among the following bacterium is not used to prepare probiotic yoghurt and tooth paste?

1. Lactobacillus
2. Bifidobacterium
3. Xanthomonas
4. None of the above

Explanation

Probiotic milk products and tooth paste are available in the market. Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium are used to prepare probiotic yoghurt and tooth paste.

123. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Cyanobacteria (Blue Green Algae)

1. Stromatolites are deposits formed when colonies of cyanobacteria bind with magnesium sulphate. They have a geological age of 1.2 million years. Their abundance in the fossil record indicates that cyanobacteria helped in raising the level of free carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
2. Cyanobacteria are popularly called as ‘Blue green algae’ or ‘Cyanophyceae’. They are photosynthetic, prokaryotic organisms. According to evolutionary record Cyanobacteria are primitive forms and are found in different habitats. Most of them are fresh water and few are marine (Trichodesmium and Dermacarpa) Trichodesmium erythraeum a cyanobacterium imparts red colour to Red sea.
3. Species of Nostoc, Anabaena lead an endophytic life in the coralloid root of Cycas, leaves of aquatic fern Azolla by establishing a symbiotic association and fix atmospheric nitrogen. Members like Gloeocapsa, Nostoc, Scytonema are found as phycobionts in lichen thalli.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Stromatolites are deposits formed when colonies of cyanobacteria bind with calcium carbonate. They have a geological age of 2.7 billion years. Their abundance in the fossil record indicates that cyanobacteria helped in raising the level of free oxygen in the atmosphere.

124. Which among the following bacteria does not convert ammonium salts into nitrites and nitrates?

1. Nitrobacter
2. Nitrosomonas
3. Nitroparaffin
4. None of the above

Explanation

Nitrobacter and Nitrosomonas are the bacteria convert ammonium salts into nitrites and nitrates (Nitrification).

125. Which among the following bacteria convert complex proteins in the dead bodies of plants and animals into ammonia which is later converted into ammonium salt?

1. Bacillus licheniformis
2. Bacillus mycoides
3. Bacillus polymyxa
4. All the above

Explanation

Bacillus ramosus and Bacillus mycoides are bacteria that convert complex proteins in the dead bodies of plants and animals into ammonia which is later converted into ammonium salt.

126. Match the following antibiotics with its respective bacteria?

1. Aureomycin – 1. Bacillus licheniformis
2. Chloromycetin – 2. Streptomyces aureofaciens
3. Bacitracin – 3. Streptomyces venezuelae
4. Polymyxin – 4. Bacillus polymyxa
5. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
6. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1
7. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
8. 3 – 4 – 2 – 1

Explanation

1. Streptomycin – Streptomyces griseus 2. Aureomycin – Streptomyces aureofaciens 3. Chloromycetin – Streptomyces venezuelae 4. Bacitracin – Bacillus licheniformis 5. Polymyxin – Bacillus polymyxa.

127. Which among the following statement is correct regarding cyanobacteria?

1. The members of cyanobacteria are prokaryotes and lack motile reproductive structures. The thallus is unicellular in Chroococcus, Colonial in Gloeocapsa and filamentous trichome in Nostoc. Gliding movement is noticed in some species (Oscillatoria). The protoplasm is differentiated into central region called centroplasm and peripheral region bearing chromatophore called chromoplasm.
2. The photosynthetic pigments include c-phyocyanin and c-phycoerythrin along with myxoxanthin and myxoxanthophyll. The reserve food material is Cyanophycean starch. In some forms a large colourless cell is found in the terminal or intercalary position called Heterocysts. They are involved in nitrogen fixation. They reproduce only through vegetative methods and produce Akinetes, Hormogonia, fission and endospores.
3. The presence of mucilage around the thallus is characteristic feature of this group. Therefore, this group is also called Myxophyceae. Sexual reproduction is absent. Microcystis aeruginosa, Anabaena flos-aquae cause water blooms and release toxins and affect the aquatic organism.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

128. Which is a superbug genetically engineered which breakdown hydrocarbons?

1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2. Pseudomonas putida
3. Thermus aquaticus
4. Methylophilus methylotrophus

Explanation

Pseudomonas putida is a superbug genetically engineered which breakdown hydrocarbons.

129. Which among the following is a portion of filament get detached and reproduce by cell division in cyanobacteria?

1. Pruteen
2. Hormogonia
3. Akinetes
4. All the above

Explanation

Hormogonia is a portion of filament get detached and reproduce by cell division and Akinetes is thick wall dormant cell formed from vegetative cell.

130. A prokaryote take a joy ride in which among the following animal?

1. Elephant
2. Dolphin
3. Polar bear
4. Jaguar

Explanation

A prokaryote takes a joy ride on polar bear (Aphanocapsa montana – a cyanobacterium grow on the fur of polar bear). Most of cyanobacterium fix atmospheric nitrogen and are used as biofertilizers (Example: Nostoc, Anabaena). Spirulina is rich in protein hence it is used as single cell protein.

131. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Mycoplasma or Mollicutes

1. The Mycoplasma are very small (0.1–0.5µm), pleomorphic gram-negative microorganisms. They are first isolated by Nocard and coworkers in the year 1898 from pleural fluid of cattle affected with bovine pleuropneumonia. They lack cell wall and appear like “Fried Egg” in culture.
2. The DNA contains high Guanine and Cytosine content than true bacteria. They cause disease in virus and plants. Little leaf of brinjal, witches’ broom of legumes phyllody of cloves, sandal spike are some plant diseases caused by mycoplasma. Pleuropneumonia is caused by virus host Mycoplasma mycoides.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The DNA contains low Guanine and Cytosine content than true bacteria. They cause disease in animals and plants. Little leaf of brinjal, witches’ broom of legumes phyllody of cloves, sandal spike are some plant diseases caused by mycoplasma. Pleuropneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma mycoides.

132. Which is a single cell protein derived from Methylophilus methylotrophus?

1. Heterocyst
2. Pruteen
3. Thermus
4. Copid

Explanation

“Pruteen” is a single cell protein derived from Methylophilus methylotrophus.

133. Due e to their mycelia like growth actinomycetes are also called ____

1. Skey fungi
2. Lice fungi
3. Ray fungi
4. Stew fungi

Explanation

Actinomycetes are also called ‘Ray fungi’ due to their mycelia like growth.

134. Which bacteria cause crown gall disease in plants but its inherent tumour inducing principle helps to carry the desired gene into the plant through Genetic engineering?

1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2. Thermus aquaticus
3. Methanobacterium
4. Acetobacter aceti

Explanation

Agrobacterium tumefaciens cause crown gall disease in plants but its inherent tumour inducing principle helps to carry the desired gene into the plant through Genetic engineering.

135. Which among the following statement is correct regarding actinomycetes?

1. Actinomycetes are anaerobic or facultative anaerobic microorganisms and are Gram positive. They do not produce an aerial mycelium. Their DNA contains high guanine and cytosine content (Example: Streptomyces).
2. Frankia is a symbiotic actinobacterium which produces root nodules and fixes oxygen in non – leguminous plants such as Alnus and Casuarina. They produce unicellular sporangium. Actinomyces bovis grows in nasal cavities and cause lumpy nose.
3. Streptomyces is a mycelial forming Actinobacteria which lives in soil, they impart “earthy odour” to soil after rain which is due to the presence of Geosmin (volatile organic compound). Some important antibiotics namely, Streptomycin, Chloramphenicol, and Tetracycline are produced from this genus.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Frankia is a symbiotic actinobacterium which produces root nodules and fixes nitrogen in non – leguminous plants such as Alnus and Casuarina. They produce multicellular sporangium. Actinomyces bovis grows in oral cavities and cause lumpy jaw.

136. Which is a thermophilic gram-negative bacterium which produces Taq Polymerase a key enzyme for Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

1. Erwinia amylovora
2. Xanthomonas oryzae
3. Streptomyces scabies
4. Thermus aquaticus

Explanation

Thermus aquaticus is a thermophilic gram-negative bacterium which produces Taq Polymerase a key enzyme for Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).

137. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. Gram positive Bacteria cell wall is thick layered with (0.015 µm-0.02µm) rigid due to presence of Peptidoglycans. It has Peptidoglycans-80% Polysaccharide-20% Teichoic acid present. Outer membrane and Periplasmic space are absent. Lipid and lipoproteins are Low. Lipopolysaccharides are Absent. Highly Susceptibility to penicillin.
2. Gram negative Bacteria cell wall is thich layered with (0.75µm–0.120µm) rigid due to presence of lipoprotein-polysaccharide mixture. It has Peptidoglycans-3 to 12% rest is polysaccharides and lipoproteins. Teichoic acid absent. Outer membrane and Periplasmic space are absent. Lipid and lipoproteins are high. Lipopolysaccharides are present. high susceptible to penicillin.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Gram negative Bacteria cell wall is thin layered with (0.0075µm–0.012µm) elastic due to presence of lipoprotein-polysaccharide mixture. It has Peptidoglycans-3 to 12% rest is polysaccharides and lipoproteins. Teichoic acid absent. Outer membrane and Periplasmic space are present. Lipid and lipoproteins are high. Lipopolysaccharides are present. Low susceptible to penicillin.

138. Which among the following bacteria is employed in biogas production?

1. Clostridiumbacterium
2. Nitrobacter
3. Streptomyces griseus
4. Methanobacterium

Explanation

Methanobacterium is employed in biogas production.

139. Which is an extremophilic bacterium grows in high salinity and is exploited for the production β carotene?

1. Halobacterium
2. Azotobacter
3. Clostridium
4. All the above

Explanation

Halobacterium, an extremophilic bacterium grows in high salinity. It is exploited for the production β carotene.

140. Who discovered penicillin in the year 1928 is a serendipity in the world of medicine?

1. Howard Florey
2. Alexander Fleming
3. Louis Pasteur
4. Robert Koch

Explanation

Discovery of Penicillin in the year 1928 is a serendipity in the world of medicine. The History of World War II recorded the use of Penicillin in the form of yellow powder to save lives of soldiers. For this discovery – The wonderful antibiotic he shared Nobel Prize in Medicine in the year 1945 along with Ernest Boris chain and Sir Howard Walter Florey.

141. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Fungi?

1. Ubiquitous
2. Prokaryotic
3. Achlorophyllous heterotrophic
4. Exist in unicellular or multicellular

Explanation

The word ‘fungus’ is derived from Latin meaning ‘mushroom’. Fungi are ubiquitous, eukaryotic, achlorophyllous heterotrophic organisms. They exist in unicellular or multicellular forms.

142. The study of fungi is called ____

1. Mycology
2. Semiology
3. Karyology
4. Ethology

Explanation

The study of fungi is called mycology. (Gr. mykes – mushroom: logos – study).

143. Who among the following is considered as founder of Mycology?

1. Fontana
2. C.H. Blackley
3. P.A. Micheli
4. A.F. Blakeslee

Explanation

P.A. Micheli is considered as founder of Mycology. Few renowned mycologists include Arthur H.R. Buller, John Webster, D.L.Hawksworth, G.C.Ainsworth, B.B.Mundkur, K.C.Mehta, C.V. Subramanian and T.S. Sadasivan.

144. Majority of fungi are made up of thin, filamentous branched structures called ____

1. Hirples
2. Hyphae
3. Albugo
4. Holomorph

Explanation

Majority of fungi are made up of thin, filamentous branched structures called Hyphae. A number of hyphae get interwoven to form mycelium.

145. is the Father of Indian Mycology?

1. C.V. Subramanian
2. T.S. Sadasivan
3. John Weber
4. E.J. Butler

Explanation

E.J. Butler is the Father of Indian Mycology. He published a book, ‘Fungi and Disease in Plants’ on Indian plant diseases in the year 1918.

146. The cell wall of fungi is made up of a polysaccharide called ___

1. Conidia
2. Allomyces
3. Chitin
4. Glucan

Explanation

The cell wall of fungi is made up of a polysaccharide called chitin (polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine) and fungal cellulose.

147. In which state E.J. Butler established Imperial Agricultural Research Institute?

1. West Bengal
2. Kerala
3. Bihar
4. Maharashtra

Explanation

E.J. Butler established Imperial Agricultural Research Institute at Pusa, Bihar. It was later shifted to New Delhi and at present known as Indian Agricultural Research Insitute (IARI).

148. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The fungal mycelium is categorised into two types based on the presence or absence of septa. In lower fungi the hypha is aseptate, multinucleate and is known as coenocytic mycelium (Example: Albugo). In higher fungi a septum is present between the cells of the hyphae. Example: Fusarium.
2. The mycelium is organised into loosely or compactly interwoven fungal tissues called promithesia. It is further divided into three types prosenchyma, poliventacular and pseudoparenchyma. In the former type the hyphae are arranged tight but parallel to one another. In the latter hyphae are loosely arranged and lose their identity.
3. In holocarpic forms the entire thallus is converted into reproductive structure whereas in Eucarpic some regions of the thallus are involved in the reproduction other regions remain vegetative.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The mycelium is organised into loosely or compactly interwoven fungal tissues called plectenchyma. It is further divided into two types prosenchyma and pseudoparenchyma. In the former type the hyphae are arranged loosely but parallel to one another. In the latter hyphae are compactly arranged and lose their identity.

149. The sexual phase of Fungi is called ____

1. Anamorph
2. Holomorph
3. Teleomorph
4. All the above

Explanation

Fungi reproduce both by asexual and sexual methods. The asexual phase is called Anamorph and the sexual phase is called Teleomorph. Fungi having both phases are called Holomorph.

150. Who proved that Fungi could cause disease in plants in 1767?

1. Fontana
2. C.H. Blackley
3. Pontecorvo
4. A.F. Blakeslee

Explanation

In 1767 Fontana proved that Fungi could cause disease in plants.

151. Fusion of nuclei in sexual reproduction of fungi is known as _____

1. Plasmogamy
2. Karyogamy
3. Hologamy
4. Endogamy

Explanation

Fusion of nuclei in sexual reproduction of fungi is known as Karyogamy.

152. Who among the following proved fungi could cause allergy in Human beings in 1873?

1. D.L. Hawksworth
2. C.H. Blackley
3. E.J. Butler
4. John Webster

Explanation

In 1873 C.H. Blackley proved fungi could cause allergy in Human beings.

153. Which among the following step is not included in sexual reproduction in fungi?

1. Fusion of two protoplasts
2. Fusion of nuclei
3. Production of haploid spores through meiosis
4. None of the above

Explanation

General sexual reproduction in fungi includes three steps 1. Fusion of two protoplasts (plasmogamy) 2. Fusion of nuclei (karyogamy) and 3. Production of haploid spores through meiosis.

154. Which among the following is not the asexual reproduction of Fungi?

1. Zoospores
2. Budding
3. Fission
4. Somatogamy

Explanation

Asexual reproduction of fungus are 1. Zoospores, 2. Conidia, 3. Oidia/Arthrospores, 4. Fission, 5. Budding and 6. Chlamydospore.

155. In Asexual reproduction of fungi, Thick-walled resting spores are called ____

1. Zoospores
2. Arthrospores
3. Chlamydospore
4. Thallospores

Explanation

Thick-walled resting spores are called chlamydospores (Example: Fusarium).

156. Match the following Asexual reproduction in fungi with its example?

1. Zoospores – 1. Penicillium
2. Conidia – 2. Schizosaccharomyces-yeast
3. Oidia – 3. Chytrids
4. Fission – 4. Saccharomyces-yeast
5. Budding – 5. Erysiphe
6. 5 – 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
7. 4 – 5 – 2 – 1 – 3
8. 3 – 1 – 5 – 2 – 4
9. 2 – 1 – 5 – 3 – 4

Explanation

1. Zoospores: They are flagellate structures produced in zoosporangia (Example: Chytrids). 2. Conidia: The spores produced on condiophores (Example: Aspergillus, Penicillium). 3. Oidia/Thallospores/Arthrospores: The hypha divided and developed in to spores called oidia (Example: Erysiphe). 4. Fission: The vegetative cell divides into 2 daughter cells. (Example: Schizosaccharomyces-yeast). 5. Budding: A small outgrowth is developed on parent cell, which gets detached and becomes independent. (Example: Saccharomyces-yeast.

157. Which among the following is not the sexual reproduction of Fungi?

1. Planogametic copulation
2. Gametangial contact
3. Spermatization
4. None of the above

Explanation

The sexual reproduction of Fungi are 1. Planogametic copulation, 2. Gametangial copulation, 3. Gametangial contact, 4. Spermatization and 5. Somatogamy.

158. Which among the following sexual reproduction in fungi is wrongly matched with its example

1. Isogamy – Synchytrium
2. Anisogamy – Monoblepharis
3. Oogamy – Allomyces
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Planogametic copulation: Fusion of motile gamete is called planogametic copulation. a. Isogamy – Fusion of morphologically and physiologicall similar gametes. (Example: Synchytrium). b. Anisogamy – Fusion of morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes (Example: Allomyces). c. Oogamy – Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes. (Example: Monoblepharis).

159. In which sexual reproduction in fungus a contact is established between antheridium and Oogonium?

1. Gametangial copulation
2. Gametangial contact
3. Spermatization
4. Somatogamy

Explanation

Gametangial contact: During sexual reproduction a contact is established between antheridium and Oogonium (Example: Albugo).

160. Who reported first heterothallism in fungi in 1904?

1. A.F. Blakeslee
2. D.L. Hawksworth
3. E.J. Butler
4. John Webster

Explanation

In 1904 A.F.Blakeslee first reported heterothallism in fungi.

161. Which among the following is not the example of Gametangial copulation?

1. Mucor
2. Rhizopus
3. Puccinia
4. None of the above

Explanation

Gametangial copulation: Fusion of gametangia to form zygospore (Example: Mucor, Rhizopus).

162. Who among the following reported Parasexual cycle in fungi in 1952?

1. Pontecorvo and Roper
2. Blackley and Fontana
3. Micheli and Butler
4. Martin and George

Explanation

In 1952 Pontecorvo and Roper reported Parasexual cycle in fungi.

163. Which among the following is the not example of spermatization?

1. Puccinia
2. Neurospora
3. Agaricus
4. None of the above

Explanation

Spermatization: In this method a uninucleate pycniospore/microconidium is transferred to receptive hyphal cell (Example: Puccinia, Neurospora).

Somatogamy: Fusion of two somatic cells of the hyphae (Example: Agaricus).

164. Traditional classifications categorise fungi into how many classes?

1. Three
2. Four
3. Six
4. Nine

Explanation

Many mycologists have attempted to classify fungi based on vegetative and reproductive characters. Traditional classifications categorise fungi into 4 classes – Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes, Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes.

165. Which among the following classes of traditional classification include fungal species of Oomycetes, Chytridiomycetes and Zygomycetes which are considered as lower fungi indicating algal origin of fungi?

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes.

Explanation

Among the classes of traditional classification ‘Phycomycetes’ include fungal species of Oomycetes, Chytridiomycetes and Zygomycetes which are considered as lower fungi indicating algal origin of fungi.

166. Who among the following in the year 1979 proposed the classification of fungi in the book entitled ‘Introductory Mycology’?

1. Chester Benjamin and Robert Joseph Bandoni
2. Robert John Bandoni and Hendry Cowles
3. George William Martin and Harold C. Bold
4. Constantine J. Alexopoulos and Charles W. Mims

Explanation

Constantine J. Alexopoulos and Charles W. Mims in the year 1979 proposed the classification of fungi in the book entitled ‘Introductory Mycology’. They classified fungi into three divisions namely Gymnomycota, Mastigomycota and Amastigomycota. There are 8 subdivisions, 11 classes, 1 form class and 3 form subclasses in the classification proposed by them.

167. Which among the following is the example of Oomycetes?

1. Mucor
2. Rhizopus
3. Albugo
4. Pilobolus

Explanation

Coenocytic mycelium is present. The cell wall is made up of Glucan and Cellulose. Zoospore with one whiplash and one tinsel flagellum is present. Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Example: Albugo.

168. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Zygomycetes?

1. Most of the species are saprophytic and live on healthy plant and animal matter in the soil. Some lead parasitic life (Example: Entomophthora on dolphin). Bread mold fungi (Example: Mucor, Rhizopus) and coprophilous fungi (Fungi growing on banana Example: Pilobolus) belong to this group
2. The mycelium is branched and coenocytic. Asexual reproduction by means of spores produced in sporangia. Sexual reproduction is by the fusion of the gametangia which results in thick walled zygospore. It remains dormant for long periods. The zygospore undergoes meiosis and produce spores.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Most of the species are saprophytic and live on decaying plant and animal matter in the soil. Some lead parasitic life (Example: Entomophthora on housefly). Bread mold fungi (Example: Mucor, Rhizopus) and coprophilous fungi (Fungi growing on dung Example: Pilobolus) belong to this group.

169. Which bacteria living in the intestine of human beings produce large quantities of vitamin K and vitamin B complex?

1. Clostridium tertium
2. Acetobacter aceti
3. Escherichia coli
4. Bacillus polymyxa

Explanation

Escherichia coli living in the intestine of human beings produce large quantities of vitamin K and vitamin B complex.

170. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Ascomycetes include a wide range of fungi such as yeasts, powdery mildews, cup fungi, morels and so on. Although majority of the species live in aquatic environment exclusively in fresh water, some live-in terrestrial environments. The mycelium is well developed, branched with complex septum.
2. Majority of them are saprophytes but few parasites are also known (Powdery mildew – Erysiphe). Asexual reproduction takes place by fission, budding, oidia, conidia, and chlamydospore. Sexual reproduction takes place by the fusion of two compatible nuclei Plasmogamy is not immediately followed by karyogamy, instead a dikaryotic condition is prolonged for several generations
3. A special-hyphae called ascogenous hyphae is formed. A crozier is formed when the tip of the ascogenous hyphae recurves forming a hooked cell. The two nuclei in the penultimate cell of the hypha fuse to form a diploid nucleus. This cell forms young ascus. The diploid nucleus undergoes meiotic division to produce four haploid nuclei, which further divide mitotically to form eight nuclei. The nucleus gets organised into 8 ascospores.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ascomycetes include a wide range of fungi such as yeasts, powdery mildews, cup fungi, morels and so on. Although majority of the species live in terrestrial environment, some live-in aquatic environments both fresh water and marine. The mycelium is well developed, branched with simple septum.

171. The ascospores are found inside a bag like structure called ascus. Due to the presence of ascus, this group is popularly called ___

1. Cave fungi
2. Sac fungi
3. Plot fungi
4. All the above

Explanation

The ascospores are found inside a bag like structure called ascus. Due to the presence of ascus, this group is popularly called “Sac fungi”. Asci gets surrounded by sterile hyphae forming fruit body called ascocarp.

172. Which among the following is not the type of ascocarps?

1. Cleistothecium
2. Perithecium
3. Apothecium
4. Pycnidium

Explanation

There are 4 types of ascocarps namely Cleistothecium (Completely closed), Perithecium (Flask shaped with ostiole), Apothecium (Cup shaped, open type) and Pseudothecium.

173. Which among bacteria are used to produce Alcohols and acetones from molasses by fermentation activity?

1. Micrococcus candicans
2. Clostridium acetobutylicum
3. Acetobacter aceti
4. Lactobacillus bulgaricus

Explanation

Clostridium acetobutylicum are used to produce Alcohols and acetones from molasses by fermentation activity of the anaerobic bacterium.

174. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Basidiomycetes (classes of fungi)?

1. Basidiomycetes include puff balls, toad stools, Bird’s nest fungi, Bracket fungi, stink horns, rusts and smuts. The members are terrestrial and lead a saprophytic and parasitic mode of life. he mycelium is well developed, septate with dolipore septum(bracket like). Three types of mycelium namely primary (Monokaryotic), secondary (Dikaryotic) and tertiary are found
2. Clamp connections are formed to maintain dikaryotic condition. Asexual reproduction is by means of conidia, oidia or budding. Sexual reproduction is present but sex organs are absent. Somatogamy or spermatisation results in plasmogamy. Karyogamy is delayed and dikaryotic phase is prolonged. Karyogamy takes place in basidium and it is immediately followed by meiotic division.
3. The six nuclei thus formed are transformed into basidiospores which are borne on sterigmata inside the basidium (Endogenous). The basidium is club shaped with six basidiospores, thus this group of fungi is popularly called “star fungi”. The fruit body formed is called Basidiocarp.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The four nuclei thus formed are transformed into basidiospores which are borne on sterigmata outside the basidium (Exogenous). The basidium is club shaped with four basidiospores, thus this group of fungi is popularly called “Club fungi”. The fruit body formed is called Basidiocarp.

175. Which among the following bacteria oxidizes ethyl alcohol obtained from molasses by fermentation to vinegar (acetic acid)?

1. Micrococcus candicans
2. Bacillus megatherium
3. Acetobacter aceti
4. Lactobacillus bulgaricus

Explanation

Acetobacter aceti bacteria oxidizes ethyl alcohol obtained from molasses by fermentation to vinegar (acetic acid).

176. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Deuteromycetes?

1. The fungi belonging to this group have excellent sexual reproduction and are called perfect fungi. A large number of species live as saprophytes in soil and many are plant and animal parasites. Sexual reproduction takes place by the production of conidia, chlamydospores, budding, oidia etc.,
2. Conidia are also produced in special structures called pycnidium, acervulus, sporodochium and synnemata. Parasexual cycle operates in this group of fungi. This brings genetic variation among the species.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The fungi belonging to this group lack sexual reproduction and are called imperfect fungi. A large number of species live as saprophytes in soil and many are plant and animal parasites. Asexual reproduction takes place by the production of conidia, chlamydospores, budding, oidia etc.,

177. Dairy industry is based on a single celled fungus called ____

1. Ergot
2. Mushroom
3. Yeast
4. All the above

Explanation

Fungi provide delicious and nutritious food called mushrooms. They recycle the minerals by decomposing the litter thus adding fertility to the soil. Dairy industry is based on a single celled fungus called yeast. They deteriorate the timber. Fungi cause food poisoning due the production of toxins.

178. The fibres from the fibre yielding plants are separated by the action of Clostridium is called ___

1. Slitting of fibres
2. Retting of fibres
3. Settling of fibres
4. Marsh of fibres

Explanation

The fibres from the fibre yielding plants are separated by the action of Clostridium is called retting of fibres. Bacteria used is Clostridium tertium.

179. Which among the following statement regarding benefits of fungi is correct

1. Food: Mushrooms like Lentinus edodes, Agaricus bisporus, Volvariella volvaceae are consumed for their high nutritive value. Yeasts provide vitamin B and Eremothecium ashbyii is a rich source of Vitamin B₁₂.
2. Medicine: Fungi produce antibiotics which arrest the growth or destroy the bacteria. Some of the antibiotics produced by fungi include Penicillin (Penicillium notatum) Cephalosporins (Acremonium chrysogenum) Griseofulvin (Penicillium griseofulvum). Ergot alkaloids (Ergotamine) produced by Claviceps purpurea is used as vasoconstrictors.
3. Production of Organic acid: For the commercial production of organic acids fungi are employed in the Industries. Some of the organic acids and fungi which help in the production of organic acids are: citric acid and gluconic acid – Aspergillus niger, Itaconic acid – Aspergillus terreus, Kojic acid – Aspergillus oryzae.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

180. Which among the following Antibiotics is wrongly matched with its role?

1. Streptomycin – It cures urinary infections, tuberculosis, meningitis and pneumonia
2. Aureomycin – It is used as a medicine to treat whooping cough and eye infections
3. Chloromycetin – It is used to treat syphilis
4. Polymyxin – It cure some bacterial diseases

Explanation

1. Streptomycin – It cures urinary infections, tuberculosis, meningitis and pneumonia 2. Aureomycin – It is used as a medicine to treat whooping cough and eye infections 3. Chloromycetin – It cure typhoid fever 4. Bacitracin – It is used to treat syphilis’ 5. Polymyxin – It cure some bacterial diseases.

181. Which among the following fungi is not used in cheese production.?

1. Penicillium roquefortii
2. Penicillium camemberti
3. Penicillium notatum
4. None of the above

Explanation

Yeast is used for fermentation of sugars to yield alcohol.Bakeries utilize yeast for the production of Bakery products like Bread, buns, rolls etc., Penicillium roquefortii and Penicillium camemberti were employed in cheese production.

182. Yeast is also called as ____

1. Beauveria bassiana
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
3. Helminthosporium oryzae
4. Metarhizium anisopliae

Explanation

Yeast is also called as Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

183. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding benefits of fungi

1. Production of enzymes: Aspergillus oryzae, Aspergillus niger were employed in the production of enzymes like amylase, protease, lactase etc. Rennet which helps in the coagulation of milk in cheese manufacturing is derived from Mucor spp.
2. Agriculture: Mycorrhiza forming fungi like Rhizoctonia, Phallus, Scleroderma helps in absorption of water and minerals. Fungi like Beauveria bassiana, Metarhizium anisopliae are used as Biopesticides to eradicate the pests of crops. Gibberellin, produced by a fungus Gibberella fujikuroi induce the plant growth and is used as growth promoter.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

184. Fungi like Amanita phalloides, Amanita verna, Boletus satanus are highly poisonous due to the production of Toxins. These fungi are commonly referred as ____

1. Virgin stools
2. Plato stools
3. Toad stools
4. Cavalry stools

Explanation

Fungi like Amanita phalloides, Amanita verna, Boletus satanus are highly poisonous due to the production of Toxins. These fungi are commonly referred as “Toad stools”.

185. Match the following plant disease with its causal organism (fungi)

1. Blast of Paddy – 1. Colletotrichum lindemuthianum
2. Red rot of sugarcane – 2. Taphrina deformans
3. Anthracnose of Beans – 3. Colletotrichum falcatum
4. White rust of crucifers – 4. Albugo candida
5. Peach leaf curl – 5. Magnaporthe grisea
6. 5 – 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
7. 4 – 2 – 5 – 1 – 3
8. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2 – 5
9. 2 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2

Explanation

1. Blast of Paddy – Magnaporthe grisea, 2. Red rot of sugarcane – Colletotrichum falcatum, 3. Anthracnose of Beans – Colletotrichum lindemuthianum, 4. White rust of crucifers – Albugo candida and 5. Peach leaf curl – Taphrina deformans.

186. Which among the following organism (Fungi) cause disease Rust of wheat?

1. Epidermophyton floccosum
2. Candida albicans
3. Puccinia graminis tritici
4. Aspergillus fumigatus

Explanation

Rust of wheat is caused by fungi called Puccinia graminis tritici.

187. Aspergillus flavus infest dried foods and produce carcinogenic toxin called ____

1. Rhizopus
2. Mucor toxin
3. Aflatoxin
4. None of the above

Explanation

Aspergillus, Rhizopus, Mucor and Penicilium are involved in spoilage of food materials. Aspergillus flavus infest dried foods and produce carcinogenic toxin called aflatoxin. Patulin, ochratoxin A are some of the toxins produced by fungi.Fungi cause diseases in Human beings and plants.

188. Which among the following organism (Fungi) cause Athlete’s foot?

1. Coccidioides immitis
2. Epidermophyton floccosum
3. Candida albicans
4. Aspergillus fumigatus

Explanation

1. Athlete’s foot – Epidermophyton floccosum, 2. Candidiasis – Candida albicans, 3. Coccidioidomycosis – Coccidioides immitis and 4. Aspergillosis – Aspergillus fumigatus.

189. The Fungi which cause infection in skin are known as ____

1. Tracheophytes
2. Gametophytes
3. Dermatophytes
4. Thallophytes

Explanation

Dermatophytes are fungi which cause infection in skin. Example: Trichophyton, Tinea, Microsporum and Epidermophyton.

190. Which fungus caused late blight disease of Potato, which caused a million deaths, and drove more to emigrate from Ireland (1843-1845)?

1. Phytophthora infestans
2. Helminthosporium oryzae
3. Taphrina deformans
4. Puccinia graminis tritici

Explanation

The late blight disease of Potato by Phytophthora infestans caused a million deaths, and drove more to emigrate from Ireland (1843-1845).

191. In India which organism caused, Blight of Paddy is also a factor for Bengal famine in 1942-1943?

1. Magnaporthe grisea
2. Helminthosporium oryzae
3. Taphrina deformans
4. Puccinia graminis tritici

Explanation

In India Helminthosporium oryzae, Blight of Paddy is also a factor for Bengal famine in 1942-1943.

192. The symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of plants is called as ___

1. Mycorrhizae
2. Coleorhizae
3. Chalazae
4. All the above

Explanation

The symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of plants is called as mycorrhizae. In this relationship fungi absorb nutrition from the root and in turn the hyphal network of mycorrhizae forming fungi helps the plant to absorb water and mineral nutrients from the soil.

193. Which among the following is not the classification of Mycorrhizae?

1. Ectomycorrhizae
2. Endomycorrhizae
3. Epsomycorrhizae
4. Ectendomycorrhizae

Explanation

Mycorrhizae is classified into three types 1. Ectomycorrhizae, 2. Endomycorrhizae and 3. Ectendomycorrhizae.

194. In Ectomycorrhizae the fungal myceli um forms a dense sheath around the root called ___

1. Mantel
2. Shoot
3. Carp
4. Clad

Explanation

In Ectomycorrhizae e fungal mycelium forms a dense sheath around the root called mantle. The hyphal network penetrates the intercellular spaces of the epidermis and cortex to form Hartig net. Example: Pisolithus tinctorius.

195. In Endomycorrhizae hyphae grows mainly inside the roots, penetrate the outer cortical cells of the plant root and small portion of the mycelium is found outside the root. This form is also called ___________

1. XAM Fungi
2. CAM Fungi
3. RAM Fungi
4. VAM Fungi

Explanation

The hyphae grow mainly inside the roots, penetrate the outer cortical cells of the plant root. A small portion of the mycelium is found outside the root. This form is also called Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhizal fungi (VAM Fungi) due to the presence of Vesicle or arbuscle like haustoria. 1. Arbuscular mycorrhizae (AM) Example: Gigaspora 2. Ericoid mycorrhizae -Example: Oidiodendron 3. Orchid mycorrhizae -Example: Rhizoctonia.

196. The symbiotic association between algae and fungi is called ____

1. Rennet
2. Lichens
3. Mosses
4. All the above

Explanation

The symbiotic association between algae and fungi is called lichens.

197. In lichens the fungal partner is called ____

1. Phycobiont
2. Photobiont
3. Mycobiont
4. Leprose

Explanation

In lichen algal partner is called Phycobiont or Photobiont., and the fungal partner is called Mycobiont. Algae provide nutrition for fungal partner in turn fungi provide protection and also help to fix the thallus to the substratum through rhizinae. Asexual reproduction takes place through fragmentation, Soredia and Isidia. Phycobionts reproduce by akinetes, hormogonia, aplanospore etc., Mycobionts undergo sexual reproduction and produce ascocarps.

198. Which among the following statement is correct regarding classification of lichens?

1. Based on the habitat lichens are classified into following types: Corticolous(on Bark) Lignicolous(on Wood) Saxicolous(on rocks) Terricolous(on ground) Marine(on siliceous rocks of sea) Fresh water(on siliceous rock of fresh water).
2. On the basis of morphology of the thallus they are divided into Leprose (a distinct fungal layer is absent) Crustose-crust like; Foliose-leaf like; Fruticose- branched pendulous shrub like.
3. The distribution of algal cells distinguishes lichens into three forms namely Homoiomerous, polymerous and Heteromerous (a distinct layer of algae and fungi present). If the fungal partner of lichen belongs to ascomycetes, it is called Cacylichen and if it is basidiomycetes, it is called Basidiolichen.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The distribution of algal cells distinguishes lichens into two forms namely Homoiomerous (Algal cells evenly distributed in the thallus) and Heteromerous (a distinct layer of algae and fungi present). If the fungal partner of lichen belongs to ascomycetes, it is called Ascolichen and if it is basidiomycetes, it is called Basidiolichen.

199. The dye present in litmus paper used as acid base indicator in the laboratories is obtained from which fungi?

1. Cladonia rangiferina
2. Ericoid mycorrhiza
3. Roccella montagnei
4. Magnaporthe grisea

Explanation

The dye present in litmus paper used as acid base indicator in the laboratories is obtained from Roccella montagnei. Cladonia rangiferina (Reindeer mose) is used as food for animals living in Tundra regions.

200. Which acid produced from lichens show antibiotic properties?

1. Oxalic acid
2. Usnic acid
3. Formic acid
4. Malic acid

Explanation

Usnic acid produced from lichens show antibiotic properties.

201. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding growth?

a) Growth is an extrinsic property of all living and non-living organisms.

b) In animals growth is definite and occurs for some period.

c) Unicellular and multicellular organisms grow by cell division.

d) In plants, growth is indefinite and occurs throughout their life.

Explanation

Growth is an intrinsic property of all living organisms through which they can increase cells both in number and mass. Unicellular and multicellular organisms grow by cell division. In plants, growth is indefinite and occurs throughout their life. In animals, growth is definite and occurs for some period.

202. Choose the correct statements.

i) Prokaryotes are multicellular.

ii) Unicellular eukaryotes are Oedogonium.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Prokaryotes are unicellular, lack membrane bound nuclei and organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi bodies and so on (Example: Bacteria and Blue green algae). In Eukaryotes a definite nucleus and membrane bound organelles are present. Eukaryotes may be unicellular (Amoeba) or multicellular (Oedogonium).

203. Which of this living organism are exceptions in asexual reproduction?

a) Mules

b) Penicillium

c) Hydra

d) Frog

Explanation

Asexual reproduction in living organisms occurs by the production of conidia (Aspergillus, Penicillium), budding (Hydra and Yeast), binary fission (Bacteria and Amoeba) fragmentation (Spirogyra), and protonema (Mosses) and regeneration (Planaria). Exceptions are the sterile worker bees and mules.

204. What is called as irritability?

a) Maintaining a steady state with an external environment.

b) Asexual reproduction methods.

c) Plants response to stimuli.

d) All the above

Explanation

Plants also respond to the stimuli. Bending of plants towards sunlight, the closure of leaves in touch-me-not plant to touch are some examples for response to stimuli in plants. This type of response is called Irritability.

205. Assertion (A): Homeostasis is self-regulation and tendency to maintain a steady state externally.

Reasoning(R): Living organisms maintain internal conditions to survive in the environment.

a) A is correct; R explains about A.

b) A is wrong; R is correct.

c) A and R is wrong.

d) A is correct; R does not explains about A.

Explanation

Property of self-regulation and tendency to maintain a steady state within an external environment which is liable to change is called Homeostasis. It is essential for the living organism to maintain internal condition to survive in the environment.

206. Which of the following statement is correct?

i) Anabolism is a breaking down process.

ii) Larger molecules are broke into smaller units in catabolism.

iii) Chemical energy is formed and stored in catabolism.

iv) Synthesizing of proteins from amino acids is an example of anabolism.

a) ii, iv only

b) i, iii, iv only

c) i and iv only

d) iii, iv only

Explanation

207. What is the meaning of the word virus in Latin?

a) Poison

b) Ubiquitous

c) Real

d) Small

Explanation

The word virus is derived from Latin meaning ‘Poison’. Viruses are sub-microscopic, obligate intracellular parasites. They have nucleic acid core surrounded by protein coat.

208. Identify the Incorrect match.

A. Dimitry Ivanowsky i) Viruses are smaller than bacteria.

B. Robert Gallo ii) Infectious agents in tobacco leaves

C. D’Herelle iii) Bacteriophage

D. F.W.Twort iv) Viral infection in bacteria.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

Dimitry Ivanowsky proved that viruses are smaller than bacteria. In 1898 M.W. Beijierink defined the infectious agent in tobacco leaves as ῾Contagium vivum fluidum’ . In 1915 F.W.Twort identified viral infection in Bacteria. In 1917 d’Herelle coined the term ‘Bacteriophage’. In 1984 Luc Montagnier and Robert Gallo discovered HIV (Human Immuno Deficiency Virus).

208. Based on which property viruses are categorized?

a) Shape

b) Size

c) Symmetry

d) Both a and c

Explanation

Generally viruses are of three types based on shape and symmetry

Cuboid symmetry – Example: Adenovirus, Herpes virus. Helical symmetry – Example: Influenza virus, TMV. Complex or Atypical – Example: Bacteriophage, Vaccinia virus

209. How many classes of virus are classified by David Baltimore?

a) 3

b) 7

c) 4

d) 5

Explanation

Among various classifications proposed for viruses the classification given by David Baltimore in the year 1971 is given below. The classification is based on mechanism of RNA production, the nature of the genome (single stranded –ss or double stranded – ds), RNA or DNA, the use of reverse transcriptase (RT), ss RNA may be (+) sense or (–) antisense. Viruses are classified into seven classes.

210. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding viruses?

a) Majority of animal and bacterial viruses are RNA viruses.

b) The viruses possessing DNA are called ‘Deoxyviruses’.

c) HIV is the animal virus which possess RNA.

d) Cauliflower Mosaic virus possesses DNA.

Explanation

The viruses possessing DNA are called ‘Deoxyviruses’ whereas those possessing RNA are called ‘Riboviruses’. Majority of animal and bacterial viruses are DNA viruses (HIV is the animal virus which possess RNA). Plant viruses generally contain RNA (Cauliflower Mosaic virus possess DNA).

211. Which of these is not a classification of virus based on the nature of nucleic acid?

a) ssDNA

b) dsRNA

c) rsDNA

d) dsDNA

Explanation

On the basis of nature of nucleic acid viruses are classified into four Categories. They are Viruses with ssDNA (Parvo viruses), dsDNA (Bacteriophages), ssRNA (TMV) and dsRNA (Wound Tumor Virus).

212. In which of these places bacteriophages are not found?

a) Soil

b) Fresh water

c) Milk

d) Sewage water

Explanation

Viruses infecting bacteria are called Bacteriophages. It literally means ‘eaters of bacteria’ (Gr: Phagein = to eat). Phages are abundant in soil, sewage water, fruits, vegetables, and milk.

213. Which of these was discovered by T.O.Diener?

a) Viroid

b) Bacteriophage

c) Ribo virus

d) Influenza virus

Explanation

Viroid is a circular molecule of ssRNA without a capsid and was discovered by T.O.Diener in the year 1971. The RNA of viroid has low molecular weight. Viroids cause citrus exocortis and potato spindle tuber disease in plants.

214. Which of the following is not a plant disease caused by virus?

a) Tobacco mosaic

b) Potato leaf roll

c) SARS

d) Tungro

Explanation

215. Based on which Aristotle classified animals into two groups?

a) Habitat

b) Red blood

c) Cell structure

d) Reproduction

Explanation

Aristotle classified animals into two groups. Enaima (with red blood) and Anaima (without red blood).

216. Which of the following are the setbacks of the Carl Linnaeus classification?

i) Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes were grouped together.

ii) Fungi, heterotrophic organisms were placed along with the photosynthetic plants.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Carl Linnaeus classified living world into two groups namely Plants and Animals based on morphological characters. His classification faced major setback because Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes were grouped together. Similarly fungi, heterotrophic organisms were placed along with the photosynthetic plants.

217. Which of these is not an essential need of classification?

a) Understand the evolutionary relationship between organisms.

b) To define organisms based on the salient features.

c) To relate things based on common characteristic features.

d) To know the relationship amongst same groups of organisms.

Explanation

Classification is essential to achieve following needs. To relate things based on common characteristic features. To define organisms based on the salient features. Helps in knowing the relationship amongst different groups of organisms. It helps in understanding the evolutionary relationship between organisms.

218. Which of the qualities and criteria are not adopted for the Five Kingdom classification?

a) Cell structure

b) Reproduction

c) Habitat

d) Mode of nutrition

Explanation

R.H. Whittaker, an American taxonomist proposed five Kingdom classification in the year 1969. The Kingdoms include Monera Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. The criteria adopted for the classification include cell structure, thallus organization, and mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationship.

219. In which year Carl Woese introduced three domains of life?

a) 1882

b) 1703

c) 1990

d) 1856

Explanation

Carl Woese and co-workers in the year 1990 introduced three domains of life viz., Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya based on the difference in rRNA nucleotide sequence, lipid structure of the cell membrane.

220. Who introduced the six Kingdom scheme?

a) Thomas Cavalier

b) Carl Woese

c) Ruggierio

d) R.H. Whittaker

Explanation

Ruggierio, 2015 published a seven Kingdom classification which is a practical extension of Thomas Cavalier’s six Kingdom scheme.

221. Which of these were included in the kingdom chromista?

a) Diatoms

b) Oomycetes

c) Cryptomonads

d) All the above

Explanation

A new Kingdom, the Chromista was erected and it included all algae whose chloroplasts contain chlorophyll a and c, as well as various colorless forms that are closely related to them. Diatoms, Brown algae, Cryptomonads and Oomycetes were placed under this Kingdom.

222. In which year the red tide incident happened in Florida?

a) 1887

b) 1982

c) 1902

d) 1935

Explanation

A major red tide incident in west coast of Florida in the year 1982 killed Hundreds and thousands of fishes.

223. Which of these was termed as animalcules?

a) Virus

b) Bacteria

c) Algae

d) Fungus

Explanation

The study of Bacteria is called Bacteriology. Bacteria were first discovered by a Dutch scientist, Anton van Leeuwenhoek in 1676 and were called “animalcules”.

224. Which of these is not a quality of bacteria?

a) Multicellular

b) Prokaryotic

c) Microscopic

d) Ubiquitous

Explanation

Bacteria are prokaryotic, unicellular, ubiq­uitous, microscopic organisms.

225. By which of these bacteria’s exhibit variations?

a) Conjugation

b) Transformation

c) Transduction

d) All the above

Explanation

Bacteria exhibit variations which are due to genetic recombination and are achieved through conjugation, transformation and transduction.

226. Which of these controls the entry and exit of small molecules and ions?

a) Nucleus

b) Plasma membrane

c) Chlorophyll

d) DNA

Explanation

The plasma membrane is made up of lipoprotein. It controls the entry and exit of small molecules and ions.

227. What is the type of ribosomes of bacteria?

a) 70S

b) 40S

c) 20S

d) 10S

Explanation

Polysomes / Polyribosomes: The ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. The number of ribosome per cell varies from 10,000 to 15,000. The ribosomes are 70S type and consist of two subunits (50S and 30S).

228. How many classes were classified by Christian gram based on gram staining method?

a) 7

b) 2

c) 5

d) 3

Explanation

The Gram staining method to differentiate bacteria was developed by Danish Physician Christian Gram in the year1884. It is a differential staining procedure and it classifies bacteria into two classes – Gram positive and Gram negative

229. Obligate aerobes need ______ to survive.

a) Moisture

b) Carbon dioxide

c) Oxygen

d) Water

Explanation

Some Micrococcus species are obligate aerobes (i.e. they must have oxygen to survive).

230. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Chlorophyll containing chlorosomes are present in Chromatium.

ii) Green sulphur bacteria possess pigment called Bacterioviridin.

iii) Photoorganotrophs uses Inorganic acid as hydrogen donor.

iv) Rhodospirillum is a purple non sulphur bacterium.

a) i, iii, iv only

b) i, ii only

c) iii, iv only

d) ii only

Explanation

Green sulphur bacteria: In this type of bacteria the hydrogen donor is H2S and possesses pigment called Bacterioviridin. Example: Chlorobium.

Purple sulphur bacteria: For bacteria belong to this group the hydrogen donor is thiosulphate, Bacteriochlorophyll is present. Chlorophyll containing chlorosomes are present Example: Chromatium.

Photoorganotrophs: They utilize organic acid or alcohol as hydrogen donor. Example: Purple non sulphur bacteria – Rhodospirillum.

231. Identify the Incorrect match.

A. Bacitracin i) Syphilis

B. Aureomycin ii) Ear infections

C. Chloromycetin iii) Typhoid

D. Streptomycin iv) Tuberculosis

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

232. Which of these are adapted to live in extreme environments?

a) Chlorobium

b) Akinetes

c) Archaebacteria

d) Streptomyces

Explanation

Archaebacteria are primitive prokaryotes and are adapted to thrive in extreme environments like hot springs, high salinity, low pH.

233. Cyanobacteria are,

a) Blue green algae

b) Photosynthetic

c) Prokaryotic

d) All the above

Explanation

Cyanobacteria are popularly called as ‘Blue green algae’ or ‘Cyanophyceae’. They are photosynthetic, prokaryotic organisms.

234. By which of these methods a cyanobacterium reproduces?

a) Asexual method

b) Vegetative method

c) Sexual method

d) All the above

Explanation

Cyanobacteria reproduce only through vegetative methods and produce Akinetes (thick wall dormant cell formed from vegetative cell), Hormogonia (a portion of filament get detached and reproduce by cell division), fission and endospores. Sexual reproduction is absent.

235. Which of the following is used as a single cell protein?

a) Aspergillus

b) Spirulina

c) Streptomyces

d) Penicillium

Explanation

Spirulina is rich in protein hence it is used as single cell protein.

236. What is the measure of a mycoplasma?

a) 100 – 500 mm

b) 0.1 – 200 cm

c) 0.1 – 0.5 μm

d) 1 – 10 μm

Explanation

The Mycoplasma are very small (0.1–0.5μm), pleomorphic gram negative microorganisms. They are first isolated by Nocard and coworkers in the year 1898 from pleural fluid of cattle affected with bovine pleuropneumonia.

237. By which of this presence the Streptomyces produces earthy odor from soil after rain?

a) Geosmin

b) Chlamydospore

c) Mycoplasma

d) Hormogonia

Explanation

Streptomyces is a mycelial forming Actinobacteria which lives in soil, they impart “earthy odor” to soil after rain which is due to the presence of Geosmin (volatile organic compound). Some important antibiotics namely, Streptomycin, Chloramphenicol, and Tetracycline are produced from this genus.

238. Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for the discovery of Penicillin in the year 1945?

a) Ernest Boris chain

b) Alexander Fleming

c) Sir Howard Walter Florey

d) All the above

Explanation

Discovery of Penicillin in the year 1928 is serendipity in the world of medicine. The History of World War II recorded the use of Penicillin in the form of yellow powder to save lives of soldiers. For this discovery – The wonderful antibiotic Alexander Fleming shared Nobel Prize in Medicine in the year 1945 along with Ernest Boris chain and Sir Howard Walter Florey.

239. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding fungus?

a) The word ‘fungus’ is derived from Latin.

b) Fungus is autotrophic organisms.

c) Fungi are ubiquitous, eukaryotic, achlorophyllous organisms.

d) Fungus exists in unicellular or multicellular forms.

Explanation

The word ‘fungus’ is derived from Latin meaning ‘mushroom’. Fungi are ubiquitous, eukaryotic, achlorophyllous heterotrophic organisms. They exist in unicellular or multicellular forms.

240. At which of these places the Indian Agricultural Research Institute is currently located?

a) Lucknow

b) Bihar

c) New Delhi

d) Bangalore

Explanation

E.J. Butler is the Father of Indian Mycology. He established Imperial Agricultural Research Institute at Pusa, Bihar. It was later shifted to New Delhi and at present known as Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI).

241. The presence of _______ is used to categorize the fungal mycelium.

a) Septa

b) Spores

c) Buds

d) Tissues

Explanation

The fungal mycelium is categorized into two types based on the presence or absence of septa.

242. What are the basic fungal tissues of mycelium?

a) Chlamydospore

b) Arthrospores

c) Plectenchyma

d) Condiophores

Explanation

The mycelium is organized into loosely or compactly interwoven fungal tissues called plectenchyma. It is further divided into two types’ prosenchyma and pseudo parenchyma. In the former type the hyphae are arranged loosely but parallel to one another.

243. Choose the incorrect statement about the fungus reproduction methods.

i) Fungi have both sexual and asexual phase of reproduction.

ii) Asexual phase is called as Teleomorph and sexual phase is called as Anamorph.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Fungi reproduce both by asexual and sexual methods. The asexual phase is called Anamorph and the sexual phase is called Teleomorph. Fungi having both phases are called Holomorph.

244.Which of the following is not an asexual reproduction method of fungi?

a) Enaima

b) Conidia

c) Chlamydospore

d) Oidia

Explanation

Methods of Reproduction in Fungi: Asexual Reproduction

Zoospores: They are flagellate structures produced in zoosporangia (Example: Chytrids).

Conidia: The spores produced on condiophores (Example: Aspergillus, Penicillium).

Oidia/Thallospores /Arthrospores: The hypha divided and developed in to spores called oidia (Example: Erysiphe).

Fission: The vegetative cell divides into 2 daughter cells. (Example: Schizosaccharomyces-yeast).

Budding: A small outgrowth is developed on parent cell, which gets detached and becomes independent. (Example: Saccharomycesyeast)

Chlamydospore: Thick walled resting spores are called chlamydospore (Example: Fusarium)

245. Assertion (A): Charles Mims proposed the classification of fungi in the book ‘Introductory Mycology’

Reasoning(R): Five divisions of fungus were classified by Charles Mims.

a) A is correct; R explains about A.

b) A is correct ; R is wrong.

c) A and R is wrong.

d) A is correct; R does not explains about A.

Explanation

Charles W. Mims in the year 1979 proposed the classification of fungi in the book entitled ‘Introductory Mycology’. They classified fungi into three divisions namely Gymnomycota, Mastigomycota and Amastigomycota.

246.Which of these is not an asexual reproduction of Ascomycetes?

a) Conidia

b) Fission

c) Nucle

d) Budding

Explanation

Ascomycetes, asexual reproduction takes place by fission, budding, oidia, conidia, and chlamydospore. Sexual reproduction takes place by the fusion of two compatible nucle.

247. Find the incorrect match.

A. Perithecium i) Flask shaped

B. Apothecium ii) Floral shaped

C. Cleistothecium iii) Completely closed

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

There are 4 types of ascocarps namely Cleistothecium (Completely closed), Perithecium (Flask shaped with ostiole), Apothecium (Cup shaped, open type) and Pseudothecium.

248. Choose the correct statements.

i) Basidiomycetes asexual reproduction is by conidia, oidia and budding.

ii) Sexual reproduction is not present as it does not have sexual organs.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

In basidiomycetes, asexual reproduction is by means of conidia, oidia or budding. Sexual reproduction is present but sex organs are absent.

249. Why the Deuteromycetes group fungus is called as imperfect fungi?

a) Lack sexual reproduction

b) Only visible part is flower

c) Harmful effects in plants

d) Lack of reproductive methodologies

Explanation

Deuteromycetes fungi belonging to this group lack sexual reproduction and are called imperfect fungi.

250. Which of these enzymes are not produced by the fungus?

a) Amylase

b) Protease

c) Isomerases

d) Lactase

Explanation

Aspergillus oryzae, Aspergillus niger were employed in the production of enzymes like amylase, protease, lactase etc. Rennet which helps in the coagulation of milk in cheese manufacturing is derived from Mucor spp.

251. Which of the following statements are not correct regarding the agaricus?

i) Agaricus are found in wood logs and manure piles.

ii) The leaf is the only visible part of agaricus.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Agaricus is a saprophytic fungus found on wood logs, manure piles, fresh litter, pastures etc,. The fruit bodies are the visible part of the fungi.

252. Which of the following is the most common field mushroom?

a) Aspergillus

b) Agaricus campestris

c) Cleistothecium

d) Fusarium

Explanation

Agaricus are found in rings in some species like Agaricus arvensis, Agaricus tabularis and hence popularly called ‘Fairy rings”. Agaricus campestris is the most common ‘field mushroom.

253. What is the shape of a mature basidiocarp?

a) Ring

b) Flower

c) Tree

d) Umbrella

Explanation

The mature basidiocarp is umbrella shaped and is divided into 3 parts namely stipe, pileus and gill.

254. Which is termed as the pollution indicators?

a) Fungi

b) Lichens

c) Algae

d) Bacteria

Explanation

Lichens are sensitive to air pollutants especially to sulphur-di-oxide. Therefore, they are considered as pollution indicators.

11th Science Lesson 10 Questions in English

10] Plant Kingdom

1. Recently with the aid of molecular characteristics which among the following was not segregated from plant kingdom and placed under separate kingdoms?

1. Bacteria
2. Algae
3. Fungi
4. None of the above

Explanation

Traditionally organisms existing on the earth were classified into plants and animals based on nutrition, locomotion and presence or absence of cell wall. Bacteria, Fungi, Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms were included under plant group. Recently with the aid of molecular characteristics Bacteria and Fungi were segregated and placed under separate kingdoms.

2. Plants are unique living entities as they are endowed with the power to harvest the light energy from the sun and to convert it into which energy in the form of food?

1. Mechanical energy
2. Thermal energy
3. Chemical energy
4. Block energy

Explanation

Plants are unique living entities as they are endowed with the power to harvest the light energy from the sun and to convert it to chemical energy in the form of food through the astounding reaction, photosynthesis. They not only supply nutrients to all living things on earth but sequester carbon-di-oxide during photosynthesis, thus minimizing the effect of one of the major green-house gases that increase the global temperature.

3. In classification which among the following is divided into Bryophyta and Tracheophyta?

1. Embryophyta
2. Bacillariophyta
3. Polypodiophyta
4. Thallophyta

Explanation

Classification widely accepted for plants now include Embryophyta which is divided into Bryophyta and Tracheophyta. The latter is further divided into Pteridophyta and Spermatophyta (Gymnospermae and Angiospermae).

4. Alternation of the haploid gametophytic phase (n) with diploid sporophytic phase (2n) during the life cycle is ______

1. Alternation of germination
2. Alternation of commodity
3. Alternation of generation
4. Alternation of fertility

Explanation

Alternation of generation is common in all plants. Alternation of the haploid gametophytic phase (n) with diploid sporophytic phase (2n) during the life cycle is called alternation of generation.

5. Which among the following is not the life cycle pattern in plant?

1. Haplontic
2. Diplontic
3. Elenctic
4. None of the above

Explanation

Life cycle patterns in plants are a) Haplontic, b) Diplontic, c) Haplo-diplontic.

6. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Haplontic Life Cycle: Gametophytic phase is dominant, photosynthetic and independent, whereas sporophytic phase is represented by the zygote. Zygote undergoes meiosis to restore haploid condition.
2. Diplontic Life Cycle: Sporophytic phase (2n) is dominant, photosynthetic and independent. The gametophytic phase is represented by the single to few celled gametophyte. The gametes fuse to form zygote which develops into sporophyte.
3. Haplodiplontic Life Cycle: This type of life cycle is found in embryophytes, bryophytes and pteridophytes which is intermediate between haplontic and diplontic type. These three phases are unicellular. but they differ in their dominant phase.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Haplodiplontic Life Cycle This type of life cycle is found in bryophytes and pteridophytes which is intermediate between haplontic and diplontic type. Both the phases are multicellular. but they differ in their dominant phase.

7. Which among the following is not the example of Diplontic Life Cycle?

1. Fucus
2. Gymnosperms
3. Angiosperms
4. Spirogyra

Explanation

Fucus, gymnosperms and angiosperms are example of Diplontic life cycle. Volvox, Spirogyra are example of Haplontic life cycle.

8. In which among the following dominant independent phase is gametophyte and it alternates with short-lived multicellular sporophyte totally or partially dependent on the gametophyte?

1. Bryophytes
2. Pteridophytes
3. Embryophytes
4. Dermatophytes

Explanation

In bryophytes dominant independent phase is gametophyte and it alternates with short-lived multicellular sporophyte totally or partially dependent on the gametophytes.

9. Which are simple plants that lack true roots, true stems and true leaves.?

1. Fungi
2. Bryophytes
3. Algae
4. All the above

Explanation

Algae are simple plants that lack true roots, true stems and true leaves. Two-third of our earth’s surface is covered by oceans and seas. The photosynthetic plants called algae are present here. More than half of the total primary productivity of the world depends on this plant group. Further, other aquatic organisms also depend upon them for their existence.

10. In which among the following, sporophyte is the independent phase. It alternates with multicellular saprophytic or autotrophic, independent, short lived gametophyte(n)?

1. Chamaephytes
2. Pteridophytes
3. Embryophytes
4. Dermatophytes

Explanation

In pteridophytes sporophyte is the independent phase. It alternates with multicellular saprophytic or autotrophic, independent, short lived gametophyte(n).

11. The study of algae is called ____

1. Vexillology
2. Onomatology
3. Lichenology
4. Phycology

Explanation

The study of algae is called algology or phycology. Some of the eminent algologists include F.E. Fritsch, F.E. Round, R.E. Lee, M.O.Parthasarathy Iyengar, M.S. Randhawa, Y. Bharadwaja, V.S. Sundaralingam and T.V.Desikachary.

12. Who among the following is the father of Father of Indian Phycology?

1. T. V. Desikachary
2. M. O. Parthasarathy
3. Y. Bharadwaj
4. M. S. Randhawa

Explanation

M.O.Parthasarathy (1886-1963) ‘Father of Indian Phycology’. He conducted research on structure, cytology, reproduction and taxonomy of Algae. He published a Monograph on Volvocales.

13. Which among the following algal was not reported by M. O. Parthasarathy?

1. Ecballocystopsis
2. Oedogonium
3. Charasiphon
4. Cylindrocapsopsis

Explanation

New algal forms like Fritschiella, Ecballocystopsis, Charasiphon and Cylindrocapsopsis. were reported by M. O. Parthasarathy.

14. Which algae grow in snow covered mountains and impart red colour to the snow (Red snow)?

1. Chlamydomonas nivalis
2. Oedogonium chara
3. Cephaleuros virescens
4. Chondrus crispus

Explanation

Chlamydomonas nivalis grow in snow covered mountains and impart red colour to the snow (Red snow).

15. A few algae grow on the surface of aquatic plants and are called ____

1. Endophytic algae
2. Epiphytic algae
3. Macrophytic algae
4. Holophytic algae

Explanation

A few algae grow on the surface of aquatic plants and are called epiphytic algae (Coleochaete, and Rhodymenia).

16. Which among the following algae grow on the shells of molluscs?

1. Oedogonium chara
2. Cephaleuros virescens
3. Dunaliella salina
4. Cladophora crispata

Explanation

Chlorella leads an endozoic life in hydra and sponges whereas Cladophora crispata grow on the shells of molluscs.

17. Which among the following algae grows in salt pans?

1. Oedogonium chara
2. Dunaliella salina
3. Cephaleuros virescens
4. Chondrus crispus

Explanation

Algae are adapted to thrive in harsh environment too. Dunaliella salina grows in salt pans (Halophytic alga).

18. Which among the following algae is freshwater algae?

1. Gracilaria
2. Sargassum
3. Ulothrix
4. All the above

Explanation

Algae are autotrophs, and grow in a wide range of habitats. Majority of them are aquatic, marine (Gracilaria, and Sargassum) and freshwater (Oedogonium, and Ulothrix) and also found in soils (Fritschiella, and Vaucheria).

19. Which is the Oldest recorded alga, which was discovered in the banded iron formations of northern Michigan?

1. Volvox
2. Grypania
3. Ulva
4. Chlorella

Explanation

The Oldest recorded alga is Grypania, which was discovered in the banded iron formations of northern Michigan and dated to approximately 2100Ma.

20. Match the following thallus organization in algae with example

1. Unicellular motile – 1. Volvox
2. Unicellular non-motile – 2. Chlamydomonas
3. Colonial motile – 3. Vaucheria
4. Colonial non-motile – 4. Hydrodictyon
5. Siphonous – 5. Chlorella
6. 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1
7. 2 – 5 – 1 – 4 – 3
8. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1 – 5
9. 5 – 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

Explanation

The algae show a great diversity in size, shape and structure. A wide range of thallus organisation is found in algae. Unicellular motile (Chlamydomonas), unicellular non-motile (Chlorella), Colonial motile (Volvox), Colonial non motile (Hydrodictyon), siphonous (Vaucheria).

21. Algae are eukaryotes except which algae?

1. Dinoflagellates
2. Red algae
3. Brown algae
4. Blue green algae

Explanation

Algae are eukaryotes except blue green algae. The plant body does not show differentiation into tissue systems.

22. In Chara the thallus is encrusted with what?

1. Silicon sulphate
2. Sodium carbonate
3. Calcium carbonate
4. Potassium sulphate

Explanation

In Chara the thallus is encrusted with calcium carbonate. Some algae possess algin, polysulphate esters of polysaccharides which are the sources for the alginate, agar agar and carrageenan.

23. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The cell wall of algae is made up of cellulose and hemicellulose. Siliceous walls are present in diatoms. The cell has a membrane bound nucleus and cell organelles like chloroplast, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi bodies etc., Pyrenoids are present.
2. They are proteinaceous bodies found in chromatophores and assist in the synthesis and storage of starch. The pigmentation, reserve food material and flagellation differ among the algal groups.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The cell wall of algae is made up of cellulose and hemicellulose. Siliceous walls are present in diatoms. The cell has a membrane bound nucleus and cell organelles like chloroplast, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi bodies etc., Pyrenoids are present.

24. In which among the following method algae does not reproduce?

1. Vegetative
2. Asexual
3. Sexual
4. None of the above

Explanation

Algae reproduces by vegetative, asexual and sexual methods.

25. Which among the following is not the vegetative reproduction of algae?

1. Fission
2. Fragmentation
3. Akinetes
4. Anisogamy

Explanation

Vegetative reproduction includes fission, fragmentation, budding, bulbils, akinetes, and tubers.

26. In which vegetative reproduction of algae Thick-walled spores meant for perennation and germinates with the advent of favourable condition?

1. Fission
2. Akinetes
3. Budding
4. Tubers

Explanation

In Akinetes (vegetative reproduction) Thick-walled spores meant for perennation and germinates with the advent of favourable condition.

27. Which among the following is the example of Akinetes?

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Ulothrix
3. Pithophora
4. All the above

Explanation

Pithophora is example of Akinetes.

28. In which vegetative reproduction in algae, in unicellular forms the cell divides mitotically to produce two daughter cells?

1. Fission
2. Fragmentation
3. Budding
4. Tubers

Explanation

During fission (vegetative reproduction) in unicellular forms the cell divides mitotically to produce two daughter cells.

29. In which vegetative reproduction of algae, Structures found on the rhizoids and the lower nodes of Chara which store food materials?

1. Fragmentation
2. Budding
3. Tubers
4. Bulbils

Explanation

In Tubers Structures found on the rhizoids and the lower nodes of Chara which store food materials.

30. In which among the following vegetative reproduction a wedge-shaped modified branch develop in Sphacelaria?

1. Fragmentation
2. Budding
3. Bulbils
4. All the above

Explanation

In bulbils, a wedge-shaped modified branch develops in Sphacelaria. In Budding a lateral bud is formed in some members like Protosiphon and helps in reproduction

31. Which among the following is the example of Fragmentation (vegetative reproduction)?

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Ulothrix
3. Pithophora
4. All the above

Explanation

In Fragmentation the fragments of parent thallus grow into new individual Example: Ulothrix. Chlamydomonas is example of fission.

32. In which among the following asexual reproduction take place by production of thin walled non motile spores?

1. Tetraspores
2. Hypnospore
3. Autospores
4. Aplanospore

Explanation

Asexual reproduction takes place by the production of zoospores motile spores (Ulothrix, Oedogonium). In aplanospore asexual reproduction take place by production of thin walled non motile spores.

33. In asexual reproduction, spores which look similar to parent cell are called ____

1. Zoospores
2. Autospore
3. Hypnospore
4. Tetraspores

Explanation

In asexual reproduction, spores which look similar to parent cell are called autospores.

34. The thick walled aplanospore are called ____

1. Zoospores
2. Autospore
3. Hypnospore
4. Tetraspores

Explanation

The thick walled aplanospore are called Hypnospore.

35. Diploid thallus of Polysiphonia produce haploid spores after meiosis, these spores are called __

1. Zoospores
2. Teliospore
3. Androspore
4. Tetraspores

Explanation

Diploid thallus of Polysiphonia produce haploid spores after meiosis, these spores are called Tetraspores.

36. Which among the following is the example aplanospore?

1. Chlorella
2. Vaucheria
3. Chlamydomonas nivalis
4. All the above

Explanation

Vaucheria is example of aplanospore.

37. Which among the following is the example of autospore?

1. Chlorella
2. Ulothrix
3. Chlamydomonas nivalis
4. All the above

Explanation

Chlorella is example of autospore. Chlamydomonas nivalis is example of Hypnospore.

38. Which among the following is not the sexual reproduction in algae?

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Oogamy
4. Polygamy

Explanation

Sexual reproduction in algae is of three types 1. Isogamy, 2. Anisogamy and 3. Polygamy.

39. Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes is known as ___

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Oogamy
4. None of the above

Explanation

Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes is known as Oogamy.

40. Which among the following sexual reproduction in algae is incorrectly matched with its example?

1. Isogamy – Pandorina
2. Anisogamy – Ulothrix
3. Oogamy – Sargassum
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ulothrix is example of Isogamy and Pandorina is example of Isogamy.

41. Fusion of morphologically and Physiologically similar gametes is known as ____

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Oogamy
4. None of the above

Explanation

Fusion of morphologically and Physiologically similar gametes is known as Isogamy. Fusion of either morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes is known as Anisogamy.

42. Who proposed a classification for algae based on pigmentation, types of flagella, reserve food materials, thallus structure and reproduction?

1. William T. Stearn
2. Johannes Schmidt
3. F. E. Fritsch
4. Albert Seward

Explanation

F.E. Fritsch proposed a classification for algae based on pigmentation, types of flagella, reserve food materials, thallus structure and reproduction. He published his classification in the book “The structure and reproduction of the Algae” (1935).

43. How many classes of algae are classified by F. E. Fritsch?

1. Three
2. Seven
3. Eleven
4. Fourteen

Explanation

F. E. Fritsch classified algae into 11 classes.

44. Which among the following is not the classification of algae by F. E. Fritsch?

1. Chlorophyceae
2. Xanthophyceae
3. Euglenophyceae
4. Anthrophyceae

Explanation

F. E. Fritsch classified algae into 11 classes namely Chlorophyceae, Xanthophyceae, Chrysophyceae, Bacillariophyceae, Cryptophyceae, Dinophyceae, Chloromonadineae, Euglenophyceae, Phaeophyceae, Rhodophyceae, Cyanophyceae.

45. The members of Chlorophyceae are commonly called _____

1. Red algae
2. Blue green algae
3. Green algae
4. Yellow algae

Explanation

The members of Chlorophyceae are commonly called ‘Green algae’.

46. Which among the following species of Chlorophyceae is terrestrial?

1. Spirogyra
2. Ulva
3. Trentipohlia
4. All the above

Explanation

Most of the species of Chlorophyceae are aquatic (Fresh water-Spirogyra, Marine -Ulva). A few are terrestrial (Trentipohlia).

47. Which among the following algae is not the example of Chlorophyceae

1. Chlorella
2. Dictyota
3. Chlamydomonas
4. Volvox

Explanation

Examples for the Chlorophyceae algae includes Chlorella, Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Spirogyra, Ulothrix, Chara and Ulva

48. Match the following Chlorophyceae members based on size with example

1. Cup shaped – 1. Zygnema
2. Discoid – 2. Ulothrix
3. Girdle shaped – 3. Chara
4. Reticulate – 4. Chlamydomonas
5. Stellate – 5. Oedogonium
6. 4 – 3 – 2 – 5 – 1
7. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4 – 5
8. 2 – 5 – 1 – 3 – 4
9. 1 – 4 – 5 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Variation among the shape of the chloroplast is found in members of Chlorophyceae. It is cup shaped (Chlamydomonas), discoid (Chara), girdle shaped, (Ulothrix), reticulate (Oedogonium), spiral (Spirogyra), stellate (Zygnema) and plate like (Mougeoutia).

49. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Chlorophyceae

1. Chlorophyll ‘a’ and Chlorophyll ‘b’ are the major photosynthetic pigments. Storage bodies called Riella are present in the chloroplast and store potash. They also contain proteins. The cell wall is made up of outer layer of cellulose and inner layer of pectin.
2. Vegetative reproduction takes place by means of fragmentation and asexual reproduction is by the production of zoospores, aplanospores and akinetes. Sexual reproduction is present and may be isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Chlorophyll ‘a’ and Chlorophyll ‘b’ are the major photosynthetic pigments. Storage bodies called pyrenoids are present in the chloroplast and store starch. They also contain proteins. The cell wall is made up of inner layer of cellulose and outer layer of pectin.

50. The member of Phaeophyceae class are called _____

1. Brown algae
2. Red algae
3. Green algae
4. Blue green algae

Explanation

The members of Phaeophyceae class are called ‘Brown algae’.

51. Majority of the phaeophyceae are found in which habitats?

1. Marine
2. Fresh water
3. Terrestrial
4. Air

Explanation

Majority of the phaeophyceae are found in marine habitats. Pleurocladia is a fresh water form. The thallus is filamentous (Ectocarpus) frond like (Dictyota)or may be giant kelps (Laminaria and Macrocystis).

52. In Phaeophyceae, thallus is differentiated into leaf like photosynthetic part called ____

1. Stipe
2. Fronds
3. Cupid
4. Poes

Explanation

The thallus is differentiated into leaf like photosynthetic part called fronds, a stalk like structure called stipe and a holdfast which attach thallus to the substratum.

53. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Phaeophyceae

1. The Pigments in Phaeophyceae include Chlorophyll x, y, Carotenoids and Xanthophylls. A yellow-green pigment called fucoxanthin is present and it gives shades of colour from shiny red to white to the algal members of this group.
2. Mannitol and Laminarin are the reserve food materials. Motile reproductive structures are present. Two laterally inserted unequal flagella are present. Among these one is whiplash and another is tinsel.
3. Although sexual reproduction ranges from isogamy to oogamy, most of the forms show oogamous type. Alternation of generation is present (isomorphic, heteromorphic or diplontic).
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Pigments in Phaeophyceae include Chlorophyll a, c, Carotenoids and Xanthophylls. A golden brown pigment called fucoxanthin is present and it gives shades of colour from olive green to brown to the algal members of this group.

54. Which among the following is not the examples of Phaeophyceae?

1. Gelidium
2. Sargassum
3. Laminaria
4. Dictyota

Explanation

Examples for Phaeophyceae include Sargassum, Laminaria, Fucus and Dictyota.

55. The members of the Rhodophyceae are called ____

1. Brown algae
2. Yellow algae
3. Pink algae
4. Red algae

Explanation

The members of the Rhodophyceae are called Red algae are mostly marine.

56. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Rhodophyceae

1. In Rhodophyceae thallus is multicellular, macroscopic and diverse in form. Porphyridium is the unicellular form. Filamentous (Goniotrichum) ribbon like (Porphyra) are also present. Corallina and Lithothamnion are heavily impregnated with lime and form coral reefs.
2. Apart from chlorophyll a, r-phycoerythrin and r-phycocyanin are the photosynthetic pigments. Asexual reproduction takes place by means of monospores, neutral spores and tetraspores. The storage product is floridean starch.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

57. In Rhodophyceae Sexual reproduction take place by ____

1. Isogamous
2. Anisogamous
3. Oogamous
4. All the above

Explanation

In Rhodophyceae Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Male sex organ is spermatangium which produces spermatium.

58. In Rhodophyceae Female sex organ is called ____

1. Carpogonium
2. Ceramium
3. Polygonium
4. Serapogonium

Explanation

In Rhodophyceae Female sex organ is called carpogonium. The spermatium is carried by the water currents and fuse with egg nucleus to form zygote. The zygote develops into carpospores. Meiosis occurs during carpospore formation. Alternation of generation is present.

59. Which among the following is not the example of Rhodophyceae?

1. Ceramium
2. Gigartina
3. Gelidium
4. Ulothrix

Explanation

Examples for Rhodophyceae algae include Ceramium, Polysiphonia, Gelidium, Cryptonemia and Gigartina.

60. Who is the father of Indian Bryology?

1. Vinay Simha
2. V. S. Sundaralingam
3. Shiv Ram Kashyap
4. F. E. Round

Explanation

Shiv Ram Kashyap is the father of Indian Bryology. He published a book- ‘Liverworts of Western Himalayas and Punjab Plains’ He identified new genera like Atchinsoniella, Sauchia, Sewardiella and Stephansoniella.

61. Which among the following Algae is used for food purpose?

1. Chlorella
2. Laminaria
3. Sargassum
4. All the above

Explanation

Chlorella, Laminaria, Sargassum, Ulva, Enteromorpha are the algae used for Food.

62. Which among the following algae is involved in red rust of coffee?

1. Chlamydomonas crispus
2. Chondrus crispus
3. Ascophyllum virescens
4. Cephaleuros virescens

Explanation

Cephaleuros virescens is the algae involved in Red rust of coffee.

63. Which among the following algae is not used for Fertilizer?

1. Lithophyllum
2. Laminaria
3. Chara
4. Fucus

Explanation

Lithophyllum, Chara, Fucus are the algae used for Fertilizer.

64. Which is a Cell wall material used for media preparation in the microbiology lab obtained from algae?

1. Agar Agar
2. Carrageenan
3. Alginate
4. Polish

Explanation

Agar Agar – Cell wall material used for media preparation in the microbiology lab.

65. Which among the following algae is used for Sewage treatment, Pollution indicators?

1. Chlorella
2. Scenedesmus
3. Chlamydomonas
4. All the above

Explanation

Chlorella, Scenedesmus, Chlamydomonas are the algae used for Sewage treatment, Pollution indicator.

66. Which algae is used for antibiotics?

1. Laminaria
2. Chlorella
3. Fucus
4. Ascophyllum

Explanation

Chlorella is used for antibiotics (Chlorellin).

67. Which green alga is employed in Biofuel production?

1. Botryococcus braunii
2. Chondrus crispus
3. Gracilaria virescens
4. All the above

Explanation

A green alga Botryococcus braunii is employed in Biofuel production.

68. Which are the rich source of Iodine Chlorella is used as single cell Protein (SCP)?

1. Arame
2. Kelp
3. Alaria
4. Undaria

Explanation

Kelps are the rich source of Iodine Chlorella is used as single cell Protein (SCP).

69. Which is an alga growing in salt pan is complement to our health and provide β carotene?

1. Diatom salina
2. Lithophyllum salina
3. Dunaliella salina
4. Ascophyllum salina

Explanation

Dunaliella salina an alga, growing in salt pan is complement to our health and provide β carotene.

70. Which algae is used for carrageenan (preparation n of tooth paste, paint, blood coagulant)?

1. Chondrus crispus
2. Cephaleuros virescens
3. Postelia palmaeformis
4. All the above

Explanation

Chondrus crispus is algae used for Carrageenan (Preparation of tooth paste, paint, blood coagulant).

71. Which among the following algae is not used for Alginate – ice cream, paints, flame proof fabrics?

1. Laminaria
2. Ascophyllum
3. Fucus
4. All the above

Explanation

Laminaria, Ascophyllum are algae used for Alginate – ice cream, paints, flame proof fabrics.

72. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Algae like Laminaria, Sargassum, Ascophyllum, Fucus are used for Fodder. Diatom is algae used for Diatomaceous earth– water filters, insulation material, reinforcing agent in concrete and rubber.
2. Algae like Kappaphycus alvarezii, Gracilaria edulis and Gelidiella acerosa are commercially grown in the sea for harvesting the phycocolloids. Sea Palm is Postelia palmaeformis a brown alga.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

73. Which are simplest land inhabiting cryptogams and are restricted to moist, shady habitats and they lack vascular tissue and hence called ‘Non- vascular cryptogams’?

1. Bryophytes
2. Pteridophytes
3. Mesophyte
4. Xerophytes

Explanation

Bryophytes are simplest land inhabiting cryptogams and are restricted to moist shady habitats. They lack vascular tissue and hence called ‘Non- vascular cryptogams.

74. Bryophytes are also called as _____

1. Reptiles of plant kingdom
2. Joints of plant kingdom
3. Amphibians of plant kingdom
4. Extension of plant kingdom

Explanation

Bryophytes are also called as ‘amphibians of plant kingdom’ because they need water for completing their life cycle.

75. Which among the following statement is correct

1. A wide range of thallus organization known as Algae, majority of them are aquatic. The development of heterotrichous habit, development of parenchyma tissue and dichotomous branching in some algae supports the view that colonization of plants in land occurred in the past.
2. Bryophytes are simplest and non-primitive plant groups descended from alga – like ancestors. They are simple embryophytes. The plant body of bryophyte is pteridophyte and is differentiated into root, stem and leaf like structure.
3. Most of them are primitive land dwellers. Some of them are aquatic (Riella, Ricciocarpus). Vascular tissue like xylem and phloem are completely absent, hence called ‘Non vascular cryptogams’.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Bryophytes are simplest and most primitive plant groups descended from alga – like ancestors. They are simple embryophytes. The plant body of bryophyte is gametophyte and is not differentiated into root, stem and leaf like structure.

76. In bryophytes sexual reproduction is ____

1. Isogamous
2. Anisogamous
3. Oogamous
4. All the above

Explanation

In bryophytes Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Antheridia and Archegonia are produced in a protective covering and are multicellular. Water is essential for fertilization.

77. Which among the following statement is correct regarding bryophytes

1. The gametophyte is conspicuous, short lived phase of the life cycle. Thalloid forms are present in liverworts and absent in Hornworts. In Mosses leaf like, stem like structures are absent. In Liverworts thallus grows prostrate on the ground and is attached to the substratum by means of chord.
2. Two types of rhizoids are present namely smooth walled and pegged or tuberculate. Multicellular scales are also present. In Moss the plant body is erect with central axis bearing leaf like expansions. Multicellular rhizoids are present.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The gametophyte is conspicuous, long lived phase of the life cycle. Thalloid forms are present in liverworts and Hornworts. In Mosses leaf like, stem like structures are present. In Liverworts thallus grows prostrate on the ground and is attached to the substratum by means of rhizoids.

78. In bryophytes, which is the first cell of the sporophyte generation?

1. Morula
2. Zygote
3. Blastocyst
4. None of the above

Explanation

The zygote is the first cell of the sporophyte generation. It undergoes mitotic division to form multicellular undifferentiated embryo. The embryogeny is exoscopic (the first division of the zygote is transverse and the apex of the embryo develops from the outer cell). The embryo divides and give rise to sporophyte.

79. Which among the following statement is correct regarding sexual reproduction in bryophytes?

1. The antheridia produce biflagellate antherozoids which swims in thin film of water and reach the archegonium and fuse with the egg to form diploid zygote. Water is essential for fertilization.
2. The sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte. It is differentiated into three recognizable parts namely foot, seta and capsule. Foot is the basal portion and is embedded in the gametophyte through which water and nutrients are supplied for the sporophyte.
3. The diploid spore mother cells found in the capsule region undergoes meiotic division and give rise to haploid spores. Bryophytes are homosporous. In some sporophytes elaters are present and help in dispersal of spores (Example: Marchantia). The spores germinate to produce gametophyte.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

80. The zygote, embryo and the sporogonium constitute sporophytic phase. The green long living haploid phase is called ____

1. Periphytic phase
2. Gametophytic phase
3. Xerophytic phase
4. Halophytic phase

Explanation

The zygote, embryo and the sporogonium constitute sporophytic phase. The green long living haploid phase is called gametophytic phase. The haploid gametophytic phase alternates with diploid sporophyte and shows heterologous alternation of generation.

81. Vegetative reproduction in bryophytes takes place by the formation of adventitious buds (Riccia fluitans) tubers develop in ____

1. Anthoceros
2. Santeros
3. Braceros
4. Cilantros

Explanation

Vegetative reproduction takes place by the formation of adventitious buds (Riccia fluitans) tubers develop in Anthoceros.

82. What was the propagative organ in Marchantia formed and help in reproduction?

1. Gemmae
2. Riella
3. Funaria
4. Porella

Explanation

In some form small detachable branches or brood bodies are formed, they help in vegetative reproduction as in Bryopteris fruticulose. In Marchantia propagative organs called gemmae are formed and help in reproduction.

83. Proskauer in the year 1957 classified Bryophytes into how many classes?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Seven
4. Nine

Explanation

Proskauer in the year 1957 classified Bryophytes into 3 Classes namely i. Hepaticopsida ii. Anthocerotopsida iii. Bryopsida.

84. Which among the following does not belong to class Hepaticopsida?

1. Riccia
2. Marchantia
3. Porella
4. Funaria

Explanation

Hepaticopsida – Riccia, Marchantia, Porella and Riella.

85. Which among the following does not belong to class Bryopsida?

1. Funaria
2. Polytrichum
3. Dendroceros
4. Sphagnum

Explanation

Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum belong to class Bryospida ; Anthoceros and Dendroceros belong to class Hepaticopsida.

86. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Economic importance of bryophytes

1. Dead thalli of Sphagnum gets accumulated and compressed, hardened to form peat. In northern Europe (Netherlands)peat is used as fuel in commercial scale. Apart from this nitrates, brown dye and tanning materials are derived from peat.
2. Sphagnum and peat are also used in horticulture as packing material because of their water holding capacity. Marchantia polymorpha is used to cure pulmonary tuberculosis. Sphagnum, Bryum and Polytrichum are used as food. Bryophytes play a major role in soil formation through succession and help in soil conservation
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

87. Which are the vascular cryptogams and were abundant in the Devonian period of Palaeozoic era (400 million years ago)?

1. Bryophytes
2. Pteridophytes
3. Mesophyte
4. Xerophytes

Explanation

Pteridophytes are the vascular cryptogams and were abundant in the Devonian period of Palaeozoic era (400 million years ago).

88. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Pteridophytes?

1. we are aware of the salient features of amphibious plants called bryophytes. But there is a plant group called pteridophytes which are considered as first true land plants. Further, they were the first plants to acquire vascular tissue namely xylem and phloem, hence called vascular cryptogams.
2. Club moss, horsetails, quill worts, water ferns and tree ferns belong to this group. These plants are mostly small, herbaceous and grow well in moist, cool and shady places where water is available.
3. Plant body is sporophyte (n) and it is the variant phase. It is not differentiated into root, stem and leaves. Stele is protostele but in some forms siphonostele is present (Marsilea). Tracheids are the major nitrogen conducting elements but in Selaginella vessels are found.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Plant body is sporophyte (2n) and it is the dominant phase. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves. Roots are adventitious. Stem shows monopodial or dichotomous branching. Leaves may be microphyllous or megaphyllous. Stele is protostele but in some forms siphonostele is present (Marsilea) Tracheids are the major water conducting elements but in Selaginella vessels are found.

89. Sporangia, spore bearing bag like structures are borne on special leaves called ___

1. Sporogamy
2. Sporogosm
3. Sporophyll
4. All the above

Explanation

Sporangia, spore bearing bag like structures are borne on special leaves called sporophyll. The Sporophylls get organized to form cone or strobilus. Example: Selaginella, Equisetum. They may be homosporous (produce one type of spores-Lycopodium) or Heterosporous (produce two types of spores-Selaginella). Heterospory is the origin for seed habit.

90. The success and dominance of vascular plants is due to the development of ____

1. Extensive root system
2. Efficient conducting tissues
3. Cuticle to prevent desiccation
4. All the above

Explanation

The success and dominance of vascular plants is due to the development of • Extensive root system. • Efficient conducting tissues. • Cuticle to prevent desiccation. • Stomata for effective gaseous exchange.

91. In pteridophytes the development of sporangium from group of initials is called ____

1. Leptosporangiate
2. Capeosporabgiate
3. Marsporangiate
4. Eusporangiate

Explanation

The development of sporangium from group of initials is called Eusporangiate.

92. The development of sporangium from single initial is called ____

1. Leptosporangiate
2. Capeosporabgiate
3. Marsporangiate
4. Eusporangiate

Explanation

The development of sporangium from single initial is called Leptosporangiate. Development of sporangia may be eusporangiate or leptosporangiate

93. Which among the following statement is correct regarding pteridophytes

1. Spore mother cells undergo meiosis and produce spores (2n). Spore germinates to produce haploid, unicellular brown, spiral shaped independent gametophytes called prothallus. Fragmentation, resting buds, root tubers and adventitious buds help in asexual reproduction.
2. Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Sex organs, namely antheridium and archegonium are produced on the prothallus. Antheridium produces spirally coiled and multiflagellate antherozoids. Archegonium is flask shaped with broad venter and elongated narrow neck.
3. The venter possesses egg or ovum and neck contain neck canal cells. Water is essential for fertilization. After fertilization a diploid zygote is formed and undergoes mitotic division to form embryo. Pteridophytes show apogamy and apospory.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Spore mother cells undergo meiosis and produce spores (n). Spore germinates to produce haploid, multicellular green, cordate shaped independent gametophytes called prothallus. Fragmentation, resting buds, root tubers and adventitious buds help in vegetative reproduction.

94. In classification of pteridophytes proposed by reimer, pteridophytes are classified into how many subdivisions?

1. Three
2. Five
3. Seven
4. Nine

Explanation

Reimer (1954) proposed a classification for pteridophytes. In this classification, the pteridophytes are divided into five subdivisions. There are 19 orders and 48 families in the classification.

95. Which among the following is not the subdivision of pteridophytes?

1. Psilophytopsida
2. Psilotopsida
3. Ycopsida
4. Pscopitospida

Explanation

The five subdivision of pteridophytes 1. Psilophytopsida 2. Psilotopsida 3. Lycopsida 4. Sphenopsida 5. Pteropsida.

96. Which among the following term refers to the central cylinder of vascular tissues consisting of xylem, phloem, pericycle and sometimes medullary rays with pith?

1. Borne
2. Mitotic
3. Stele
4. Grid

Explanation

The term stele refers to the central cylinder of vascular tissues consisting of xylem, phloem, pericycle and sometimes medullary rays with pith.

97. Which among the following is not the type of steles?

1. Protostele
2. Siphonostele
3. Xylostele
4. None of the above

Explanation

There are two types of steles 1. Protostele 2. Siphonostele.

98. Which among the following is not the type of Protostele?

1. Haplostele
2. Actinostele
3. Plectostele
4. Solenostele

Explanation

In protostele phloem surrounds xylem. The type includes Haplostele, Actinostele, Plectostele, and Mixed protostele.

99. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Protostele

1. Xylem surrounded by phloem is known as haplostele
2. Sphere shaped xylem core is surrounded by phloem is known as actinostele
3. Xylem plates alternates with phloem plates is known as plectostele
4. Xylem groups uniformly scattered in the phloem is known as Mixed protostele

Explanation

Star shaped xylem core is surrounded by phloem is known as actinostele.

100. Match the following Protostele with its example

1. Haplostele – 1. Lycopodium clavatum
2. Actinostele – 2. Lycopodium serratum
3. Plectostele – 3. Selaginella
4. Mixed protostele – 4. Lycopodium cernuum
5. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
6. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
7. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
8. 1 – 4 – 3 – 2

Explanation

Haplostele (Selaginella), Actinostele (Lycopodium Serratum), Plectostele (Lycopodium clavatum) and Mixed Protostele (Lycopodium cernuum).

101. In which among the following xylem is surrounded by phloem with pith at the centre?

1. Protostele
2. Siphonostele
3. Xylostele
4. None of the above

Explanation

In siphonostele xylem is surrounded by phloem with pith at the centre.

102. Which among the following is not included in Siphonostele?

1. Solenostele
2. Eustele
3. Pxycostele
4. Atactostele

Explanation

Siphonostele includes Ectophloic siphonostele, Amphiphloic siphonostele, Solenostele, Eustele, Atactostele and Polycylic stele.

103. In which siphonostele the vascular tissues are present in the form of two or more concentric cylinders?

1. Polycyclicstele
2. Atactostele
3. Dictyostele
4. Eustele

Explanation

In Polycyclicstele vascular tissues are present in the form of two or more concentric cylinders.

104. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Siphonostele

1. Ectophloic siphonostele: The phloem is restricted only on the external side of the xylem and pith is in the centre
2. Amphiphloic siphonostele: The phloem is present on both the sides of xylem and the pith is in the centre
3. Atactostele: The stele is perforated at a place or places corresponding the origin of the leaf trace.
4. Eustele: The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles around the pith.

Explanation

Atactostele: The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles and are scattered in the ground tissue.

105. Match the following Siphonostele with its example

1. Ectophloic siphonostele – 1. Monocot stem
2. Amphiphloic siphonostele – 2. Dicot stem
3. Eustele – 3. Osmunda
4. Atactostele – 4. Pteridium
5. Polycyclicstele – 5. Marsilea
6. 3 – 5 – 2 – 1 – 4
7. 2 – 1 – 5 – 3 – 4
8. 4 – 1 – 5 – 3 – 2
9. 5 – 3 – 1 – 4 – 2

Explanation

Ectophloic siphonostele – Osmunda; Amphiphloic siphonostele – Marsilea; Eustele – Dicot stem; Atactostele – Monocot stem; Polycyclicstele – Pteridium.

106. Which among the following is not the type of Solenostele?

1. Ectophloic solenostele
2. Amphiphloic solenostele
3. Vaseostele
4. Dictyostele

Explanation

In Solenostele, stele is perforated at a place or places corresponding the origin of the leaf trace. They are (a) Ectophloic solenostele, (b) Amphiphloic solenostele and (c) Dictyostele.

107. Which are naked seed producing plants, were dominant in the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods of Mesozoic era and members are distributed throughout the temperate and tropical region of the world?

1. Gymnosperm
2. Angiosperm
3. Xenosperm
4. Paleosperm

Explanation

Gymnosperm are naked seed producing plants. They were dominant in the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods of Mesozoic era. The members are distributed throughout the temperate and tropical region of the world.

108. Which among the following is a plant secretion which is an efficient preservative that doesn’t get degraded and hence can preserve remains of extinct life forms?

1. Amber
2. Flip
3. Camper
4. Clamp

Explanation

Amber is a plant secretion which is an efficient preservative that doesn’t get degraded and hence can preserve remains of extinct life forms. The amber is produced by Pinites succinifera, a Gymnosperm.

109. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Gymnosperm?

1. Most of the gymnosperms are evergreen, woody trees or shrubs. Some are lianas (Gnetum). The plant body is sporophyte and is differentiated into root, stem and leaves. A well-developed tap root system is present. Coralloid roots of Cycas have symbiotic association with blue green algae. In Pinus the roots have mycorrhizae.
2. The stem is aerial, erect and branched or unbranched (Cycas) with leaf scars. In conifers two types of branches namely branches of limited growth (Dwarf shoot) and Branches of unlimited growth (Long shoot) is present.
3. Leaves are dimorphic, foliage and scale leaves are present. Foliage leaves are green, photosynthetic and borne on branches of limited growth. They show xerophytic features. The xylem consists of tracheids but in Gnetum and Ephedra vessels are present. They are heterosporous. The plant may be monoecious (Pinus) or dioecious (Cycas)
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

110. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Gymnosperms resemble with angiosperms?

1. Flowers in Gnetum resemble the male flower of the angiosperm. The zygote represent the first cell of sporophyte.
2. Presence of integument inside the ovule. Both plant groups absence seeds.
3. Pollen tube helps in the transfer of male nucleus in both. Presence of eustele.
4. Presence of well organised plant body which is differentiated into roots, stem and leaves.

Explanation

Presence of integument around the ovule. Both plant groups produce seeds.

111. Which among the following statement is correct regarding gymnosperm?

1. In gymnosperm Secondary growth is present. The wood may be Manoxylic (Porous, soft, more parenchyma with wide medullary ray -Cycas) or Pycnoxylic (compact with narrow medullary ray-Pinus).
2. Microsporangia and megasporangia are produced on microsporophyll and megasporophyll respectively. Male and female cones are absent. Anemophilous pollination is absent. Fertilization is siphonogamous and pollen tube helps in the transfer of female nuclei.
3. Polyembryony (presence of many embryo) is present. The naked ovule develops into seed. The endosperm is haploid and develop before fertilization. The life cycle shows alternation of generation. The sporophytic phase is dominant and gametophytic phase is highly reduced.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Microsporangia and megasporangia are produced on microsporophyll and megasporophyll respectively. Male and female cones are produced. Anemophilous pollination is present. Fertilization is siphonogamous and pollen tube helps in the transfer of male nuclei.

112. Sporne (1965) classified gymnosperms into how many classes?

1. Three
2. Five
3. Seven
4. Nine

Explanation

Sporne (1965) classified gymnosperms into 3 classes, 9 orders and 31 families.

113. Which among the following is not the classes of gymnosperm?

1. Cycadospsida
2. Steredospsida
3. Coniferopsida
4. Gnetopsida

Explanation

The classes of gymnosperm include i) Cycadospsida ii) Coniferopsida iii) Gnetopsida.

114. Which among the following statement is correct

1. In gymnosperm Vessels are present (except Gnetales). Phloem lacks companion cells, Ovules are naked and Wind pollination is maximum. Double fertilization is absent, Endosperm is haploid, Fruit formation is present and Flowers present.
2. In Angiosperm Vessels are present. Companion cells are present, Ovules are enclosed within the ovary, Insects, wind, water, animals etc., act as pollinating agents. Double fertilization is present, Endosperm is triploid, Fruit formation is present and Flowers present.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

In gymnosperm Vessels are absent (except Gnetales). Phloem lacks companion cells, Ovules are naked and Wind pollination only. Double fertilization is absent, Endosperm is haploid, Fruit formation is absent and Flowers absent.

115. Match the following gymnosperm plants with its economic products?

1. Pinus gerardiana – 1. Resin (Canada balsam)
2. Abies balsamea – 2. oil
3. Pinus roxburghii – 3. wood
4. Cedrus deodara – 4. Oleoresin
5. Cedrus atlantica – 5. Roasted seed
6. 2 – 1 – 3 – 5 – 4
7. 3 – 2 – 5 – 4 – 1
8. 4 – 5 – 3 – 2 – 1
9. 5 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 2

Explanation

1. Pinus gerardiana – Roasted seed – Used as a food; 2. Abies balsamea – Resin (Canada balsam) – Used as mounting medium in permanent slide preparation; 3. Pinus roxburghii – Oleoresin – Used to make soap, varnishes and printing ink; 4. Cedrus deodara – wood – Used to make doors, boats and railway sleepers; 5. Cedrus atlantica – oil – Used in perfumery.

116. Spermatophytes also include plants bearing ovules enclosed in a protective cover called ovary, such plants are called _____

1. Androsperm
2. Rhodosperm
3. Angiosperm
4. Pteridosperm

Explanation

Spermatophytes also include plants bearing ovules enclosed in a protective cover called ovary, such plants are called Angiosperms. They constitute major plant group of our earth and are adapted to the terrestrial mode of life. This group of plants appeared during the early cretaceous period (140 million years ago) and dominates the vegetation on a global scale.

117. In Angiosperm which is the dominant phase?

1. Gametophyte
2. Sporophyte
3. Endophyte
4. Xerophyte

Explanation

In Angiosperm sporophyte is the dominant phase and gametophyte is highly reduced.

118. Which among the following salient feature of angiosperm is incorrect

1. Vascular tissue (Xylem and Phloem) is well developed.
2. Cone are produced instead of flower. The Ovule remains open in the ovary
3. Pollen tube helps in fertilization, so water is not essential for fertilization.
4. Double fertilization is present. The endosperm is triploid.

Explanation

Flowers are produced instead of cone. The Ovule remains enclosed in the ovary.

119. Which among the following is not the classification of Angiosperm?

1. Dicotyledons
2. Monocotyledons
3. Boustrophedons
4. None of the above

Explanation

Angiosperms are broadly classified into two classes namely Dicotyledons and Monocotyledons.

120. Which among the following gymnosperm plant does not produce sago, in which starch used as food?

1. Cycas circinalis
2. Cycas revoluta
3. Ephedra gerardiana
4. None of the above

Explanation

Cycas circinalis, Cycas revoluta produce Sago, in which Starch used as food.

121. Which among the following morphological feature of Dicotyledons is incorrect

1. Reticulate venation is present in the flowers and stems.
2. Presence of two cotyledons in the seed.
3. Primary root radicle persists as tap root.
4. Flowers tetramerous or pentamerous.

Explanation

Reticulate venation is present in the leaves. Tricolpate (3 furrow) pollen is present

122. Which among the following anatomical feature of Dicotyledons is incorrect

1. Vascular bundles are arranged in the form of a ring in stem.
2. Vascular bundles are open (Cambium present).
3. Secondary growth is present.
4. None of the above

123. Which among the following plant (Gymnosperm) does not produce Rosin and Turpentine used for Paper sizing and varnishes?

1. Pinus insularis
2. Pinus roxburghii
3. Taxus brevifolia
4. None of the above

Explanation

Pinus insularis, Pinus roxburghii produce Rosin and Turpentine used for Paper sizing and varnishes.

124. Which among the following plant (Gymnosperm) produce Drug used for cancer treatment?

1. Ephedra gerardiana
2. Taxus brevifolia
3. Pinus roxburghii
4. All the above

Explanation

Taxus brevifolia produce Taxol (Drug) used for cancer treatment.

125. Which among the following morphological feature of monocotyledons is incorrect

1. Parallel venation is present in the leaves.
2. Presence of double cotyledon in the seed.
3. Radicle doesn’t persist and fibrous root is present.
4. Flowers trimerous. Monocolpate (1 furrow) Pollen is present

Explanation

Presence of single cotyledon in the seed.

126. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Anatomical features of Monocotyledons?

1. Vascular bundles are scattered in the stem
2. Vascular bundles are closed (Cambium absent)
3. Secondary growth is present
4. None of the above

Explanation

Secondary growth is absent in Monocotyledons.

127. Which among the following plant (Gymnosperm) is used for r the treatment of asthma, bronchititis?

1. Ephedra gerardiana
2. Picea smithiana
3. Cedrus deodara
4. All the above

Explanation

Ephedra gerardiana produce Ephedrine used for the treatment of asthma, bronchititis.

128. Which among the following plant (Gymnosperm) does not produce wood pulp used to make papers?

1. Pinus roxburghii
2. Cedrus atlantica
3. Picea smithiana
4. None of the above

Explanation

Pinus roxburghii, Picea smithiana produce Wood pulp used to make papers.

129. The National wood fossil park is situated in which district of Tamil Nadu?

1. Chengalpattu
2. Coimbatore
3. Madurai
4. Villupuram

Explanation

The National wood fossil park is situated in Tiruvakkarai, a Village of Villupuram district of Tamil Nadu. The park contains petrified wood fossils approximately 20 million years old.

130 Which among the following fossil park is incorrectly matched with its state?

1. Shiwalik fossil park – Himachal Pradesh
2. Mandla Fossil park – Gujarat
3. Rajmahal Hills – Assam
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Shiwalik fossil park-Himachal Pradesh, Mandla Fossil park-Madhya Pradesh, Rajmahal Hills–Jharkhand, Ariyalur – Tamilnadu are some of the fossil rich sites of India.

131. Which among the following plant (Gymnosperm) produce Tannins used for Bark yield tannins and is used in Leather industries?

1. Araucaria (Monkey’s puzzle)
2. Picea
3. Phyllocladus
4. All the above

Explanation

Araucaria (Monkey’s puzzle), Picea and Phyllocladus are plat produce Tannins used as Bark yield tannins and is used in Leather industries.

132. Which among the following is not the fossil algae?

1. Palaeoporella
2. Dimorphosiphon
3. Hepaticites
4. None of the above

Explanation

Fossil Algae – Palaeoporella, Dimorphosiphon.

133. Which among the following is not the fossil bryophytes?

1. Furcula
2. Naiadita
3. Hepaticites
4. Muscites

Explanation

Fossil Bryophytes – Naiadita, Hepaticites, Muscites.

134. Which among the following plant (Gymnosperm) is used as Ornamental plants/Floral Decoration?

1. Pinus gerardiana
2. Araucaria
3. Phyllocladus
4. Balsamea

Explanation

Thuja, Cupressus, Araucaria, and Cryptomeria are plant used as Ornamental plants/Floral Decoration.

135. Which among the following is not Fossil Pteridophytes?

1. Cooksonia
2. Rhynia
3. Baragwanthia
4. Lepidodendron

Explanation

Fossil Pteridophytes – Cooksonia, Rhynia,, Baragwanthia, Calamites.

136. Which among the following is not the fossil angiosperm?

1. Archaeanthus
2. Furcula
3. Medullosa
4. None of the above

Explanation

Fossil Angiosperms – Archaeanthus, Furcula.

137. Which among the following is not the fossil gymnosperm?

1. Medullosa
2. Lepidocarpon
3. Williamsonia
4. None of the above

Explanation

Fossil Gymnosperms – Medullosa, Lepidocarpon, Williamsonia, Lepidodendron.

138. Which term is used to name the fossil plants because the whole plant is not recovered as fossils instead organs or parts of the extinct plants are obtained in fragments?

1. Plot genera
2. Cameo genera
3. Form genera
4. Paleo genera

Explanation

The term ‘form genera’ is used to name the fossil plants because the whole plant is not recovered as fossils instead organs or parts of the extinct plants are obtained in fragments.

139. Who is the father of Indian Palaeobotany?

1. Prof. Birbal Sahni
2. Prof. Albert Seward
3. Prof. Meghnad Saha
4. Homi J. Bhabha

Explanation

Prof. Birbal Sahni (1891-1949) is Father of Indian Palaeobotany. He described Fossil plants from Rajmahal Hills of Eastern Bihar. Pentoxylon sahnii, Nipanioxylon are some of the form genera described by him.

140. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaebotany is located in _____

1. Raipur
2. Lucknow
3. Ahmedabad
4. Ranchi

Explanation

Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaebotany is located in Lucknow.

141. Choose the correct statements.

i) Algae are heterotrophs and grow in specific habitats.

ii) Algae are grown only in aquatic marine and fresh waters.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Algae are autotrophs, and grow in a wide range of habitats. Majority of them are aquatic, marine (Gracilaria, and Sargassum) and freshwater (Oedogonium, and Ulothrix) and also found in soils (Fritschiella, and Vaucheria).

142. Which of the following is not involved with the asexual reproduction of algae?

a) Monospores

b) Stipuloides

c) Neutral spores

d) Tetraspores

Explanation

Asexual reproduction takes place by means of monospores, neutral spores and tetraspores in algae.

143. In which of these industries Gracilaria and Gigartina are used?

a) Cosmetic industry

b) Textile industry

c) Packaging canned food

d) All the above

Explanation

The algae used are Gracilaria, Gelidiella, and Gigartina. Packing canned food, cosmetic, textile paper industry.

144. Which of the following is not commercially grown in sea for phycocolloids?

a) Kappaphycus alvarezii

b) Fritschiella

c) Gracilaria edulis

d) Gelidiella acerosa

Explanation

A Productive Cultivation in Sea: Algae like Kappaphycus alvarezii, Gracilaria edulis and Gelidiella acerosa are commercially grown in the sea for harvesting the phycocolloids.

145. What are the types of appendages arise from the nodes of the thallus?

a) Branches of limited growth

b) Branches of unlimited growth

c) Stipuloides

d) All the above

Explanation

Thallus structure: The main axis is branched, long and is differentiated into nodes and internodes. Three types of appendages arise from the node. They are Branches of limited growth, Branches of unlimited growth and Stipuloides. The growth of the main axis and its branching takes place by the apical cell.

146. Which of these is not a reproducing method of chara?

a) Amorphous bulbils

b) Asexual reproduction

c) Oogamous

d) Amylum stars

Explanation

Chara reproduces by vegetative and sexual methods. Vegetative reproduction takes place by amylum stars, root bulbils, amorphous bulbils and secondary protonema. Sexual reproduction is oogamous.

147. Which of these genera was identified by Shiv Ram kashyap, Father of Indian Bryology?

a) Atchinsoniella

b) Sewardiella

c) Stephansoniella

d) All the above

Explanation

Shiv Ram Kashyap (1882-1934), Father of Indian Bryology. He published a book-‘Liverworts of Western Himalayas and Punjab Plains’ He identified new genera like Atchinsoniella, Sauchia, Sewardiella and Stephansoniella.

148. Identify the incorrect match of the classes of Bryophytes classified by Proskauer.

A. Bryopsida i) Polytrichum

B. Hepaticopsida ii) Marchantia

C. Anthocerotopsida iii) Riccia

a)i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Proskauer in the year 1957 classified Bryophytes into 3 Classes namely Hepaticopsida (Riccia, Marchantia, Porella and Riella), Anthocerotopsida (Anthoceros and Dendroceros) , Bryopsida (Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum).

149. Which of the following is the higher form of bryophytes?

a) Anthocerotopsida

b) Bryopsida

c) Hepaticopsida

d) All the above

Explanation

Bryopsida are higher forms in which the gametophyte is differentiated into ‘stem’ like and ’leaf’ like parts and the former showing radial symmetry. Rhizoids are multi-cellular and branched. Protonemal stage is present. Sporophyte is differentiated into foot, seta

150. What are the usages of dead thalli of sphagnum, peat?

a) Commercial scale fuel.

b) Brown dye and tanning materials are derived.

c) Used as packing material in horticulture.

d) All the above

Explanation

Dead thalli of Sphagnum gets accumulated and compressed, hardened to form peat. In northern Europe (Netherlands) peat is used as fuel in commercial scale. Apart from this nitrates, brown dye and tanning materials are derived from peat. Sphagnum and peat are also used in horticulture as packing material because of their water holding capacity.

151. Choose the correct statements about the pteridophytes?

a) It is considered as first aquatic plants.

b) First plants to acquire non-vascular tissues.

c) Also known as Non-vascular cryptograms.

d) Club moss, Quill worts and water and tree ferns are pteridophytes.

Explanation

Pteridophytes which are considered as first true land plants. Further, they were the first plants to acquire vascular tissue namely xylem and phloem, hence called vascular cryptogams. Club moss, horsetails, quill worts, water ferns and tree ferns belong to this group.

152. Identify the Incorrect match of the economic importance of Pteridophytes.

A. Marsilea i) Food

B. Lycopodium ii) Ornamental plants

C. Pteris vittata iii) Biofertiliser

D. Pteridium iv) Bioremediation

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

.

153. Choose the Incorrect statements about selaginella.

i) Spike moss is the common name for selaginella.

ii) Selaginella is distributed in fresh water and is more aquatic.

iii) In dry seasons some species gets curled and become fresh when moisture is available.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Selaginella is commonly called ‘spike moss’. They are distributed in humid temperate and tropical rain forests. Selaginella rupestris and Selaginella lepidophylla are Xerophytic. Selaginella kraussiana, Selaginella chrysocaulos, Selaginella megaphylla are some common species. In few Selaginella species during dry season the entire plant body gets curled and become fresh, green when moisture is available. Due to this they are called Resurrection plants. Example S. lepidophylla

154. Based on which factor selaginella is divided into homoeophyllum and heterophyllum?

a) Reproduction methodology

b) Stem structure and arrangement of leaves.

c) Based on the region of habitat.

d) Structure of roots and flowers.

Explanation

On the basis of structure of stem and arrangement of leaves, Selaginella is divided into two sub genera namely Homoeophyllum and Heterophyllum.

155. Choose the incorrect statements about gymnosperms.

i) Dominant in the Jurassic and cretaceous periods of Mesozoic era.

ii) Distributed throughout the temperate and tropical regions of the world.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Gymnosperms (Gr. Gymnos = naked; sperma= seed) are naked seed producing plants. They were dominant in the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods of Mesozoic era. The members are distributed throughout the temperate and tropical region of the world.

156. Choose the correct statements.

i) Angiosperms ovules are naked.

ii) Double fertilization is present in angiosperms.

iii) Fruit formation and flowers are present in gymnosperms.

iv) Wind pollination only takes place in gymnosperms.

a) ii, iv only

b) i, iii, iv only

c) iii only

d) iii, iv only

Explanation

157. Which of the following is not a salient feature of angiosperms?

a) Vascular tissue as xylem and phloem is well developed.

b) Broadly classified into two classes, dicotyledons and monocotyledons.

c) Pollen tube helps in fertilization and water is essential for fertilization.

d) Flowers are produced instead of cone.

Explanation

Salient features of Angiosperms: Vascular tissue (Xylem and Phloem) is well developed. Flowers are produced instead of cone. The Ovule remains enclosed in the ovary. Pollen tube helps in fertilization, so water is not essential for fertilization. Double fertilization is present. The endosperm is triploid. Angiosperms are broadly classified into two classes namely Dicotyledons and Monocotyledons.

11th Science Lesson 11 Questions in English

11] Taxonomy and Systematic Botany

1. Which Greek Philosopher known as “Father of Botany”?

1. Dioscorides
2. Theophrastus
3. Aristotle
4. Parmenides

Explanation

Theophrastus (372 – 287 BC), the Greek Philosopher known as “Father of Botany”. He named and described some 500 plants in his “De Historia Plantarum”.

2. Which Greek physician, described and illustrated in his famous “Materia medica” and described about 600 medicinal plants?

1. Dioscorides
2. Heraclitus
3. Aristotle
4. Parmenides

Explanation

Dioscorides (62 – 127 AD), Greek physician, described and illustrated in his famous “Materia medica” and described about 600 medicinal plants. From 16th century onwards Europe has witnessed a major-developments in the field of Taxonomy.

3. Who among the in year 1753 published s ‘Species Plantarum’ laid strong foundation for the binomial nomenclature?

1. Andrea Caesalpino
2. Carl Linnaeus
3. John Ray
4. Tournefort

Explanation

Carl Linnaeus ‘Species Plantarum’ (1753) laid strong foundation for the binomial nomenclature. Taxonomy is no more classical morphology-based discipline but become a dynamic and transdisciplinary subject, making use of many branches of botany.

4. Which among the following is not the branches of botany?

1. Physiology
2. Biochemistry
3. Ecology
4. Dermatology

Explanation

Branches of botany are such as Cell Biology, Physiology, Biochemistry, Ecology, Pharmacology and also Modern Biotechnology, Molecular Biology and Bioinformatics. It helps to understand biodiversity, wildlife, forest management of natural resources for sustainable use of plants and eco restoration.

5. Which is defined as as “the science dealing with the study of classification including the bases, principles, rules and procedures”?

1. Taxonomy
2. Systematics
3. Physiology
4. All the above

Explanation

The word taxonomy is derived from Greek words “taxis” (arrangement) and “nomos” (rules or laws). Taxonomy is defined as as “the science dealing with the study of classification including the bases, principles, rules and procedures”.

6. Who defined Systematics as, “Scientific study of the kinds and diversity of organisms and all relationships among them”?

1. Andrea Caesalpino
2. John Ray
3. Simpson
4. Tournefort

Explanation

Simpson (1961) defined Systematics as, “Scientific study of the kinds and diversity of organisms and all relationships among them”. Though there are two terms (Taxonomy and Systematics) are used in an interchangeable way, they differ from each other.

7. Which among the following point regarding Taxonomy is incorrect?

1. Discipline of classifying organisms into taxa.
2. Governs the evolutionary history and phylogenetic relationship in addition to taxonomy.
3. Classification + Nomenclature = Taxonomy
4. None of the above

Explanation

Governs the practices of naming, describing, identifying and specimen preservation.

8. Which among the following is s the lowest of classification and shows the high level of similarities among the organisms?

1. Species
2. Genus
3. Class
4. Family

Explanation

Species is the lowest of classification and shows the high level of similarities among the organisms. For example, Helianthus annuus and Helianthus tuberosus. These two species differ in their morphology. Both of them are herbs but Helianthus tuberosus is a perennial herb.

9. Which among the following comprises a number of genera which share some similarities among them?

1. Family
2. Gene
3. Class
4. Order

Explanation

Family comprises a number of genera which share some similarities among them. Example: Asteraceae.

10. Which among the following point regarding systematics is incorrect?

1. Narrow field of biology that studies the diversification of class.
2. Governs the evolutionary history and phylogenetic relationship in addition to taxonomy.
3. Taxonomy + Phylogeny = Systematics.
4. None of the above

Explanation

Broad field of biology that studies the diversification of species.

11. Which among the following consists of multiple species which have similar characters but differ from the species of another genus?

1. Order
2. Genus
3. Class
4. Division

Explanation

Genus consists of multiple species which have similar characters but differ from the species of another genus. Example: Helianthus, Tridax.

12. Which is the highest level or rank of the classification?

1. Order
2. Division
3. Kingdom
4. Class

Explanation

Kingdom is the highest level or rank of the classification. Example: Plantae.

13. Which includes group of families which show less similarities among them?

1. Class
2. Division
3. Order
4. All the above

Explanation

Order includes group of families which show less similarities among them. Class consists of group of orders which share few similarities. Division is the next level of classification that consists of number of classes. Example: Magnoliophyta.

14. Which among the following is not the characters of species?

1. A population of organisms which closely resemble each other more than the other population.
2. They descend from a different ancestor
3. In sexually reproducing organisms, they interbreed freely in nature, producing fertile offspring
4. None of the above

Explanation

Species is the fundamental unit of taxonomic classification. Species is a group of individual organisms which have the following characters. 1. A population of organisms which closely resemble each other more than the other population. 2. They descend from a common ancestor. 3. In sexually reproducing organisms, they interbreed freely in nature, producing fertile offspring

15. Which among the following is not the type of species?

1. Biological Species
2. Morphological Species
3. Phylogenetic Species
4. Cryogenic species

Explanation

Species concepts can be classified into two general groups. Concept emphasizing process of evolution that maintains the species as a unit and that can result in evolutionary divergence and speciation. Another concept emphasises the product of evolution in defining a species. They are 1. Process of evolution – Biological Species 2. Product of evolution – Morphological Species and Phylogenetic Species.

16. When the individuals are similar to one another in one or more features and different from other such groups, they are called ____

1. Biological species
2. Morphological species
3. Phylogenetic species
4. None of the above

Explanation

When the individuals are similar to one another in one or more features and different from other such groups, they are called morphological species.

17. According to whom, biological species are groups of populations that interbreed and are reproductively isolated from other such groups in nature?

1. Will Provine
2. Ernest Mayr
3. Charles Darwin
4. George Simpson

Explanation

According to Ernest Mayr 1963, “biological species are groups of populations that interbreed and are reproductively isolated from other such groups in nature”.

18. Who among the following was not the part of development of concept of Phylogenetic Species?

1. Meglitsch
2. Dawkins
3. Simpson
4. Wiley

Explanation

Phylogenetic Species concept was developed by Meglitsch (1954), Simpson (1961) and Wiley (1978). Wiley defined phylogenetic species as “an evolutionary species is a single lineage of ancestor descendent populations which maintains its identity from other such lineages which has its own evolutionary tendencies and historical fate”.

19. Assigning name for a plant is known as _____

1. Primogeniture
2. Peradventure
3. Nomenclature
4. Quadrature

Explanation

Assigning name for a plant is known as Nomenclature. This is based on the rules and recommendations of the International Code of Botanical Nomenclature. ICBN deals with the names of existing (living) and extinct (fossil) organisms.

20. In 1813 a detailed set of rules regarding plant nomenclature was given by whom in his famous work “Theorie elementaire de la botanique”?

1. A.P. de Candolle
2. Ernest Haeckel
3. Charles Darwin
4. Gregor Mendel

Explanation

In 1813 a detailed set of rules regarding plant nomenclature was given by A.P. de Candolle in his famous work “Theorie elementaire de la botanique”. Then the present ICBN was evolved by following the same rules of Linnaeus, A.P. de Candolle and his son Alphonse de Candolle.

21. Where the International Botanical Congress held in July 2011 brought the change i.e., ICBN is redesignated as ICN?

1. New York
2. Stockholm
3. Melbourne
4. Hong Kong

Explanation

ICBN due to specific reasons and in order to separate plant kingdom from other organisms, is redesignated as ICN. The International Botanical Congress held in Melbourne in July 2011 brought this change. The ICN stands for International Code of Nomenclature for Algae, Fungi and Plants.

22. Which among the following principles of ICN is incorrect?

1. Botanical nomenclature is dependent of both zoological and bacteriological nomenclature.
2. Application of names of taxonomic group is determined by means of nomenclatural types
3. Nomenclature of a taxonomic group is based on priority of publication.
4. Each taxonomic group with a particular circumscription, position and rank can bear only one correct name.

Explanation

Botanical nomenclature is independent of zoological and bacteriological nomenclature.

23. Scientific names of taxonomic groups are treated as what regardless of their derivation?

1. Greek
2. Latin
3. Hebrew
4. Lithuanian

Explanation

Scientific names of taxonomic groups are treated as Latin regardless of their derivation. The rules of nomenclature are retroactive unless expressly limited.

24. What is the time interval in which International Botanical Congress is held at different places?

1. Five years
2. Six years
3. Nine years
4. Ten years

Explanation

ICN has formulated a set of rules and recommendations dealing with the botanical name of plants. International Botanical Congress is held at different places every six years. Proposals for nomenclatural changes and changes in rules are discussed and implemented. Changes are published in their website.

25. Sexual reproductive stage of fungus is known as _____

1. Anamorph
2. Teleomorph
3. Morphotaxa
4. All the above

Explanation

Anamorph – Asexual reproductive stage of fungus. Teleomorph – Sexual reproductive stage of fungus.

26. Which among the following statement is correct regarding major changes made in 18th International Botanical Congress held in 2011at Melbourne?

1. The code now permits electronic publication of names of new taxa. Latin diagnosis or description is not mandatory and permits the use of English or Latin for the publication of a new name (Art-39).
2. “One fungus, many name” and “one fossil many name” are important changes, the concept of anamorph and teleomorph (for fungi) and morphotaxa (for fossils) have been added. (Previously, sexual and asexual stages of the fungus/ fossils were provided with same names).
3. As an experiment with “registration of names” new fungal descriptions require the use of an identifier from a “recognized repository”. There are two recognized repositories Index fungorum and Myco Bank.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

“One fungus, one name” and “one fossil one name” are important changes, the concept of anamorph and teleomorph (for fungi) and morphotaxa (for fossils) have been eliminated. (Previously, sexual and asexual stages of the fungus/ fossils were provided with different names).

27. Where 19th International Botanical Congress was held in 2017?

1. Brazil
2. Sweden
3. Mexico
4. China

Explanation

19th International Botanical Congress was held in Shenzhen in China in 2017.

28. Which among the following is also known as common name?

1. Vernacular names
2. Scientific names
3. Botanical names
4. All the above

Explanation

Vernacular names are known as common names. They are very often descriptive and poetic references to plants. Common name refers to more than one plant or many plants may have same common name. These names are regional or local and are not universal. Example: Albizia amara. L belongs to Mimosaceae is called as Usilai in South Tamil Nadu and Thurinji in North Tamil Nadu.

29. What is the scientific name of the paddy?

1. Triticum
2. Zea Mays
3. Oryza sativa
4. Hordeum Vulgare

Explanation

Each and every taxon as per the ICN (species, genus, family etc) can have only one correct scientific name. Scientific name of a species is always a binomial. These names are universally applied. Example: Oryza sativa L. is the scientific name of paddy.

30. Which among the following statement is correct?

1. Polynomial is a descriptive phrase of a plant. Example: Ranunculus calycibus retroflexis pedunculis falcatis caule erecto folius compositis. It means butter cup with reflexed sepals, curved flower stalks, erect stem and compound leaves. Polynomial system of naming a plant is replaced by a binomial system by Linnaeus.
2. Binomial nomenclature was first introduced by John Ray and it was implemented by Carolus Linnaeus. Scientific name of a species consists of two words and according to binomial nomenclature, the first one is called specific name and second one is genus epithet. Example: Mangifera indica. Mangifera is a specific name and indica is genus epithet.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Binomial nomenclature was first introduced by Gaspard Bauhin and it was implemented by Carolus Linnaeus. Scientific name of a species consists of two words and according to binomial nomenclature, the first one is called genus name and second one is specific epithet. Example: Mangifera indica. Mangifera is a genus name and indica is specific epithet. This system is in vogue even now.

31. Which refers to valid name of the taxa accompanied by the author’s name who published the name validly?

1. Author citation
2. Author solation
3. Author ablation
4. Author traction

Explanation

Author citation refers to valid name of the taxa accompanied by the author’s name who published the name validly. Example: Solanum nigrum L. There are two types of author citation. They are Single author (Example: Pithecellobium cinereum Benth) and Multiple author (Example: Delphinium viscosum Hook. f. et Thomson).

32. Which is the largest botanical garden in the world, established in 1760, but officially opened in the year 1841?

1. Royal Botanic Garden Kew
2. Paris Botanical Garden Lin
3. National Botanical Garden Lucknow
4. All the above

Explanation

Royal Botanic Garden Kew- England is a non- departmental public body in the United Kingdom. It is the largest botanical garden in the world, established in 1760, but officially opened in the year 1841. Plant collections include Aquatic garden, Arboretum with 14,000 trees, Bonsai collection, Cacti collection and Carnivorous plant collection.

33. Some techniques, procedures and stored information that are useful in identification and classification of organisms in taxonomic are called _____

1. Taxonomic box
2. Taxonomic aids
3. Taxonomic shuttle
4. Taxonomic clove

Explanation

Taxonomic aids are the tools for the taxonomic study. Some techniques, procedures and stored information that are useful in identification and classification of organisms are called taxonomical aids. They are required in almost all branches of biological studies for their proper identification and for finding their relationship with others.

34. Which among the following is not the taxonomic aids?

1. Flora
2. Revisions
3. Botanical garden
4. None of the above

Explanation

Some of the taxonomical aids are keys, flora, revisions, monograph, catalogues, herbarium, botanical gardens etc.

35. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Taxonomic keys are the tools for the identification of unfamiliar plants. These keys are based on characters which are stable and reliable. The most common type of key is a dichotomous key. It consists of a sequence of two contrasting statements.
2. A pair of contrasting statements is known as couplet. Each statement is known as lead. The plant is correctly identified with keys by narrowing down the characters found in plant.
3. Another type of key for identification is the Polyclave or Multi-entry key. It consists of a list of numerous character states. The user selects all states that match the specimen. Polyclave keys are implemented by a computer algorithm.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

36. In which among the following the famous “hanging gardens” of Babylon is located?

1. Peru
2. Mesopotamia
3. Rome
4. China

Explanation

In true sense all gardens are not botanical gardens. Botanical gardens are centres for collection of plants in their various stages of living. Gardens existed for growing ornamental plants for aesthetic value, religious and status reasons. The famous “hanging gardens” of Babylon in Mesopotamia is an example.

37. For the purpose of science and education the first garden was maintained by whom in his public lecture hall at Athens?

1. Aristotle
2. Hippocrates
3. Carneades
4. Theophrastus

Explanation

For the purpose of science and education the first garden was maintained by Theophrastus in his public lecture hall at Athens. Botanical garden contains special plant collections such as cacti, succulent, green house, shade house, tropical, alpine and exotic plants.

38. Where the First modern botanical garden was established by Luca Ghini (1490-1556) a professor of Botany?

1. Greek
2. Mexico
3. Italy
4. Sweden

Explanation

First modern botanical garden was established by Luca Ghini (1490-1556) a professor of Botany at Pisa, Italy in 1544. Worldwide there are about 1800 botanical gardens and arboreta.

39. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Role of Botanical Garden?

1. Gardens with aesthetic value which attract a large number of visitors. For example, the Great Banyan Tree (Ficus benghalensis) in the Indian Botanical Garden at Kolkata. Gardens have a wide range of species and supply taxonomic material for botanical research.
2. Garden is used for self-instruction or demonstration purposes. It can integrate information of diverse fields like Anatomy, Embryology, Phytochemistry, Cytology, Physiology and Ecology.
3. Act as a conservation centre for diversity, rare and endangered species. It offers annual list of available species and a free exchange of seeds. Botanical garden gives information about method of propagation, sale of plant material to the general public.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Gardens with aesthetic value which attract a large number of visitors. For example, the Great Banyan Tree (Ficus benghalensis) in the Indian Botanical Garden at Kolkata. Gardens have a wide range of species and supply taxonomic material for botanical research.

40. Which are store houses of preserved plant collections in which plants are preserved in the form of pressed and dried specimens mounted on a sheet of paper?

1. Monograph
2. Catalogue
3. Revisions
4. Herbaria

Explanation

Herbaria are store houses of preserved plant collections. Plants are preserved in the form of pressed and dried specimens mounted on a sheet of paper. Herbaria act as a centre for research and function as sources of material for systematic work. Herbarium Specimen is defined as a pressed and dried plant sample that is permanently glued or strapped to a sheet of paper along with a documentation label.

41. Which among the following step is not involved in Preparation of herbarium specimen?

1. Plant collection
2. Documentation of field site data
3. Preparation of plant specimen
4. Radiating herbarium specimen

Explanation

Preparation of herbarium specimen includes the following steps. 1. Plant collection: Field collection, Liquid preserved collection, Living collection, Collection for molecular studies. 2. Documentation of field site data 3. Preparation of plant specimen 4. Mounting herbarium specimen 5. Herbarium labels. 6. Protection of herbarium sheets against mold and insects.

42. Which among the following statement is correct regarding uses of herbarium?

1. Herbarium provides resource material for systematic research and studies. It is a place for orderly arrangement of voucher specimens. Voucher specimen serves as a reference for comparing doubtful newly collected fresh specimens.
2. Voucher specimens play a role in studies like floristic diversity, environmental assessment, ecological mechanisms and survey of unexplored areas. Herbarium provides opportunity for documenting biodiversity and studies related to the field of ecology and conservation biology.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

43. Where Kew Garden is situated?

1. Paris
2. London
3. Tokyo
4. New York

Explanation

Kew Garden is situated in South West London that houses the “largest and most diverse botanical and mycological collections in the world” founded in the year 1840. Living collection includes more than 30,000 different kinds of plants. While herbarium which is one of the largest in the world has over seven million preserved plant specimens.

44. Which is the world’s smallest water lily was saved from extinction when it was grown from seed at Kew in 2009?

1. Nymphaea thermarum
2. Nymphaea rudgeana
3. Nymphaea macrosperma
4. Nymphaea ondinae

Explanation

World’s smallest water lily Nymphaea thermarum was saved from extinction when it was grown from seed at Kew in 2009.

45. Which among the following Herbarium is incorrectly matched with its country?

1. Museum National d’Histoire Naturelle (1635) – France
2. New York Botanical Garden, Bronx (1891) – U.S.A
3. Komarov Botanical Institute (1823) – New Zealand
4. Royal Botanic Gardens, Kew (1841) – U.K

Explanation

Komarov Botanical Institute, St.Petersburg (Leningrad), Russia.

46. Which among the following statement is correct regarding classification of plants?

1. Classification is essential to biology because there is a vast diversity of organisms to sort out and compare. Unless they are organized into manageable categories it will be difficult for identification.
2. Biological classifications are the inventions of biologists based upon the best evidence available. The scientific basis for cataloguing and retrieving information about the tremendous diversity of flora is known as classification.
3. Classification paves way for the arrangement of organisms into groups on the basis of their similarities, dissimilarities and relationships. The purpose of classification is to provide a systematic arrangement expressing the relationship between the organisms.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

47. Which among the following is not the classification of Taxonomic entities?

1. Artificial classification
2. Natural classification
3. Phylogenetic classification
4. Inferae classification

Explanation

Taxonomic entities are classified in three ways. They are artificial classification, natural classification and phylogenetic classification.

48. Who was appointed as officer on special Duty for Botanical Survey of India on 14th Oct 1952?

1. Asima Chatterjee
2. Anna Mani
3. Janaki Ammal
4. Birbal Sahni

Explanation

On 13 February 1890, a survey was formally constituted and designated as the Botanical Survey of India. After independence, the need was felt for a more comprehensive documentation of the country’s plant resources to boost the economy. Padmashree Dr.E.K.Janaki Ammal was appointed as officer on special Duty on 14th Oct 1952. Then reorganization plan was finally approved by the Govt. of India on 29 March 1954.

49. Where headquarters of Botanical survey of India is located?

1. Delhi
2. Mumbai
3. Calcutta
4. Chennai

Explanation

Calcutta is the headquarters of BSI (Botanical Survey of India). Jammu Tavi Botanical Garden has been named after Dr. E. K. Janaki Ammal.

50. Match the following Herbarium with its established year

1. Madras Herbarium BSI campus, Coimbatore – 1. 1795
2. Central National Herbarium West Bengal – 2. 1844
3. Presidency College Herbarium, Chennai – 3. 1955
4. Tropical Botanical Garden and Research Institute, Kerala – 4. 1979
5. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
6. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
7. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
8. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

Explanation

1. Madras Herbarium BSI campus, Coimbatore – 1955, 2. Central National Herbarium West Bengal – 1795, 3. Presidency College Herbarium, Chennai – 1844 and 4. Jawaharlal Nehru Tropical Botanical Garden and Research Institute Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala – 1979.

51. Taxonomists have assigned a method of classifying organisms which are called ____

1. Orders
2. Divisions
3. Ranks
4. Spies

Explanation

Taxonomists have assigned a method of classifying organisms which are called ranks. These taxonomical ranks are hierarchical. The scheme of classification has to be flexible, allowing newly discovered living organisms to be added where they fit best.

52. Who was a great Swedish Botanist and said to be the “Father of Taxonomy.”?

1. Charles Darwin
2. Carolus Linnaeus
3. Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek
4. Ernest Haeckel

Explanation

Carolus Linnaeus (1707 -1778) was a great Swedish Botanist and said to be the “Father of Taxonomy.” He outlined an artificial system of classification in “Species Plantarum” in 1753, wherein he listed and described 7,300 species and arranged in 24 classes mostly on the basis of number, union (adhesion and cohesion), length, and distribution of stamens.

53. Carl Linnaeus system of classification is also known as _____

1. Root system of classification
2. Sexual system of classification
3. Greenery system of classification
4. Maiden system of classification

Explanation

Carl Linnaeus system of classification is also known as sexual system of classification. The classes were further subdivided on the basis of carpel characteristics into orders.

54. Which among the following statement is correct regarding carl Linnaeus system of classification

1. This system of classification though artificial, was continued for more than 100 years after the death of Linnaeus, due to its simplicity and easy way of identification of plants. However the system could not hold good due to the following reasons.
2. Totally unrelated plants were kept in a single group, whereas closely related plants were placed in widely separated groups. Example: Zingiberaceae of dicotyledons and Anacardiaceae of tricotyledonous were placed under the class Monandria since these possess two stamens.
3. Prunus was classified along with Cactus because of the same number of stamens. No attempts were made to classify plants based on either natural or phylogenetic relationships which exist among plant groups
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Totally unrelated plants were kept in a single group, whereas closely related plants were placed in widely separated groups. Example: Zingiberaceae of monocotyledons and Anacardiaceae of dicotyledonous were placed under the class Monandria since these possess single stamens.

55. Who presented the first scheme of Natural system classification based on overall similarities?

1. Antoine Laurent de Jessieu
2. George Bentham
3. Joseph Dalton Hooker
4. Adolph Engler

Explanation

An approach to a natural system of classification sprouted in France. The first scheme of classification based on overall similarities was presented by Antoine Laurent de Jessieu in 1789.

56. A widely followed natural system of classification proposed by two English botanist George Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker was published in a three volume work as _____

1. Specie plantarum
2. Genera plantarum
3. Capsule plantarum
4. Module plantarum

Explanation

A widely followed natural system of classification considered the best was proposed by two English botanist George Bentham (1800 – 1884) and Joseph Dalton Hooker (1817–1911). The classification was published in a three volume work as “Genera Plantarum” (1862–1883) describing 202 families and 7569 genera and 97,205 species.

57. Which among the following is not the classification of seeded plant according to Natural system?

1. Dicotyledonae
2. Gymnospermae
3. Entomofaunae
4. Monocotyledonae.

Explanation

In Natural system the seeded plants were classified into 3 major classes such as Dicotyledonae, Gymnospermae and Monocotyledonae.

58. Which among the following statement is incorrect?

1. Dicotyledonae Plants contain two cotyledons in their seed, leaves with reticulate venation, tap root system and tetramerous or pentamerous flowers come under this class.
2. Gymnospermae Plants that contain no seeds come under this class. Gymnospermae includes two families – Gnetaceae and Cycadaceae.
3. Monocotyledonae Plants contain only one cotyledon in their seed, leaves with parallel venation, fibrous root system and trimerous flowers come under this class.
4. None of the above

Explanation

Gymnospermae Plants that contain naked seeds come under this class. Gymnospermae includes three families – Gnetaceae, Coniferae and Cycadaceae.

59. Plants with free petals and dichlamydeous flowers come under ____

1. Polypetalae
2. Gamopetalae
3. Heteromerae
4. Monochlamydeae

Explanation

Polypetalae: Plants with free petals and dichlamydeous flowers come under polypetalae.

60. Which among the following is not the division of Polypetalae?

1. Thalamiflorae
2. Disciflorae
3. Calyciflorae
4. Inferae

Explanation

Polypetalae is further divided into three series – Thalamiflorae, Disciflorae and Calyciflorae.

61. Which among the following statement is incorrect?

1. Thalamiflorae: Plants having flowers with dome or conical shaped thalamus and superior ovary are included in this series. It includes 6 orders and 34 families.
2. Disciflorae: Flowers having prominent disc shaped thalamus with inferior ovary come under this series. It includes 9 orders and 25 families.
3. Calyciflorae: It includes plants having flowers with cup shaped thalamus and with inferior or sometimes with half inferior ovary. Calyciflorae includes 5 orders and 27 families.
4. None of the above

Explanation

Disciflorae: Flowers having prominent disc shaped thalamus with superior ovary come under this series. It includes 4 orders and 23 families.

62. Plants with united petals, which are either partially or completely fused to one another and dichlamydeous are placed under _____

1. Polypetalae
2. Gamopetalae
3. Monochlamydeae
4. None of the above

Explanation

Plants with united petals, which are either partially or completely fused to one another and dichlamydeous are placed under Gamopetalae.

63. Which among the following is not the division of Gamopetalae?

1. Aspiratae
2. Inferae
3. Heteromerae
4. Bicarpellatae

Explanation

Gamopetalae is further divided into three series – Inferae, Heteromerae and Bicarpellatae.

64. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. Inferae: The flowers are epigynous and with inferior ovary. Inferae includes 3 orders and 9 families.
2. Heteromerae: The flowers are hypogynous, inferior ovary and with two carpels. Heteromerae includes 3 orders and 12 families.
3. Bicarpellatae: The flowers are hypogynous, superior ovary and with two carpels. Bicarpellatae includes 4 orders and 24 families
4. None of the above

Explanation

Heteromerae: The flowers are hypogynous, superior ovary and with more than two carpels. Heteromerae includes 3 orders and 12 families.

65. In Monochlamydeae sepals and petals are not distinguished and they are called ___

1. Dozenth
2. Hydranth
3. Colocynth
4. Perianth

Explanation

Plants with incomplete flowers either apetalous or with undifferentiated calyx and corolla are placed under Monochlamydeae. The sepals and petals are not distinguished and they are called perianth. Sometimes both the whorls are absent. Monochlamydeae includes 8 series and 36 families.

66. The Monocotyledonae has how many series and families?

1. 4 series and 27 families
2. 7 series and 34 families
3. 9 series and 39 families
4. 11 series and 40 families

Explanation

The Monocotyledonae has 7 series and 34 families.

67. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Bentham and Hooker system of classification

1. The Bentham and Hooker system of classification is still supposed to be the best system of classification. It has been widely practiced in colonial countries and herbaria of those countries were organised based on this system and is still used as a key for the identification of plants in some herbaria of the world due to the following reasons.
2. Description of plants is quite accurate and reliable, because it is mainly based on personal studies from actual specimens and not mere comparisons of known facts. As it is easy to follow, it is used as a key for the identification of plants in several herbaria of the world.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

68. The publication of the Origin of Species (1859) by whom has given stimulus for the emergence of phylogenetic system of classification?

1. Alfred Wallace
2. Charles Darwin
3. Gregor Mendel
4. Charles Dickens

Explanation

The publication of the Origin of Species (1859) by Charles Darwin has given stimulus for the emergence of phylogenetic system of classification.

69. Two German botanists Adolph Engler (1844 -1930) and Karl A Prantl (1849 – 1893) published their classification in a monumental work known as _____

1. “Die Naturelichen Pflanzen Familien”
2. “Die Naturelichen Pflanzen Specien”
3. “Die Naturelichen Sclanzen Familien”
4. “Die Naturelichen Sclanzen Specien”

Explanation

One of the earliest phylogenetic system of classification of the entire plant Kingdom was jointly proposed by two German botanists Adolph Engler ( 1844 -1930) and Karl A Prantl (1849 – 1893). They published their classification in a monumental work “Die Naturelichen Pflanzen Familien” in 23 volumes (1887-1915).

70. In Phylogenetic system of classification the plant kingdom was divided into how many divisions?

1. Nine
2. Eleven
3. Thirteen
4. Fifteen

Explanation

In Phylogenetic system of classification, the plant kingdom was divided into 13 divisions. The first 11 divisions are Thallophytes, twelfth division is Embryophyta Asiphonogama (plants with embryos but no pollen tubes; Bryophytes and Pteridophytes) and the thirteenth division is Embryophyta Siphonogama (plants with embryos and pollen tubes) which includes seed plants.

71. Who is an eminent American taxonomist proposed phylogenetic classification of flowering plants based on a wide range of taxonomic characters including anatomical and phytochemical characters of phylogenetic importance?

1. Arthur Cronquist
2. Adolph Engler
3. Thomas Malthus
4. Louis Paster

Explanation

Arthur Cronquist (1919 – 1992) an eminent American taxonomist proposed phylogenetic classification of flowering plants based on a wide range of taxonomic characters including anatomical and phytochemical characters of phylogenetic importance.

72. Arthur Cronquist has presented his classification in 1968 in his book titled _____

1. The evolution and classification of seedling plants
2. The evolution and classification of flowering plants
3. The evolution and classification of hydro plants
4. The evolution and classification of macro plants

Explanation

Arthur Cronquist has presented his classification in 1968 in his book titled “The evolution and classification of flowering plants.” His classification is broadly based on the Principles of phylogeny that finds acceptance with major contemporary authors.

73. Which among the following not classification of angiosperms into classes by Cronquist?

1. Magnoliopsida
2. Liliopsid
3. Aglaspida
4. None of the above

Explanation

Cronquist classified the angiosperms into two main classes Magnoliopsida (=dicotyledons) and Liliopsida (= monocotyledons). There are 6 subclasses, 64 orders, 320 families and about 165,000 species in Magnoliopsida, whereas in Liliopsida there are 5 sub classes, 19 orders, 66 families and about 50,000 species.

74. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Angiosperm phylogeny group (APG) classification?

1. Angiosperm phylogeny group (APG) classification is the most recent classification of flowering plants based on phylogenetic data was set in the last decade of twentieth century. Four versions of Angiosperm Phylogenetic Group classification (APG I, APG II, APG III & APG IV) have been published in 1998, 2003, 2009 and 2016 respectively.
2. Each version supplants the previous version. Recognition of monophyletic group based on the information received from various disciplines such as gross morphology, anatomy, embryology, palynology, karyology, phytochemistry and more strongly on molecular data with respect to DNA sequences of two chloroplast genes (atpB and rbcL) and one nuclear gene (nuclear ribosomal 18s DNA).
3. The most recent updated version, APG IV (2016) recognised 68 orders and 281 families. Of these, 164 families 259 are represented in India. The outline of APG IV classification is given below. Angiosperms are classified into two clades monocots and eudicots. Monocots are classified into 8 orders and 26 families (ANAclade + magnoliids + Chloranthales).
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The most recent updated version, APG IV (2016) recognised 64 orders and 416 families. Of these, 416 families 259 are represented in India. The outline of APG IV classification is given below. Angiosperms are classified into three clades early angiosperms, monocots and eudicots. Early angiosperms are classified into 8 orders and 26 families (ANA clade + magnoliids + Chloranthales). APG system is yet to percolate into the Indian botanical curriculum.

75. APG III system is accepted in which among the following country?

1. USA
2. UK
3. Canada
4. All the above

Explanation

A significant number of major herbaria, including Kew are changing the order of their collections in accordance with APG. A recent photographic survey of the plants of USA and Canada is organized according to the APG III system. In UK, the latest edition of the standard flora of the British Isles written by Stace is based on the APG III system. The influential world checklist of selected plant families (also from kew) is being updated to the APG III system.

76. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Taxonomists now accept that; the morphological characters alone should not be considered in systematic classification of plants. The complete knowledge of taxonomy is possible with the principles of various disciplines like Cytology, Genetics, Anatomy, Physiology, Geographical Distribution, Embryology, Ecology, Palynology, Phenology, Bio-Chemistry, Numerical Taxonomy and Transplant Experiments.
2. These have been found to be useful in solving some of the taxonomical problems by providing additional characters. It has changed the face of classification from alpha (classical) to omega (modern kind). Thus, the new systematic has evolved into a better taxonomy.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

77. Which is the scientific approach of classification of plants on the basis of their biochemical constituents?

1. Karyotaxonomy
2. Chemotaxonomy
3. Biosystematics
4. Molecular taxonomy

Explanation

Proteins, amino acids, nucleic acids, peptides etc. are the most studied chemicals in chemotaxonomy. Chemotaxonomy is the scientific approach of classification of plants on the basis of their biochemical constituents.

78. Which among the following are more closely controlled by genes and less subjected to natural selection, it has been used at all hierarchical levels of classification starting from the rank of ‘variety’ up to the rank of division in plants?

1. Protein
2. Amino acid
3. Peptides
4. All the above

Explanation

As proteins are more closely controlled by genes and less subjected to natural selection, it has been used at all hierarchical levels of classification starting from the rank of ‘variety’ up to the rank of division in plants. Aims of chemotaxonomy 1. To develop taxonomic characters which may improve existing system of plant classification. 2. To improve present day knowledge of phylogeny of plants

79. In Chemotaxonomy, chemical characters can be divided into how many categories?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Explanation

In Chemotaxonomy chemical characters can be divided into three main categories. 1. Easily visible characters like starch grains, silica. 2. Characters detected by chemical tests like phenolics, oil, fats, waxes. 3. Proteins.

80. The term biosystematics was introduced by whom in 1943?

1. Camp and Gilly
2. David and Mayhem
3. Lawrence and John F
4. None of the above

Explanation

Biosystematics is an “Experimental, ecological and cytotaxonomy” through which life forms are studied and their relationships are defined. The term biosystematics was introduced by Camp and Gilly in 1943. Many authors feel Biosystematics is closer to Cytogenetics and Ecology and much importance given not to classification but to evolution.

81. Which among the following aims of biosystematics is incorrect

1. To delimit the naturally occurring biotic community of plant species.
2. To establish the evolution of a group of taxa by understanding the evolutionary and phylogenetic trends.
3. To involve any type of data gathering based on traditional concepts and only on morphology and anatomy.
4. To recognize the various groups as separate biosystematic categories such as ecotypes, ecospecies, cenospecies and comparium.

Explanation

To involve any type of data gathering based on modern concepts and not only on morphology and anatomy.

82. Which among the following are the carriers of genetic information?

1. Cell wall
2. Chromosomes
3. Mitochondria
4. Plasma

Explanation

Chromosomes are the carriers of genetic information. Increased knowledge about the chromosomes have been used for extensive biosystematic studies and resolving many taxonomic problems.

83. Utilization of the characters and phenomena of cytology for the explanation of taxonomic problem is known ____

1. Serotaxonomy
2. Molecular taxonomy
3. Karyotaxonomy
4. All the above

Explanation

Utilization of the characters and phenomena of cytology for the explanation of taxonomic problem is known as cytotaxonomy or karyotaxonomy. The characters of chromosome such as number, size, morphology and behaviour during meiosis have proved to be of taxonomic value.

84. The classification of very similar plants by means of differences in the proteins they contain, to solve taxonomic problems is called ____

1. Serotaxonomy
2. Molecular taxonomy
3. Karyotaxonomy
4. All the above

Explanation

The classification of very similar plants by means of differences in the proteins they contain, to solve taxonomic problems is called serotaxonomy.

85. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Serotaxonomy (Immunotaxonomy)?

1. Systematic serology or serotaxonomy had its origin towards the end of eighteenth century with the discovery of serological reactions and development of the discipline of immunology. Darwin (1826) defined it as “the study of the origins and properties of angiospore.”.
2. It determines the degree of similarity between species, genera, families etc. by comparing the reactions of antigens from various plant taxa with antibodies raised against the antigen of a given taxon. Example: 1. The assignment of Phaseolus aureus and P. mungo to the genus Vigna is strongly supported by serological evidence by Chrispeels and Gartner.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Systematic serology or serotaxonomy had its origin towards the end of twentieth century with the discovery of serological reactions and development of the discipline of immunology. Smith (1976) defined it as “the study of the origins and properties of antisera”.

86. Which helps in establishing the relationship of different plant groups at DNA level?

1. Molecular Taxonomy
2. Systematic Taxonomy
3. Coding Taxonomy
4. Microbial Taxonomy

Explanation

Molecular taxonomy helps in establishing the relationship of different plant groups at DNA level. It unlocks the treasure chest of information on evolutionary history of organisms.

87. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Molecular taxonomy

1. Molecular Taxonomy is the branch of phylogeny that analyses hereditary molecular differences, mainly in DNA sequences, to gain information and to establish genetic relationship between the members of different taxonomic categories.
2. The advent of DNA cloning and sequencing methods have contributed immensely to the development of molecular taxonomy and population genetics over the years. These modern methods have revolutionised the field of molecular taxonomy and population genetics with improved analytical power and precision.
3. The results of a molecular phylogenetic analysis are expressed in the form of a tree called phylogenetic tree. Different molecular markers like allozymes, mitochondrial DNA, microsatellites, RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism), RAPD, AFLPs (Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism), single nucleotide polymorphism- (SNP), microchips or arrays are used in analysis.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The results of a molecular phylogenetic analysis are expressed in the form of a tree called phylogenetic tree. Different molecular markers like allozymes, mitochondrial DNA, microsatellites, RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism), RAPD (Random amplified polymorphic DNA), AFLPs (Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism), single nucleotide polymorphism- (SNP), microchips or arrays are used in analysis.

88. The genetic sequence used to identify a plant is known as ____

1. DNA pass
2. DNA tag
3. DNA cross
4. DNA base

Explanation

DNA barcoding is a taxonomic method that uses a very short genetic sequence from a standard part of a genome. The genetic sequence used to identify a plant is known as “DNA tags” or “DNA barcodes”.

89. Who in 2003 proposed ‘DNA barcoding’ and he is considered as ‘Father of barcoding’?

1. Paul Hebert
2. John Ray
3. Gregor Mendel
4. Charles Lyell

Explanation

Paul Hebert in 2003 proposed ‘DNA barcoding’ and he is considered as ‘Father of barcoding’. DNA barcoding techniques require a large database of sequences for comparison and prior knowledge of the barcoding region. However, DNA barcoding is a helpful tool to determine the authenticity of botanical material in whole, cut or powdered form.

90. The gene region that is being used as an effective barcode in plants is present in which two genes of the chloroplast?

1. patR and ctbR
2. matK and rbcL
3. rclK and tcvL
4. botL and rbuL

Explanation

The gene region that is being used as an effective barcode in plants is present in two genes of the chloroplast, matK and rbcL, and have been approved as the barcode regions for plants. Sequence of unknown species can be matched from submitted sequence in GenBank using Blast (web-programme for searching the closely related sequence).

91. Which is a molecular method of genetic analysis that allows identification of taxa based on unique patterns of restriction sites in specific regions of DNA?

1. Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism
2. Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA
3. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
4. Single Nucleotide Polymorphism

Explanation

RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism) is a molecular method of genetic analysis that allows identification of taxa based on unique patterns of restriction sites in specific regions of DNA. It refers to differences between taxa in restriction sites and therefore the lengths of fragments of DNA following cleavage with restriction enzymes.

92. Which is largely used for population genetics studies, but has been used in studies of closely related species and even in some cases, for higher level cladistic analysis?

1. Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism
2. Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA
3. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
4. Single Nucleotide Polymorphism

Explanation

Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism (AFLP) is similar to that of identifying RFLPs in that a restriction enzyme is used to cut DNA into numerous smaller pieces, each of which terminates in a characteristic nucleotide sequence due to the action of restriction enzymes. AFLP is largely used for population genetics studies, but has been used in studies of closely related species and even in some cases, for higher level cladistic analysis.

93. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA (RAPD)?

1. RAPD is a method to removing genetic markers using a randomly synthesized primer that will anneal (recombine (DNA) in the double stranded form) to complementary regions located in centroid locations of isolated DNA. If another complementary site is present on the opposing DNA strand at a distance that is great (within the limits of PCR) then the reaction will amplify this region of DNA.
2. RAPDs like microsatellites may often be used for genetic studies within species but may also be successfully employed in phylogenetic studies to address relationships within a species or between closely related species. However, RAPD analysis has the major disadvantage that results are difficult to replicate and in that the homology of similar bands in different taxa may be nuclear.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA (RAPD) is a method to identify genetic markers using a randomly synthesized primer that will anneal (recombine (DNA) in the double stranded form) to complementary regions located in various locations of isolated DNA. If another complementary site is present on the opposing DNA strand at a distance that is not too great (within the limits of PCR) then the reaction will amplify this region of DNA.

94. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Significance of Molecular Taxonomy

1. It helps to identify a very small number of species of plants and animals by the use of conserved morphology sequences.
2. Using DNA data evolutionary patterns of biodiversity are now investigated.
3. DNA taxonomy plays a vital role in phytogeography, which ultimately helps in genome mapping and biodiversity conservation.
4. DNA- based molecular markers used for designing DNA based molecular probes, have also been developed under the branch of molecular systematics

Explanation

It helps to identify a very large number of species of plants and animals by the use of conserved molecular sequences.

95. Which among the following point is incorrect regarding Classical Taxonomy?

1. It is called old systematics or Alpha (ἀ) taxonomy or Taxonomy
2. It is pre Darwinean and Species is considered as basic unit and is static
3. Classification is mainly based on morphological characters
4. This system is based on the observation of large number of samples/individuals

Explanation

This system is based on the observation of a few samples/ individuals.

96. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Modern Taxonomy?

1. It is called prosystematics or Digi systematics or Beta (β) taxonomy
2. It is post Darwinean and species is considered as dynamic entity and ever changing
3. Classification is based on morphological, reproductive characters and phylogenetic (evolutionary) relationship of the organism
4. This system is based on the observation of large number of samples/individuals

Explanation

It is called Neosystematics or Biosystematics or Omega (Ω) taxonomy.

97. The method of classifying organisms into monophyletic group of a common ancestor based on shared apomorphic characters is called ____

1. Hidrotics
2. Enclitics
3. Cladistics
4. Toreutics

Explanation

The method of classifying organisms into monophyletic group of a common ancestor based on shared apomorphic characters is called cladistics (from Greek, klados – branch).

98. What is the outcome of a cladistic analysis, which is a tree-shaped diagram that represent the best hypothesis of phylogenetic relationships?

1. Cladogram
2. Cladding
3. Cladophyll
4. All the above

Explanation

The outcome of a cladistic analysis is a cladogram, a tree-shaped diagram that represent the best hypothesis of phylogenetic relationships. Earlier generated cladograms were largely on the basis of morphological characters, but now genetic sequencing data and computational software’s are commonly used in phylogenetic analysis.

99. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Cladistics is one of the primary methods of constructing phylogenies, or evolutionary histories. Cladistics uses shared, derived characters to group organisms into clades. These clades have at least one shared, derived character found in their most recent common ancestor that is not found in other groups hence they are considered more closely related to each other.
2. These shared characters can be morphological such as, leaf, flower, fruit, seed and so on; behavioural, like opening of flowers nocturnal/diurnal; molecular like, DNA or protein sequence and more.
3. Cladistics accept both monophyletic groups and Paraphyletic. Polyphyletic taxa are occasionally considered when such taxa conveniently treated as one group for practical purposes. Example: dicots, sterculiaceae. Polyphyletic groups are accepted by cladistics.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Cladistics accept only monophyletic groups. Paraphyletic and polyphyletic taxa are occasionally considered when such taxa conveniently treated as one group for practical purposes. Example: dicots, sterculiaceae. Polyphyletic groups are rejected by cladistics.

100. Which among the following is incorrect?

1. Monophyletic group – Taxa comprising all the descendants of a common ancestor.
2. Polyphyletic group – Taxon that includes an ancestor but not all of the descendants of that ancestor.
3. Paraphyletic group – Taxa that includes members from two different lineages.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. None of the above

Explanation

Paraphyletic group; Taxon that includes an ancestor but not all of the descendants of that ancestor. Polyphyletic group; Taxa that includes members from two different lineages.

101. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding cladistics?

1. Cladistics is now the most commonly used and accepted method for creating phylogenetic system of classifications
2. Cladistics produces a hypothesis about the relationship of organisms to predict the phylogeny
3. Cladistics helps to elucidate mechanism of evolution.
4. None of the above

102. Which among the following characters regarding Family: Fabaceae (Pea family) is correct?

1. Fabaceae includes about 741 genera and more than 20,200 species. The members are cosmopolitan in distribution but abundant in tropical and subtropical regions. All types of habits are represented in this family. Mostly herbs, prostrate, erect, shrubs, small trees, climber, large tree, woody climber, hydrophyte (Aeschynomene aspera) commonly called pith plant.
2. Roots: Fibre root system, roots are nodulated, have tubercles containing nitrogen – fixing bacteria (Rhizobium leguminosarum). Stem: Aerial, herbaceous, soft, twining or climbing (Clitoria). Leaf: Alternate, simple, rarely pinnately compound (Solanum tuberosum and Lycopersicon esculentum, exstipulate, opposite or sub-opposite in upper part, unicostate reticulate venation
3. Inflorescence: Raceme (Crotalaria verrucosa), panicle (Dalbergia latifolia) axillary solitary (Clitoria ternatea) Flowers: Bracteate, bracteolate, pedicellete, complete, bisexual, pentamerous, heterochlamydeous, zygomorphic hypogynous or sometimes perigynous. Calyx: Sepals 5, green, synsepalous, more or less united in a tube and persistant, valvate or imbricate, odd sepal is anterior in position.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Root: Tap root system, roots are nodulated, have tubercles containing nitrogen – fixing bacteria (Rhizobium leguminosarum) Stem: Aerial, herbaceous, woody (Dalbergia) twining or climbing (Clitoria). Leaf: Leaf simple or unifoliate (Desmodium gangeticum) bifoliate (Zornia diphylla,), Trifoliate (Lablab purpureus), alternate, stipulate, leaf base, pulvinate, reticulate venation terminal leaflet modifies into a tendril in Pisum sativum.

103. In Fabaceae, corolla has how many petals?

1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Six

Explanation

Corolla: Petals 5, apopetalous, unequal and papilionaceous, vexillary or descendingly imbricate aestivation, all petals have claw at the base. Fabaceae belongs to Dicot families.

104. The outermost petal in Fabaceae is large called as ____

1. Wing petals
2. Alae
3. Vexillary
4. Carina

Explanation

The outer most petal is large called standard petal or vexillum, Lateral 2 petals are lanceolate and curved. They are called wing petals or alae. Anterior two petals are partly fused and are called keel petals or carina which encloses the stamens and pistil.

105. In Fabaceae, how many stamens are there in Androecium?

1. Six
2. Eight
3. Ten
4. Twelve

Explanation

Androecium: Stamens 10, diadelphous, usually 9+1 (Clitoria ternatea). The odd stamen is posterior in position. In Aeschynomene aspera, the stamens are fused to form two bundles each containing five stamens (5) + (5). Stamens are monadelphous and dimorphic ie., 5 stamens have longer filaments and other 5 stamens have shorter filaments thus the stamens are found at two levels and the shape of anthers also varies in (Crotalaria verrucosa). Anthers are dithecous, basifixed and dehiscing longitudinally.

106. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Gynoecium in Fabaceae?

1. Dicarpellary
2. Unilocular
3. Ovary superior
4. Stigma flattened or feathery

Explanation

Gynoecium: Monocarpellary, unilocular, ovary superior, with two alternating rows of ovules on marginal placentation. Style simple and bent, stigma flattened or feathery.

107. The characteristic fruit of Fabaceae is a ____

1. Berry
2. Legume
3. Capsule
4. All the above

Explanation

The characteristic fruit of Fabaceae is a legume (Pisum sativum), sometimes indehiscent and rarely a lomentum (Desmodium).

108. The fruit develops and matures under the soil is called ___

1. Petiolate
2. Geocarpic
3. Venation
4. Stipellate

Explanation

In Arachis hypogea the fruit is geocarpic (fruits develops and matures under the soil). After fertilization the stipe of the ovary becomes meristematic and grows down into the soil. This ovary gets buried into the soil and develops into fruit. Seed of Fabaceae: Endospermic or non-endospermic (Pisum sativum), mostly reniform.

109. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Clitoria ternatea (Sangu pushpam)

1. Habit: hydrophyte
2. Root: Branched tap root system having nodules.
3. Stem: Aerial, weak stem and a twiner
4. Inflorescence: Solitary and axillary

Explanation

Habit: Twining climber.

110. Which among the following is not leaf characteristic of Clitoria ternatea?

1. Imparipinnately compound
2. Deeply lobed
3. Alternate
4. Stipellate

Explanation

Leaf characteristic of Clitoria ternatea: Imparipinnately compound, alternate, stipulate showing reticulate venation. Leaflets are stipellate. Petiolate and stipels are pulvinated

111. Which among the following is not the flower characteristic of Clitoria ternatea?

1. Bracteate
2. Pedicellate
3. Bisexual
4. None of the above

Explanation

Flower: Bracteate, bracteolate, bracteoles usually large, pedicellate, heterochlamydeous, complete, bisexual, pentamerous, zygomorphic and hypogynous.

112. What is the colour of petals in Clitoria ternatea?

1. White or green
2. White or blue
3. White or red
4. White or brown

Explanation

Petals 5, white or blue apopetalous, irregular papilionaceous corolla showing descendingly imbricate aestivation. Sepals 5, synsepalous, green showing valvate aestivation. Odd sepal is anterior in position.

113. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Clitoria ternatea?

1. Androecium: Stamens 10, diadelphous (9) + 1, nine stamens fused to form a bundle and the tenth stamen is free. Anthers are dithecous, basifixed, introse and dechiscing by longitudinal slits.
2. Gynoecium: Monocarpellary, unilocular, with many ovules on mariginal placentation, ovary superior, style simple and incurved with feathery stigma. Fruits are legume and seeds are Non – endospermous, reniform.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

114. Which among the following plants of Fabaceae is oil plants?

1. Lablab purpureus
2. Sesbania grandiflora
3. Arachis hypogea
4. Cyamopsis tetragonoloba

Explanation

Arachis hypogea (ground nut) is a oil plant. Oil extracted from the seeds is edible and used for cooking.

115. Match the following plant with its Binomial names

1. Cajanus cajan – 1. French bean
2. Phaseolus vulgaris – 2. Horse gram
3. Vigna mungo – 3. Chick pea
4. Cicer arietinum – 4. Pigeon Pea
5. Macrotyloma uniflorum – 5. black gram
6. 2 – 1 – 3 – 5 – 4
7. 3 – 5 – 1 – 2 – 4
8. 4 – 1 – 5 – 3 – 2
9. 5 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Explanation

Cajanus cajan (Pigeon Pea) Phaseolus vulgaris (French bean) Cicer arietinum (Chick pea / Channa) Vigna mungo (black gram) Vigna radiata (green gram) Vigna unguiculata (cow pea) Glycine max (soya bean) Macrotyloma uniflorum (Horse gram).

116. Which among the following plant of Fabaceae is not the Food plant?

1. Dalbergia latifolia
2. Lablab purpureus
3. Sesbania grandiflora
4. Cyamopsis tetragonoloba

Explanation

Lablab purpureus (field bean), Sesbania grandiflora (agathi), Cyamopsis tetragonoloba (cluster bean) are Food plants.

117. Which among the following plant of Fabaceae is not timber plant?

1. Dalbergia latifolia
2. Pterocarpus santalinus
3. Pongamia pinnata
4. P.marsupium

Explanation

Dalbergia latifolia (rose wood), Pterocarpus santalinus (red sandalwood), P.marsupium are timber pant used for making furniture, cabinet articles and as building material. Pongamia pinnata is oil plant, Pongam oil has medicinal value and is used in the preparation of soap.

118. Which among the following plant of Fabaceae is Fibre plant?

1. Indigofera tinctoria (Avuri)
2. Clitoria ternatea
3. Aeschynomene aspera
4. Crotalaria juncea

Explanation

Crotalaria juncea (sunhemp) and Sesbania sesban (aegyptiaca) are Fibre plant Used for making ropes

119. Which among the following plant of Fabaceae is not Dye pant?

1. Indigofera tinctoria (Avuri)
2. Clitoria ternatea
3. Aeschynomene aspera
4. Butea monosperma

Explanation

Aeschynomene aspera is Pith Plant Used for packing, handicraft and fishing floats.

120. In which among the following plant, Blue dye is obtained?

1. Indigofera tinctoria
2. Clitoria ternatea
3. Butea monosperma
4. All the above

Explanation

Indigofera tinctoria (Avuri) – Indigo dye obtained from leaves is used to colour printing and in paints, Clitoria ternatea – Blue dye is obtained and Butea monosperma – Natural dye.

121. The aerial parts of which plant contains Metformin (dimethyl biguanide) the most widely prescribed agent in the treatment of diabetes all over the world?

1. Butea frondose
2. Lupinus hirsutus
3. Adenanthera pavonina
4. Galega officinalis

Explanation

The aerial parts of Galega officinalis (Fabaceae) contains Metformin (dimethyl biguanide). It is now reputed to be the most widely prescribed agent in the treatment of diabetes all over the world.

122. The attractive seeds of which have been used as units of weight for the measures of gold throughout India?

1. Clitoria ternatea
2. Lathyrus odoratus
3. Adenanthera pavonine
4. Abrus precatorius

Explanation

The attractive seeds of Adenanthera pavonina (Family: Caesalpiniaceae) have been used as units of weight for the measures of gold throughout India. The attractive seeds of Adenanthera pavonina (Family: Caesalpiniaceae) have been used as units of weight for the measures of gold throughout India.

123. Family Solanaceae are abundant in which among the following continent?

1. South America
2. Africa
3. Europe
4. Asia

Explanation

Family Solanaceae includes about 88 genera and about 2650 species, of these Solanum is the largest genus of the family with about 1500 species. Plants are worldwide in distribution but more abundant in South America.

124. Which among the following statement regarding Family Solanaceae is correct

1. Habit: Mostly annual herbs, shrubs, small trees (Solanum violaceum) lianas with prickles (Solanum trilobatum). Root: Branched tap root system. Stem: Herbaceous or woody; erect or twining, or creeping; sometimes modified into tubers (Solanum tuberosum) it is covered with Spines (Solanum tuberosum)
2. Leaves: Alternate, simple, rarely pinnately compound (Solanum tuberosum) and Lycopersicon esculentum, exstipulate, opposite or sub-opposite in lower part, Dicostate reticulate venation. Reddish verbs present in Solanum tuberosum.
3. Calyx: Sepals 5, Synsepalous, valvate persistent (Solanum americanum), often accrescent. (Physalis) and Corolla: Petals 5, sympetalous, rotate, tubular (Solanum) or bell- shaped (Atropa) or infundibuliform (Petunia) usually alternate with sepals; rarely bilipped and zygomorphic (Schizanthus) usually valvate, sometimes convolute (Datura).
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Leaves: Alternate, simple, rarely pinnately compound (Solanum tuberosum and Lycopersicon esculentum, exstipulate, opposite or sub-opposite in upper part, unicostate reticulate venation. Yellowish verbs present in Solanum tuberosum.

125. In Family Solanaceae Generally axillary or terminal cymose (Solanum) or solitary flowers (Datura stramonium). Extra axillary scorpiod cyme called _____

1. Soladium
2. Rhiphidium
3. Pholadium
4. None of the above

Explanation

In Family Solanaceae Inflorescence: Generally axillary or terminal cymose (Solanum) or solitary flowers (Datura stramonium). Extra axillary scorpiod cyme called rhiphidium (Solanum americanum) solitary and axillary (Datura and Nicotiana) umbellate cyme (Withania somnifera).

126. In Family Solanaceae, how many stamens are present in Androecium?

1. Five
2. Seven
3. Ten
4. Twelve

Explanation

Androecium: Stamens 5, epipetalous, filaments usually unequal in length, stamens only 2 in Schizanthus (others 3 are reduced to staminode), Anthers dithecous, dehisce longitudinally or poricidal.

127. Which among the following is incorrect regarding gynoecium of Family Solanaceae?

1. Bicarpellary
2. Syncarpous obliquely placed
3. Ovary superior
4. Single ovule in each locule on axile placentation

Explanation

Gynoecium: Bicarpellary, syncarpous obliquely placed, ovary superior, bilocular but looks tetralocular due to the formation of false septa, numerous ovules in each locule on axile placentation.

128. Seed in Family Solanaceae plants are ____

1. Endospermous.
2. Non – Endosermous
3. Both Endospermous and Non – Endospermous
4. None

Explanation

Seed in Family Solanaceae plants are Endospermous. Fruit: A capsule or berry. (Datura & Petunia, Lycopersicon esculentum, Capsicum).

129. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Botanical description of Datura metel?

1. Habit: Large, erect and stout herb.
2. Habit: Large, erect and stout herb.
3. Stem: Underground bulb
4. Inflorescence: Solitary and axillary cyme.

Explanation

Stem: Stem is hollow, green and herbaceous with strong odour.

130. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Botanical description of Datura metel?

1. Leaf: Simple, alternate, petiolate, entire or deeply lobed, glabrous exstipulate showing unicostate reticulate venation
2. Flower: Flowers are large, greenish white, bracteate, ebracteolate, pedicellate, complete, heterochlamydeous, pentamerous, regular, actinomorphic, bisexual and hypogynous.
3. Calyx: Sepals 10, white synsepalous showing valvate aestivation. Calyx is mostly persistent, even sepal is anterior in position.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Calyx: Sepals 5, green synsepalous showing valvate aestivation. Calyx is mostly persistent, odd sepal is posterior in position.

131. What is the colour of petals in Datura metel?

1. Yellowish white
2. Bluish white
3. Greenish white
4. Reddish white

Explanation

Corolla: petals 5, greenish white, sympetalous, plicate (folded like a fan) showing twisted aestivation, funnel shaped with wide mouth and 10 lobed.

132. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Datura metel

1. Androecium: Stamens 10, attached to one another, epipetalous, alternipetalous and are inserted in the outer surface of corolla tube. Anthers are basifixed, dithecous, with long filament, introse and longitudinally dehiscent.
2. Gynoecium: Ovary bicarpellary, syncarpous superior ovary, basically bilocular but tetralocular due to the formation of false septum. Carpels are obliquely placed and ovules on swollen axile placentation. Style simple long and filiform, stigma two lobed.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Androecium: Stamens 5, free from one another, epipetalous, alternipetalous and are inserted in the middle of the corolla tube. Anthers are basifixed, dithecous, with long filament, introse and longitudinally dehiscent. Fruit: Spinescent capsule opening by four apical valves with persistent calyx. Seed: Endospermous.

133. Which among the following Solanaceae plant roots is used in belladonna plasters, tinctures etc. for relieving pain and also for dialating pupils of eyes for eye –testing as powerful alkaloid?

1. Atropa belladonna
2. Solanum trilobatum
3. Datura stramonium
4. Withania somnifera

Explanation

From Atropa belladonna (deadly nightshade) roots a powerful alkaloid ‘atropine’ obtained from root is used in belladonna plasters, tinctures etc. for relieving pain and also for dialating pupils of eyes for eye –testing.

134. Which among the following Solanaceae plant is used in cigarette, beedi, hukkah, pipes as well as for chewing and snuffing?

1. Cestrum diurnum
2. Nicotiana tabacum
3. Petunia hybrida
4. Schizanthus pinnatus

Explanation

Nicotiana tabaccum (tobacco) leaves are dried and made into tobacco, used in cigarette, beedi, hukkah, pipes as well as for chewing and snuffing, alkaloids like nicotine, nornicotine and anabasin are present in tobacco.

135. Match the following Solanaceae plant with its Binomial name

1. Solanum tuberosum – 1. cape gooseberry
2. Lycopersicon esculentum – 2. Brinjal
3. Solanum melongena – 3. Tomato
4. Capsicum annuum – 4. Bell peppers
5. Physalis peruviana – 5. Potato
6. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4 – 5
7. 3 – 5 – 4 – 1 – 2
8. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2 – 5
9. 5 – 3 – 2 – 4 – 1

Explanation

Solanum tuberosum (potato), Lycopersicon esculentum (tomato), Solanum melongena (brinjal) Capsicum annuum (bell peppers & chilli papers) C. frutescens, Physalis peruviana (cape gooseberry).

136. Which among the following Solanaceae plant is used as drug obtained from the leaves and roots of this is used to treat asthma and whooping cough?

1. Withania somnifera
2. Cestrum diurnum
3. Datura stramonium
4. Solanum trilobatum

Explanation

Datura stramonium is used as drug obtained from the leaves and roots of this is used to treat asthma and whooping cough.

137. Which among the following is not the medicinal plant of family Solanaceae?

1. Cestrum nocturnum
2. Solanum trilobatum
3. Withania somnifera
4. None of the above

Explanation

Solanum trilobatum and Withania somnifera are medicinal plant Used to treat cough and in curing cough and rheumatism. Cestrum diurnum is ornamental plant.

138. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Family: Liliaceae

1. Distribution: Liliaceae are fairly large family comprising about 10 genera and 230 species. Members of this family are widely distributed over pacific and south Asia. Root: Adventitious and tap root, and typically contractile.
2. Habit: Mostly perennial herbs persisting by means of a sympodial rhizome (Polygonatum), by a bulb (Lilium) corm (Colchicum), shrubby or tree like (Yucca and Dracaena). Woody climbers, climbing with the help of stipular tendrils in Smilax. Trees in (Xanthorrhoea), succulents (Aloe).
3. Stem: Stems usually bulbous, rhizomatous in some, aerial, erect (Dracaena) or climbing (Smilax) in Ruscus the ultimate branches are modified into phylloclades, In Asparagus stem is modified into cladodes and the leaves are reduced to scales.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Distribution: Liliaceae are fairly large family comprising about 15 genera and 550 species. Members of this family are widely distributed over most part of the world. Root: Adventitious and fibrous, and typically contractile.

139. How many tepals are present in Liliaceae family?

1. Four
2. Six
3. Nine
4. Eleven

Explanation

Perianth: Tepals 6 biseriate arranged in two whorls of 3 each, apotepalous or rarely syntepalous as in Aloe. Usually petaloid or sometimes sepaloid, odd tepal of the outer whorl is anterior in position, valvate or imbricate, tepals more than six in Paris quadrifolia.

140. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations has been declared which year for pulses, to make people more aware of the nutritional value of pulses?

1. 2014
2. 2016
3. 2017
4. 2018

Explanation

The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations has been declared 2016 as the year for pulses, to make people more aware of the nutritional value of pulses.

141. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Leaf: Leaves are radical (Lilium) or cauline (Dracaena), usually alternate, opposite (Gloriosa), sometimes fleshy and hollow, reduced to scales (Ruscus and Asparagus). The venation is parallel but in species of Smilax it is reticulate. Leaves are usually exstipulate, but in Smilax, two tendrils arise from the base of the leaf, which are considered modified stipules.
2. Inflorescence: Flowers are usually borne in simple or branched racemes (Asphodelus) spikes in Aloe, huge terminal panicle in Yucca, solitary and axillary in Gloriosa, solitary and terminal in Tulipa.
3. Inflorescence: Flowers are usually borne in simple or branched racemes (Asphodelus) spikes in Aloe, huge terminal panicle in Yucca, solitary and axillary in Gloriosa, solitary and terminal in Tulipa.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

142. Which among the following is not fruit characteristic of Liliaceae family

1. Septicidal
2. Loculicidal capsule
3. Legume
4. Berry

Explanation

In Liliaceae family Fruit usually a septicidal or loculicidal capsule or a berry as in Asparagus and Smilax.

143. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Androecium: Stamens 10, arranged in 2 whorls of 5 each, rarely stamens are 5 (Ruscus), 12 in Maianthemum, or up to 15, apostamenous, parallel to the tepals, sometimes epitepalous; filaments distinct or connate, anthers dithecous, basifixed or versatile, extrose, or introse, dehiscing usually by horizontal slit and sometimes by terminal pores; rarely synstamenous (Ruscus).
2. Gynoecium: Tricarpallary, syncarpous, the odd carpel usually anterior, ovary superior, trilocular, with 2 rows of numerous ovules on axile placextation; rarely unilocular with parietal placentation, style usually one; stigmas 1 or 3; rarely the ovary is inferior (Haemodorum), nectar – secreting septal glands are present in the ovary.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Androecium: Stamens 6, arranged in 2 whorls of 3 each, rarely stamens are 3 (Ruscus), 4 in Maianthemum, or up to 12, apostamenous, opposite to the tepals, sometimes epitepalous; filaments distinct or connate, anthers dithecous, basifixed or versatile, extrose, or introse, dehiscing usually by vertical slit and sometimes by terminal pores; rarely synstamenous (Ruscus).

144. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Allium cepa?

1. Habit: Perennial herb with bulb
2. Root: Fibrous adventitious root system
3. Stem: Underground bulb
4. Fruit: Septicidal

Explanation

Fruit: A loculicidal capsule and Seed: Endospermous.

145. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Allium cepa

1. Inflorescence: Scapigerous i.e., the inflorescence axis (peduncle) arising from the ground bearing a cluster of flowers at its apex. Pedicels are of equal length, arising from the apex of the peduncle which brings all flowers at the same level.
2. Leaf: A cluster of radical leaves emerges from the underground bulb, cylindrical and fleshy having sheathy leaf bases with parallel venation and Perianth: Tepals 6, white, arranged in two whorls of three each, syntepalous showing valvate aestivation.
3. Androecium: Stamens 6, arranged in single whorls of , epitepalous, apostamenous /free and opposite to tepals. Anthers dithecous, basifixed, introse, and dehiscing laterally. Gynoecium: Bicarpellary and syncarpous. Ovary superior, trilocular with three ovules in each locule on axile placentation. Style simple, slender with simple stigma.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Androecium: Stamens 6, arranged in two whorls of three each, epitepalous, apostamenous /free and opposite to tepals. Anthers dithecous, basifixed, introse, and dehiscing longitudinally. Gynoecium: Tricarpellary and syncarpous. Ovary superior, trilocular with two ovules in each locule on axile placentation. Style simple, slender with simple stigma.

146. In APG classification, Allium cepa is placed under which family?

1. Cyperaceae
2. Amaryllidaceae
3. Gramineae
4. Lamiaceae

Explanation

In APG classification, Allium cepa is placed under the family Amaryllidaceae.

147. What is the colour of Allium cepa flower?

1. Green
2. Blue
3. Indigo
4. White

Explanation

Flower: Small, white, bracteate, ebracteolate, pedicellate, complete, trimerous, actinomorphic and hypogynous. Flowers are protandrous.

148. Which among the following is not the food plant of family Liliaceae?

1. Allium cepa
2. Allium sativum
3. Asparagus officinalis
4. Agapanthus africanus

Explanation

Allium cepa, Allium sativum and Asparagus officinalis are food pants.

149. Which among the following was called aloin obtained from Aloe vera leaves used in soothing lotions, piles and inflammations, hemorrhoidal salves and shampoos?

1. Colchicine glycoside
2. Heptulosonic glycoside
3. Gelatinous glycoside
4. Arabino glycoside

Explanation

Gelatinous glycoside called aloin from succulent leaves are used in soothing lotions, piles and inflammations, hemorrhoidal salves and shampoos.

150. From which among the following Liliaceae plants medicinal oil is prepared from the root is used for nervous and rheumatic complaints and also in skin diseases?

1. Phormium tenax
2. Asparagus racemosus
3. Colchichum luteum
4. Gloriosa superba

Explanation

Medicinal oil is prepared from the root of Asparagus racemosus is used for nervous and rheumatic complaints and also in skin diseases.

151. Which among the following plant is used in the treatment of gout and rheumatism?

1. Allium sativum
2. Colchichum luteum
3. Gloriosa superba
4. Urginea indica

Explanation

Colchichum luteum roots are used in the treatment of gout and rheumatism.

152. Which among the following Liliaceae plant tubers helpful in promoting labour pains in women?

1. Urginea indica
2. Veratrum album
3. Gloriosa superba
4. Asparagus officinalis

Explanation

Gloriosa superba tubers helpful in promoting labour pains in women.

153. Which among the following fibre yielding plant from Liliaceae family?

1. Phormium tenax
2. Urginea indica
3. Colchicum luteum
4. Veratrum album

Explanation

Phormium tenax is fibre yielding plant used for cordage, fishing net, mattings, twines.

154. Which among the following is Liliaceae plant is used as Raticide?

1. Colchicum luteum
2. Urginea indica
3. Veratrum album
4. Asparagus officinalis

Explanationb

Urginea indica bulbs is used for killing rats (Raticides)

155. Which among the following Liliaceae plant is incorrectly matched with its binomial name?

1. Agapanthus africanus – Malabar glory lily
2. Gloriosa superba – African Lily
3. Ruscus aculeatus – Butchers Broom
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Agapanthus africanus (African Lily), Gloriosa superba (Malabar glory lily), Lilium giganteum, Ruscus aculeatus (Butchers Broom), Yucca alcifolia and Y.gloriosa.

156. Which among the following Liliaceae plant is used as Insecticides?

1. Colchicum luteum
2. Gloriosa superba
3. Veratrum album
4. Colchichum luteum

Explanation

Veratrum album bulbs are used as insectices.

157. Which among the following plant is used as ondiment and also good for heart?

1. Allium cepa
2. Allium sativum
3. Asparagus officinalis
4. All the above

Explanation

Allium sativum bulbs are Used as condiment and also good for heart.

158. Which among the following Liliaceae plant is used to induce polyploidy?

1. Colchicum luteum
2. Lilium giganteum
3. Yucca alcifolia
4. Colchichum luteum

Explanation

Colchicum luteum produce Colchicine (alkaloid) used to induce polyploidy.

159. In Yucca the cross-pollination is carried out by special moth ______

1. Pronuba yuccasella
2. Tegeticula maculata
3. Leaf blotch
4. Snout agavoideae

Explanation

In Yucca the cross-pollination is carried out by special moth, Pronuba yuccasella. Fully opened flowers emit perfumes and are visited by the female moth, especially during nights. This moth collects a lot of pollen grains from one flower and visits another flower. Life history of this moth is intimately associated with the pollination mechanism in Yucca.

160. Botanical survey of India has how many regional centres in India?

1. Nine
2. Eleven
3. Thirteen
4. Fifteen

Explanation

Botanical survey of India explores and documents biodiversity all over India. It has 11 regional centres in India. Herbarium preparation includes plant collection, documentation of field data, preparation of plant specimens, mounting and labelling. There are several national and international herbaria.

161. What is the meaning of the root word of taxonomy “taxis” in Greek?

a) Rules

b) Arrangement

c) Flowers

d) Order

Explanation

The word taxonomy is derived from Greek words “taxis” (arrangement) and “nomos” (rules or laws).

162. Choose the correct statements.

i) Carolus Linnaeus introduced the taxonomic hierarchy.

ii) Linnaeus arranged various taxonomic levels in ascending order from species to kingdom.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Taxonomic hierarchy was introduced by Carolus Linnaeus. It is the arrangement of various taxonomic levels in descending order starting from kingdom up to species.

163. Which of the following statements are correct?

i) Taxonomy governs the naming practices.

ii) Systematics is discipline of classifying organisms into taxa.

iii) Systematics is the broad field deals with the diversification of species.

iv) Taxonomy + Phylogeny = Systematics

v) Classification + Specimen = Taxonomy

a) i, iii only

b) ii, iii, v only

c) i, iii, iv only

d) v only

Explanation

164. In which year Linnaeus proposed the elementary rule of naming plants?

a) 1751

b) 1881

c) 1902

d) 1897

Explanation

The elementary rule of naming of plants was first proposed by Linnaeus in 1751 in his Philosophia Botanica.

165. Which of these are not classified for nomenclature by ICN?

a) Algae

b) Minerals

c) Fungi

d) Plants

Explanation

The ICN stands for International Code of Nomenclature for Algae, Fungi and Plants.

166. Which of the following is not correct regarding vernacular names?

a) Vernacular names are also termed as common names.

b) Vernacular names are often descriptive and poetic reference to plants.

c) Common names does not have same name for many plants.

d) Common names are regional or local and not universal.

Explanation

Vernacular names are known as common names. They are very often descriptive and poetic references to plants. Common name refers to more than one plant or many plants may have same common name. These names are regional or local and are not universal.

167. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) As per ICN each and every taxon can have multiple scientific names.

ii) Scientific name of a species is always a binomial.

iii) Scientific names are universally applied.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Each and every taxon as per the ICN (species, genus, family etc) can have only one correct scientific name. Scientific name of a species is always a binomial. These names are universally applied.

168. Who introduced the binomial nomenclature initially?

a) Carolus Linnaeus

b) Arthur Cronquist

c) Gaspard Bauhin

d) Bentham and Hooker

Explanation

Binomial nomenclature was first introduced by Gaspard Bauhin and it was implemented by Carolus Linnaeus.

169. Identify the incorrect match for standard form of author’s abbreviations.

A. Wallich i) Wall.

B. Robert Brown ii) R.Br.

C. J.P.Lamarck iii) L.

D. G.Bentham iv) Benth.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

170. Who proposed a widely followed natural system of classification?

a) Joseph Dalton Hooker

b) Wallich and Linnaeus

c) George Bentham

d) Both a and c

Explanation

A widely followed natural system of classification considered the best was proposed by two English botanist George Bentham (1800 – 1884) and Joseph Dalton Hooker (1817–1911).

171. Which of these families are not included in the Gymnospermae?

a) Gnetaceae

b) Apocynaceae

c) Coniferae

d) Cycadaceae

Explanation

Gymnospermae: Plants that contain naked seeds come under this class. Gymnospermae includes three families – Gnetaceae, Coniferae and Cycadaceae.

172. Which of the following is not a significance of molecular taxonomy?

a) DNA taxonomy plays a vital role in phytogeography helps in genome mapping and biodiversity conservation.

b) Helps to identify a very large number of species of plants and animals by the use of conserved molecular sequences.

c) Compares the reactions of antigens from various plant taxa with antibodies raised against the antigen of a given taxon.

d) DNA based molecular probes have been developed under the branch of molecular systematics.

Explanation

Significance of Molecular Taxonomy: It helps to identify a very large number of species of plants and animals by the use of conserved molecular sequences. Using DNA data evolutionary patterns of biodiversity are now investigated. DNA taxonomy plays a vital role in phytogeography, which ultimately helps in genome mapping and biodiversity conservation. DNA- based molecular markers used for designing DNA based molecular probes have also been developed under the branch of molecular systematics.

173. Which of the following is not used as an ornamental plant?

a) Lupinus hirsutus

b) Sesbania grandiflora

c) Clitoria ternatea

d) Butea frondosa

Explanation

Butea frondosa (Flame of the forest), Clitoria ternatea, Lathyrus odoratus (Sweet pea) and

Lupinus hirsutus (Lupin) entire plant grown as ornamental plants.

174. Which of these is used as a food plant?

a) Emblica officinalis

b) Manihot esculenta

c) P. acidus

d) All the above

Explanation

Food plants are Emblica officinalis (நெல்லிக்காய் ) P. acidus (அரைநெல்லி) Manihot esculenta (மரவள்ளி கிழங்கு / Tapioca).

175. Match the parts of plants used as medicine.

A. Phyllanthus amarus i) Whole plant

B. Ricinus communis ii) Entire shoot system

C. Euphorbia hirta iii) Leaves and roots

D. Jatropha gossypifolia iv) Seed oil

a) ii, iii, i, iv

b) ii, iv, i, iii

c) iv, i, iii, ii

d) i, iii, iv, ii

Explanation

Euphorbia resinifera – Latex – Euphorbium drug is obtained from the latex and used as a purgative.

Euphorbia hirta – Whole plant – Lactogogue

Phyllanthus amarus – Entire shoot system – Used to treat Jaundice

Jatropha gossypifolia – Leaves and roots – Used in the treatment of leprosy and snakebite

Ricinus communis- Seed oil – Purgative

176. What is the main usage of Musa Textilis?

a) Abaca cloth

b) Ornamental plant

c) Lactogogue

d) Purgative

Explanation

Musa textilis (Manila hemp) is used as fibre. Fibre is woven and made into abaca cloth, also used for twine, bagging and wrapping paper.

177. Name the state flower of Tamil Nadu?

a) Jatropha gossypifolia

b) Euphorbia resinifera

c) Gloriosa superba

d) Phyllanthus amarus

Explanation

The State Flower of Tamil Nadu is Gloriosa superba.

11th Science Lesson 12 Questions in English

12] Scientific Names

1. Which among the following is the scientific name of Mango ginger?

1. Curcuma amada
2. Curcuma longa
3. Ficus benghalensis
4. Bombax ceiba

Explanation

The scientific name of Mango ginger is Curcuma amada and Turmeric is Curcuma longa.

2. Which among the following is the scientific name of Banyan tree?

1. Ceiba pentandra
2. Trapa natans
3. Ficus benghalensis
4. Bombax ceiba

Explanation

The scientific name of Banyan tree is Ficus benghalensis.

3. Match the following plants with its scientific names?

1. Bombax ceiba – 1. whitesilkcottontree
2. Trapa natans – 2. Red silk cotton tree
3. Ceiba pentandra – 3. Monoon longifolium
4. Polyalthia longifolia – 4. Water chestnut
5. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
6. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
7. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
8. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1

Explanation

Bombax ceiba (Red silk cotton tree), Ceiba pentandra (whitesilkcottontree), Trapa natans (water chestnut) and Monoon longifolium(Polyalthia longifolia).

4. Match the following plants with its scientific names

1. Wood sorrel – 1. Mentha piperita
2. Lawn grass – 2. Oxalis
3. Peppermint – 3. Cynodon dactylo
4. Wild strawberry – 4. Fragaria indica
5. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
6. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
7. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
8. 4 – 3 – 1 – 2

Explanation

Oxalis (Wood sorrel), lawn grass (Cynodon dactylon), Mentha piperita (peppermint), Fragaria indica (wild strawberry).

5. Which among the following is the scientific name of Guava?

1. Quisqualis
2. Psidium
3. Allamanda
4. Polyalthia longifolia

Explanation

The scientific name of Guava is Psidium.

6. Match the following plant with its scientific names?

1. Neem – 1. Aegle marmelos
2. Wood apple – 2. Opuntia
3. Clover – 3. Azadirachta
4. Prickly pear – 4. Trifolium
5. 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
6. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
7. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
8. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Neem (Azadirachta), wood apple (Aegle marmelos), Clover (Trifolium) and Prickly pear (Opuntia).

7. Which among the following plant is wrongly matched with its scientific name?

1. Australian Acacia – Acacia auriculiformis
2. Prickly poppy – Utricularia
3. Bladderwort – Argemone Mexicana
4. Only 2
5. Only 1
6. Both 2 and 3
7. Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Bladderwort (Utricularia), Prickly poppy (Argemone mexicana) and Australian Acacia (Acacia auriculiformis).

8. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Tomato – 1. Solanum melongena
2. Brinjal – 2. Lycopersicon esculentum
3. Guava – 3. Mangifera indica
4. Mango – 4. Psidium guajava
5. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
6. 3 – 2 – 4 – 3
7. 4 – 1 – 3 – 4
8. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

Explanation

Tomato – Lycopersicon esculentum, Brinjal – Solanum melongena, Guava – Psidium guajava and Mango – Mangifera indica.

9. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Coconut – 1. Cucumis sativus
2. Date – 2. Phoenix dactylifera
3. Cucumber – 3. Citrus sinensis
4. Citrus – 4. Cocos nucifera
5. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
6. 3 – 4 – 2 – 1
7. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
8. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3

Explanation

Coconut – Cocos nucifera, Date – Phoenix dactylifera, Cucumber – Cucumis sativus and Citrus – Citrus sinensis.

10. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Apple – 1. Punica granatum
2. Pomegranate – 2. Pyrus malus
3. Pea – 3. Brassica campestris
4. Mustard – 4. Pisum sativum
5. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
6. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
7. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
8. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

Explanation

Apple – Pyrus malus, Pomegranate – Punica granatum, Pea – Pisum sativum and Mustard – Brassica campestris.

11. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Poppy – 1. Papaver somniferum
2. Lady’s finger – 2. Helianthus annuus
3. Sunflower – 3. Abelmoschus esculentus
4. Maize – 4. Zea maize
5. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
6. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
7. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
8. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

Explanation

Poppy – Papaver somniferum, Lady’s finger – Abelmoschus esculentus, Sunflower – Helianthus annuus and Maize – Zea maize.

12. Which among the following is the scientific name of paddy?

1. Ananas comosus
2. Oryza sativa
3. Annona squamosa
4. Pyrus malus

Explanation

The scientific name of paddy is Oryza sativa.

13. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Cashew nut – 1. Mimosa pudica
2. Coriander – 2. Annona squamosa
3. Touch-me-not – 3. Anacardium occidentale
4. Custard apple – 4. Coriandrum sativum
5. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
6. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
7. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
8. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1

Explanation

Cashew nut – Anacardium occidentale, Coriander – Coriandrum sativum, Touch-me-not – Mimosa pudica and Custard apple – Annona squamosa.

14. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Jack fruit – 1. Ananas comosus
2. Pine apple – 2. Morus alba
3. Mulberry – 3. Ficus carica
4. Fig – 4. Artocarpus heterophyllus
5. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
8. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Jack fruit – Artocarpus heterophyllus, Pine apple – Ananas comosus, Mulberry – Morus alba and Fig – Ficus carica.

15. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Pigeon Pea – 1. Cicer arietinum
2. French bean – 2. Cajanus cajan
3. Chick pea – 3. Phaseolus vulgaris
4. Black gram – 4. Vigna mungo
5. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
6. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
7. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
8. 3 – 1 – 3 – 2

Explanation

Cajanus cajan (Pigeon Pea), Phaseolus vulgaris (French bean), Cicer arietinum (Chick pea / Channa) and Vigna mungo (black gram).

16. Match the following pulses with its scientific name

1. Green gram – 1. Vigna unguiculata
2. Cow pea – 2. Glycine max
3. Soya bean – 3. Macrotyloma uniflorum
4. Horse gram – 4. Vigna radiata
5. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
6. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
7. 3 – 4 – 2 – 1
8. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4

Explanation

Vigna radiata (green gram), Vigna unguiculata (cow pea), Glycine max (soya bean) Macrotyloma uniflorum (Horse gram).

17. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Field bean – 1. Sesbania grandiflora
2. Agathi – 2. Arachis hypogea
3. Cluster bean – 3. Cyamopsis tetragonoloba
4. Ground nut – 4. Lablab purpureus
5. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
6. 2 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
8. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

Explanation

Lablab purpureus (field bean), Sesbania grandiflora (agathi), Cyamopsis tetragonoloba (cluster bean) and Arachis hypogea (ground nut).

18. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Pungam – 1. Dalbergia latifolia
2. Rose wood – 2. Pterocarpus santalinus
3. Red sandalwood – 3. Pongamia pinnata
4. Malabar kino – 4. Pterocarpus marsupium
5. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
6. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
7. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1
8. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

Explanation

Pongamia pinnata (pungam), Dalbergia latifolia (rose wood) Pterocarpus santalinus (red sandalwood) and P.marsupium (Malabar kino).

19. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Babchi – 1. Glycyrrhiza glabra
2. Velvet bean – 2. Psoralea corylifolia
3. Licorice root – 3. Crotalaria juncea
4. Sunhemp – 4. Mucuna pruriens
5. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
6. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
7. 4 – 3 – 1 – 2
8. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2

Explanation

Psoralea corylifolia (Babchi), Glycyrrhiza glabra (Licorice root), Mucuna pruriens (Velvet bean) and Crotalaria juncea (sunhemp).

20. Match the following plant with plants scientific names

1. Aegyptiaca – 1. Butea monosperma
2. Avuri – 2. Clitoria ternatea
3. Asian pigeonwings – 3. Indigofera tinctoria
4. Sacred tree – 4. Sesbania sesban
5. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
6. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
7. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
8. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

Explanation

Sesbania sesban (aegyptiaca), Sesbania sesban (aegyptiaca), Clitoria ternatea (Asian pigeonwing) and Butea monosperma (Sacred tree).

21. Which among the following is correctly matched with its scientific name

1. Flame of the forest – Crotalaria albida
2. Sweet pea – Lathyrus odoratus
3. Lupin – Lupinus hirsute
4. Only 1
5. Only 3
6. Both 1 and 3
7. Both 2 and 3

Explanation

Butea frondosa (Flame of the forest), Lathyrus odoratus (Sweet pea) and Lupinus hirsutus (Lupin).

22. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Potato – 1. Lycopersicon esculentum
2. Tomato – 2. Capsicum annuum
3. Bell pepper – 3. Capsicum frutescens
4. Chilli pepper – 4. Solanum tuberosum
5. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
6. 3 – 1 – 2 – 3
7. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
8. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Solanum tuberosum (potato), Lycopersicon esculentum (tomato), Capsicum annuum (bell peppers) Capsicum frutescens (chilli pepper).

23. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Brinjal – 1. Physalis peruviana
2. Cape gooseberry – 2. Datura stramonium
3. Deadly nightshade – 3. Solanum melongena
4. Jimsonweed – 4. Atropa belladonna
5. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
6. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
7. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
8. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Explanation

Solanum melongena (brinjal), Atropa belladonna (deadly nightshade), Datura stramonium (Jimsonweed) and Physalis peruviana (cape gooseberry).

24. Which among the following is the scientific name of tobacco

1. Cestrum diurnum
2. Schizanthus pinnatus
3. Nicotiana tabacum
4. Withania somnifera

Explanation

The scientific name of tobacco is Nicotiana tabacum.

25. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Ashwagandh – 1. Withania somnifera
2. Day Jasmine – 2. Cestrum diurnum
3. Night Jasmine – 3. Cestrum nocturnum
4. Tutuvalai – 4. Solanum trilobatum
5. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
6. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
7. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
8. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1

Explanation

Solanum trilobatum (Tutuvalai), Withania somnifera (Ashwagandha), Cestrum diurnum (Day Jasmine) Cestrum nocturnum (Night Jasmine).

26. What was the scientific name of Butterfly flower?

1. Schizanthus pinnatus
2. Allium sativum
3. Colchichum luteum
4. Phormium tenax

Explanation

The scientific name of butterfly flower is Schizanthus pinnatus.

27. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Onion – 1. Asparagus officinalis
2. Garlic – 2. Allium sativum
3. Sparrow grass – 3. Mentha spicata
4. Spearmint – 4. Allium cepa
5. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
6. 2 – 4 – 3 – 2
7. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
8. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3

Explanation

Onion – Allium cepa, Garlic – Allium sativum, sparrow grass – Asparagus officinalis and Spear mint – Mentha spicata.

28. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Shatavari – 1. Colchichum luteum
2. Suranjan – 2. Phormium tenax
3. Flame lily – 3. Gloriosa superba
4. New Zealand flax – 4. Asparagus racemosus
5. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
6. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
7. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
8. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

Explanation

Asparagus racemosus (Shatavari), Colchichum luteum (Suranjan), Gloriosa superba (Flame lily) and Phormium tenax (New Zealand flax).

29. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Indian squill – 1. Veratrum album
2. White hellebore – 2. Urginea indica
3. Aloe yucca – 3. Yucca alcifolia
4. Spanish dagger – 4. Yucca gloriosa
5. 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
6. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
7. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
8. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1

Explanation

Urginea indica (Indian squill), Veratrum album (White hellebore), Yucca alcifolia (Aloe Yucca) and Yucca gloriosa (Spanish dagger).

30. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. African Lily – 1. Ruscus aculeatus
2. Malabar glory lily – 2. Gloriosa superba
3. Giant Himalayan lily – 3. Lilium giganteum
4. Ruscus aculeatus – 4. Agapanthus africanus
5. 1 – 4 – 3 – 2
6. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
7. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
8. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1

Explanation

Agapanthus africanus (African Lily) Gloriosa superba (Malabar glory lily) Lilium giganteum (Giant Himalayan lily) and Ruscus aculeatus (Butchers Broom).

31. Which among the following is the scientific name of orange?

1. Citrus Limonium
2. Citrus Aurantium
3. Citrullus Vulgaris
4. Ananus Sativus

Explanation

The scientific name of orange is Citrus Aurantium.

32. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Lettuce – 1. Citrullus vulgaris
2. Radish – 2. Lactuca sativa
3. Watermelon – 3. Raphanus sativus
4. Banana – 4. Musa Paradisicum
5. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
6. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
7. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
8. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4

Explanation

Lettuce (Lactuca sativa), Radish (Raphanus sativus), Watermelon (Citrullus vulgaris) and Banana (Musa Paradisicum).

33. Which among the following plant is wrongly matched with its scientific name

1. Jowar – Cojonus cgjan
2. Wheat – Triticum aestivum
3. Red gram – Sorghum vulgare
4. Only 1
5. Only 3
6. Both 1 and 2
7. Both 1 and 3

Explanation

Jowar – sorghum vulgare, Red gram – Cojonus cgjan.

34. Match the following plants with scientific name

1. Ginger – 1. Curcuma longa
2. Black pepper – 2. Syzygium aromaticum
3. Turmeric – 3. Zingiber officinale
4. Clove – 4. Piper nigrum
5. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
8. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

Explanation

Ginger (Zingiber officinale), Black pepper (Piper nigrum), Turmeric (Curcuma longa) and Clove (Syzygium aromaticum).

35. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Banyan – 1. Nicotina tobaccum
2. Tobacco – 2. Ficus benghalensis
3. Bamboo – 3. Azadhirachta indica
4. Neem – 4. Bamboosa aridinarifolia
5. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
6. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
7. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
8. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3

Explanation

Banyan (Ficus benghalensis), Tobacco (Nicotina tobaccum), Bamboo (Bamboosa aridinarifolia) and Neem (Azadhirachta indica).

36. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Drumstick – 1. Ocimum sanctum
2. Tulsi – 2. Gossypium herbaceum
3. Sandalwood – 3. Santalum album
4. Cotton – 4. Moringa oleifera
5. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
6. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
7. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
8. 1 – 4 – 3 – 2

Explanation

Drumstick (Moringa oleifera), Tulsi (Ocimum sanctum), Sandalwood (Santalum album) and Cooton (Gossypium herbaceum).

37. Which among the following is the scientific name of Henna (mehndi)

1. Murraya koenigii
2. Mentha arvensis
3. Lawsonia inermis
4. Coriandrum sativum

Explanation

The scientific name of Henna (mehndi) is Lawsonia inermis.

38. Match the following plants with its scientific name

1. Curry plant – 1. Epipremnum aureum
2. Mint – 2. Mentha arvensis
3. Money plant – 3. Murraya koenigii
4. Coriander – 4. Coriandrum sativum
5. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
8. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

Explanation

Curry plant (Murraya koenigii), Mint (Mentha arvensis), Money plant (Epipremnum aureum) and Coriander (Coriandrum sativum).

39. Which among the following plant is correctly matched with its scientific name

1. Barley – Pyrus malus
2. Peepal – Pisum sativam
3. Tomato – Lycopersican esculentum
4. Only 1
5. Only 3
6. Both 1 and 2
7. Both 1 and 3

Explanation

Barley – Hordeum vulgare, Peepal – Ficus religiosa Linn and Tomato – Lycopersican esculentum.

40. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Calla lily – 1. Lathyrus
2. Jersey lily – 2. Alchemilla
3. Lady’s mantle – 3. Amaryllis Belladonna
4. Sweet pea – Zantedeschia
5. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
6. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
7. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
8. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4

Explanation

Calla lily (Zantedeschia), Jersey lily (Amaryllis Belladonna), Lady’s mantle (Alchemilla) and Sweet pea (Lathyrus).

41. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Wild rye – 1. Acer rubrum
2. Wild oats – 2. Elymus sp.
3. Red maple – 3. Eleusine coracana
4. Finger millet – 4. Avena fatua
5. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
8. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

Explanation

Wild rye (Elymus sp.), Wild oats (Avena fatua), Red maple (Acer rubrum) and Finger millet (Eleusine coracana).

42. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Apache Plume – 1. Hylocereus undutus
2. Aplle Blossom Grass – 2. Ananas comosus
3. Dragon fruit – 3. Fallugia paradoxa
4. Pine apple – 4. Gaura
5. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
8. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

Explanation

Apache Plume (Fallugia paradoxa), Aplle Blossom Grass (Gaura), Dragon fruit (Hylocereus undutus) and Pine apple (Ananas comosus).

43. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Amaryllis – 1. Saintpaulia
2. African violet – 2. Impatiens Walleriana
3. Busy lizzie – 3. Hippeastrum
4. Barberton daisy – 4. Gerbera Jamesonii
5. 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
6. 4 – 3 – 1 – 2
7. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
8. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4

Explanation

Amaryllis (Hippeastrum), African violet (Saintpaulia), Busy lizzie (Impatiens Walleriana) and Barberton daisy (Gerbera Jamesonii).

44. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Coral berry – 1. Ardisia Crenata
2. Corsage orchid – 2. Cattleya
3. Flaming sword – 3. Oxalis Triangularis
4. False shamrock – 4. Vriesea Splendens
5. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
6. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
7. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
8. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Coral berry (Ardisia Crenata), Corsage orchid (Cattleya), Flaming sword (Vriesea Splendens) and False shamrock (Oxalis Triangularis).

45. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Madagascar Jasmine – 1. Hibiscus Rosa Sinensis
2. Moth orchid – 2. Phalaenopsis
3. Rose of China – 3. Billbergia Nutans
4. Queens tears – 4. Stephanotis Floribunda
5. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
8. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

Explanation

Madagascar Jasmine (Stephanotis Floribunda), Moth orchid (Phalaenopsis), Rose of China (Hibiscus Rosa Sinensis) and Queens tears (Billbergia Nutans).

46. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Peace lily – 1. Euphorbia pulcherrima
2. Poinsettia – 2. Primula obconica
3. Poison primrose – 3. Pachystachys lutea
4. Lollipop plant – 4. Spathiphyllum wallisii
5. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
6. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
7. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
8. 1 – 4 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Peace lily (Spathiphyllum wallisii), Poinsettia (Euphorbia pulcherrima), Poison primrose (Primula obconica) and Lollipop plant (Pachystachys lutea).

47. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Almond – 1. Amomum Subulatum Roxb
2. Amla – 2. Phyllanthus Emblica
3. Cardamon – 3. Foeniculum Vulgare L
4. Fennel – 4. Prunus Dulcis
5. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
6. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
7. 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
8. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

Explanation

Almond (Prunus Dulcis), Amla (Phyllanthus Emblica), Cardamon (Amomum Subulatum Roxb) and Fennel (Foeniculum Vulgare L.).

48. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Bay leaf – 1. Papaver somniferum
2. Lovage – 2. Laurus nobilis
3. Basil – 3. Levisticum officinale
4. Poppy seed – 4. Ocimum basilium
5. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
6. 3 – 4 – 2 – 1
7. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
8. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1

Explanation

Bay leaf (Laurus nobilis), Lovage (Levisticum officinale), Basil (Ocimum basilium) and Poppy seed (Papaver somniferum).

49. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Aluminium plant – 1. Pilea cadierei
2. Areca palm – 2. Aglaonema
3. Chinese evergreen – 3. Nertera granadensis
4. Coral bead – 4. Dypsis lytescens
5. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1
6. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
7. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
8. 1 – 4 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Aluminium plant (Pilea cadierei), Areca palm (Dypsis lytescens), Chinese evergreen (Aglaonema) and Coral bead (Nertera granadensis).

50. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Sage – 1. Satureja hortensis
2. Savory – 2. Garcinia indica
3. Arrow head – 3. Salvia officinalis
4. Kokam – 4. Syngonium podophyllum
5. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
6. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1
7. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
8. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

Explanation

Sage (Salvia officinalis), Savory (Satureja hortensis), Arrow head (Syngonium podophyllum) and Kokam (Garcinia indica).