11th Std Science Lesson Wise Questions in English – Part 1

11th Std Science Lesson Wise Questions in English

11th Science Lesson 1 Questions in English

1] Nature of Physical World and Measurement

1. What is root word of science mean?

1. To measure
2. To know
3. To teach
4. To lease

Explanation

The word ‘science’ has its root in the Latin verb scientia, meaning “to know”. In Tamil language, it is Ariviyal meaning ‘knowing the truth’.

2. Which of the following are involved in systematic organization of knowing science?

1. Observation
2. Experimentation
3. Logical reasoning
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Science is the systematic organization of knowledge gained through observation, experimentation and logical reasoning.

3. Which is the origin of the word science?

a) Greek

b) Rome

c) Latin

d) French

Explanation

The word ‘science’ has its root in the Latin verb scientia, meaning “to know”.

4. Which of the following knowledge of science deals with non-living things?

1. Physics
2. Botany
3. Zoology
4. Chemistry
5. 1, 2
6. 1, 3
7. 1, 4
8. 2, 3

Explanation

The knowledge of science dealing with non-living things is physical science (Physics and Chemistry), and that dealing with living things is biological science (Botany, Zoology etc.).

5. When was the word science coined?

1. 17^th century
2. 19^th century
3. 14^th century
4. 16^th century

Explanation

Curiosity-driven observations of natural happenings was the origin of science. The word ‘science’ was coined only in the 19th century.

6. Assertion (A): Science is the systematic organization of knowledge through observation, experiments and logical reasoning.

Reasoning(R): The knowledge of physical science deals with the non-living and living things.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Science is the systematic organization of knowledge gained through observation, experimentation and logical reasoning. The knowledge of science dealing with non-living things is physical science (Physics and Chemistry), and that dealing with living things is biological science (Botany, Zoology etc.).

7. ______ was the earlier name given to science.

1. Natural philosophy
2. Natural physiology
3. Natural Psychology
4. Natural philanthropy

Explanation

Natural philosophy was the earlier name given to science, when ancient civilization knew and practised astronomy, chemistry, human physiology and agriculture.

8. Who is the oldest forerunner of scientific advancements, from astronomy to medicine?

1. Indians
2. Egyptians
3. Mongolians
4. Chinese

Explanation

One of the oldest forerunners of scientific advancements, from astronomy to medicine, were the Egyptians.

9. Indus Valley Civilization took place in_____

1. 3300 – 1300 BCE
2. 3200 – 1200 BCE
3. 3300 – 1300 AD
4. 3200 – 1200 AD

Explanation

Scientific and mathematical excellence in India dates back to prehistoric human activity in the Indus Valley Civilization (3300 – 1300 BCE).

10. Which Article of Indian constitution says it is duty of every citizen of India to develop scientific temper, humanism?

1. 51A
2. 50
3. 45A
4. 45

Explanation

According to part IV Article 51A (h) of Indian Constitution “It shall be the duty of every citizen of India to develop scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform’’. This is the aim of our Science Education.

11. Which of the following are involved in scientific method?

1. Systematic observation
2. Controlled experimentation
3. Mathematical modeling
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Any scientific method involves the following general features:

• Systematic observation
• Controlled experimentation
• Qualitative and quantitative reasoning
• Mathematical modeling
• Prediction and verification or falsification of theories

12. Assertion (A): When one end of the rod is heated, heat is felt at the other end.

Reason(R): In metals heat gets transferred from one end to another

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Consider a metallic rod being heated. When one end of the rod is heated, heat is felt at the other end. Heat gets transferred from one end to another.

13. The name Physics was introduced by______

1. Einstein
2. Galileo
3. Newton
4. Aristotle

Explanation

The name Physics was introduced by Aristotle in the year 350 BC. Today’s modern science and technology is an offshoot of the understanding of nature.

14. What does the Greek word “Fusis” mean?

1. Nature
2. Artificial
3. Work
4. Manual

Explanation

The word ‘physics’ is derived from the Greek word “Fusis”, meaning nature. The study of nature and natural phenomena is dealt with in physics. Hence physics is considered as the most basic of all sciences.

15. How many approaches are there in studying physics?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 5

Explanation

Unification and Reductionism are the two approaches in studying physics. Attempting to explain diverse physical phenomena with a few concepts and laws is unification.

16. Which of the following can be explained by Newton’s universal law of gravitation?

1. Motion of freely falling bodies towards the Earth
2. Motion of planets around the Sun
3. Motion of the Moon around the Earth
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Newton’s universal law of gravitation explains the motion of freely falling bodies towards the Earth, motion of planets around the Sun, motion of the Moon around the Earth, thus unifying the fundamental forces of nature.

17. What is the root word of physics in Greek language?

a) Centrica

b) Fusis

c) Scientia

d) Strata

Explanation

The word ‘physics’ is derived from the Greek word “Fusis”, meaning nature.

18. Which of the following is a macroscopic property?

1. Entropy
2. Temperature
3. Pressure
4. All the above

Explanation

An attempt to explain a macroscopic system in terms of its microscopic constituents is reductionism. For example, thermodynamics was developed to explain macroscopic properties like temperature, entropy, etc., of bulk systems.

19. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Physics as a fundamental science helps to uncover the laws of nature
2. The language of its expression is mathematics
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Physics as a fundamental science helps to uncover the laws of nature. The language of its expression is mathematics. In ancient times, humans lived with nature – their lifestyles were integrated with nature. They could understand the signals from the movement of the Stars and other celestial bodies.

20. Which of the following were the 1^st disciplines to be developed?

1. Astronomy
2. Dynamics
3. Mathematics
4. Optics
5. 1, 2
6. 2 alone
7. 1, 3
8. 2, 3, 4

Explanation

They could understand the signals from the movement of the Stars and other celestial bodies. They could determine the time to sow and reap by watching the sky. Thus, astronomy and mathematics were the first disciplines to be developed.

21. Which of the following is explained by the unification approach of physics?

a) Motion of free falling bodies towards the Earth.

b) Motion of planets around the Sun.

c) Motion of Moon around the Earth.

d) All the above

Explanation

Newton’s universal law of gravitation explains the motion of freely falling bodies towards the Earth, motion of planets around the Sun, motion of the Moon around the Earth, thus unifying the fundamental forces of nature

22. Under which of the following kinematics and kinetics come?

1. Relativity
2. Optics
3. Acoustics
4. Mechanics

Explanation

23. Which of the following does not come under classical physics?

1. Relativity
2. Nuclear
3. Optics
4. Thermodynamics

Explanation

24. Relativistic and Non – relativistic comes under_____ physics

1. Atomic
2. Nuclear
3. Molecular
4. Quantum

Explanation

25. Match the following

1. Classical mechanics 1. The study of the relationship between heat and other

forms of energy

1. Optics 2. The study of forces acting on bodies whether at rest

or in motion

1. Thermodynamics 3. The study of light
2. 2, 3, 1
3. 2, 1, 3
4. 1, 3, 2
5. 3, 1, 2

Explanation

1. Classical mechanics – The study of forces acting on bodies whether at rest or in motion

2. Thermodynamics – The study of the relationship between heat and other forms of energy

3. Optics – The study of light

26. Match the following

1. Acoustics 1. Study of the physics of astronomical bodies
2. Relativity 2. The study of the production and propagation of sound

waves

1. Astrophysics 3. One of the branches of theoretical physics which deals

with the relationship between space, time and energy

1. 1, 2, 3
2. 2, 3, 1
3. 2, 1, 3
4. 3, 1, 2

Explanation

• Electricity and magnetism – The study of electricity and magnetism and their mutual relationship
• Acoustics – The study of the production and propagation of sound waves
• Astrophysics -The branch of physics which deals with the study of the physics of astronomical bodies
• Relativity – One of the branches of theoretical physics which deals with the relationship between space, time and energy particularly with objects moving in different ways.

27. Match the following:

1. Quantum mechanics 1. The study of the nature of the particles
2. Atomic physics 2. The study of the discrete nature of

phenomena at the atomic and subatomic

levels.

1. Nuclear physics 3. The branch of physics which deals with the

structure, properties and reaction of the

nuclei of atoms

1. High energy physics 4. The branch of physics which deals with the

structure and properties of the atom

1. 2, 1, 4, 3
2. 2, 4, 3, 1
3. 1, 2, 4, 3
4. 4, 1, 2, 3

Explanation

28. Assertion (A): Magnetism was accidentally observed but the reason for this strange behavior of magnets were later analyzed theoretically

Reason(R): Discoveries in physics are of two types; accidental discoveries and well-analyzed research outcome in the laboratory

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) does not explain (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are wrong
3. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) explains (A)
4. (A) is Correct and (R) is wrong

Explanation

Discoveries in physics are of two types; accidental discoveries and well-analyzed research outcome in the laboratory based on intuitive thinking and prediction. For example, magnetism was accidentally observed but the reason for this strange behavior of magnets was later analyzed theoretically.

29. Choose the incorrect statements.

i) The discoveries of physics are classified into two types as accidental discoveries and well-analyzed research in the laboratory.

ii) Magnetism was observed and analyzed theoretically and artificial magnets were prepared in the laboratories.

iii) Theoretical predictions are the important contribution of physics for the developments in technology and medicine.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Discoveries in physics are of two types; accidental discoveries and well-analyzed research outcome in the laboratory based on intuitive thinking and prediction. For example, magnetism was accidentally observed but the reason for this strange behavior of magnets was later analyzed theoretically. This analysis revealed the underlying phenomena of magnetism. With this knowledge, artificial magnets were prepared in the laboratories. Theoretical predictions are the most important contribution of physics to the developments in technology and medicine

30. Who experimentally proved Albert Einstein, E=mc²?

1. Cockcroft
2. Newton
3. Walton
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. 1, 3
7. 2, 3

Explanation

The famous equation of Albert Einstein, E=mc² was a theoretical prediction in 1905 and experimentally proved in 1932 by Cockcroft and Walton.

31. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The pharmaceutical industry uses this technique very effectively to design new drugs.
2. Bio compatible materials for organ replacement are predicted using quantum prescriptions of physics before fabrication.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Theoretical predictions aided with recent simulation and computation procedures are widely used to identify the most suited materials for robust applications. The pharmaceutical industry uses this technique very effectively to design new drugs. Bio compatible materials for organ replacement are predicted using quantum prescriptions of physics before fabrication. Thus, experiments and theory work hand in hand complimenting one another.

32. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Physics has a huge scope as it covers a tremendous range of magnitude of various physical quantities
2. It deals with systems of very large magnitude as in astronomical phenomena as well as those with very small magnitude involving electrons and protons
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Physics has a huge scope as it covers a tremendous range of magnitude of various physical quantities (length, mass, time, energy etc). It deals with systems of very large magnitude as in astronomical phenomena as well as those with very small magnitude involving electrons and protons.

33. What is the range of astronomical scales to microscopic scales?

1. 10¹⁸ to 10⁻²²
2. 10⁸ to 10⁻²²
3. 10¹⁸ to 10⁻¹²
4. 10¹⁸ to 10⁻²

Explanation

Physics has a huge scope as it covers a tremendous range of magnitude of various physical quantities (length, mass, time, energy etc). Range of time scales: astronomical scales to microscopic scales, 10¹⁸s to 10⁻²² s.

34. What is the mass of electron?

1. 9.11×10^–31 kg
2. 8.11×10^–31 kg
3. 19.11×10^–31 kg
4. 12.11×10^–31 kg

Explanation

Range of masses: from heavenly bodies to electron, 10⁵⁵ kg (mass of known observable universe) to 10⁻³¹ kg (mass of an electron) [the actual mass of an electron is 9.11×10^–31 kg].

35. What is the range of mass of known observable universe?

a) 10⁵⁵ kg

b) 10⁸ kg

c) 10³⁰ kg

d) 10¹⁰ kg

Explanation

Range of masses: from heavenly bodies to electron, 10⁵⁵ kg (mass of known observable universe) to 10^-31 kg (mass of an electron) [the actual mass of an electron is 9.11×10–31 kg].

36. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The study of physics is not only educative but also exciting in many ways.
2. The most interesting part is the designing of useful devices based on the physical laws.
3. Carrying out new challenging experiments to unfold the secrets of nature and in verifying or falsifying the existing theories.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The study of physics is not only educative but also exciting in many ways.

• A small number of basic concepts and laws can explain diverse physical phenomena.
• The most interesting part is the designing of useful devices based on the physical laws.
• Carrying out new challenging experiments to unfold the secrets of nature and in verifying or falsifying the existing theories.

37. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Technology is the application of the principles of physics for practical purposes.
2. The application of knowledge for practical purposes in various fields to invent and produce useful products or to solve problems is known as technology
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Technology is the application of the principles of physics for practical purposes. The application of knowledge for practical purposes in various fields to invent and produce useful products or to solve problems is known as technology. Thus, physics and technology can both together impact our society directly or indirectly.

38. Which have comprehensively changed the thinking and living style of human beings?

1. Microelectronics
2. Launching of satellite into space
3. Lasers
4. Superconductivity
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Microelectronics, lasers, computers, superconductivity and nuclear energy have comprehensively changed the thinking and living style of human beings.

39. Which of the following basics led to the discovery of wireless communication technology?

1. Superconductivity
2. Electricity
3. Magnetism
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. 3 alone

Explanation

Basic laws of electricity and magnetism led to the discovery of wireless communication technology which has shrunk the world with effective communication over large distances.

40. Which of the following studies in physics led to enabled researchers in chemistry to arrange elements in the periodic table?

1. Structure of atom
2. X-ray diffraction
3. Radioactivity
4. All the above

Explanation

In physics, we study the structure of atom, radioactivity, X-ray diffraction etc. Such studies have enabled researchers in chemistry to arrange elements in the periodic table on the basis of their atomic numbers.

41. Which of these is used to understand the structure of nucleic acids?

a) Electron microscopes

b) Neutron diffraction technique

c) Radioactivity

d) Periodic tables

Explanation

The invention of the electron microscope has made it possible to see even the structure of a cell. X-ray and neutron diffraction techniques have helped us to understand the structure of nucleic acids, which help to control vital life processes. X-rays are used for diagnostic purposes.

42. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Biological studies are impossible without a microscope designed using physics principles
2. Radio-isotopes are used in radiotherapy for the cure of cancer and other diseases.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Biological studies are impossible without a microscope designed using physics principles. Radio-isotopes are used in radiotherapy for the cure of cancer and other diseases. In recent years, biological processes are being studied from the physics point of view.

43. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The invention of the electron microscope has made it possible to see even the structure of a cell.
2. Gamma rays are used for diagnostic purposes.
3. X-ray and neutron diffraction techniques have helped us to understand the structure of nucleic acids, which help to control vital life processes
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The invention of the electron microscope has made it possible to see even the structure of a cell. X-ray and neutron diffraction techniques have helped us to understand the structure of nucleic acids, which help to control vital life processes. X-rays are used for diagnostic purposes.

44. Physics is a______ science

1. Qualitative
2. Quantitative
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

Physics in relation to mathematics: Physics is a quantitative science. It is most closely related to mathematics as a tool for its development.

45. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Astronomical telescopes are used to study the motion of planets and other heavenly bodies in the sky
2. Radio telescopes have enabled the astronomers to observe distant points of the universe.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Astronomical telescopes are used to study the motion of planets and other heavenly bodies in the sky. Radio telescopes have enabled the astronomers to observe distant points of the universe. Studies of the universe are done using physical principles.

46. What is the usage of radio-isotopes?

a) Long distance communication

b) Radio therapy for cancer and other diseases

c) Identify the distance between stars and planets

d) Analyze the sub-atomic particles

Explanation

Radio-isotopes are used in radiotherapy for the cure of cancer and other diseases. In recent years, biological processes are being studied from the physics point of view.

47. Which of the following ages can be estimated using radioactivity?

1. Rocks
2. Fossils
3. Age of earth
4. All the above

Explanation

Diffraction techniques help to study the crystal structure of various rocks. Radioactivity is used to estimate the age of rocks, fossils and the age of the Earth.

48. Which of the following parameters can be measured by physics and chemistry in oceanography?

1. Temperature
2. Gas fluxes
3. Current speed
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Oceanographers seek to understand the physical and chemical processes of the oceans. They measure parameters such as temperature, salinity, current speed, gas fluxes, chemical components.

49. Assertion (A): Physics is a quantitate science dealing with the measurement of physical quantities in numbers.

Reasoning(R): Measurement is the basis of all scientific studies and experimentation.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The comparison of any physical quantity with its standard unit is known as measurement. Measurement is the basis of all scientific studies and experimentation. It plays an important role in our daily life. Physics is a quantitative science and physicists always deal with numbers which are the measurement of physical quantities.

50. Which of the following is not a physical quantity?

a) Length

b) Mass

c) Atomic number

d) Energy

Explanation

Quantities that can be measured, and in terms of which, laws of physics are described are called physical quantities. Examples are length, mass, time, force, energy, etc.

51. Assertion (A): The physical quantities are classified into various types based on the field.

Reasoning(R): Fundamental and derived quantities are one of the classification of the physical quantity.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Physical quantities are classified into two types. They are fundamental and derived quantities.

52. Which of the following is not a fundamental or base quantity?

a) Mass

b) Time

c) Magnetic Induction

d) Electric Current

Explanation

Fundamental or base quantities are quantities which cannot be expressed in terms of any other physical quantities. These are length, mass, time, electric current, temperature, luminous intensity and amount of substance.

53. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. All psychological interactions can be derived from a physical process.
2. The movements of neurotransmitters are governed by the physical properties of diffusion and molecular motion
3. The functioning of our brain is related to our underlying dualism
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

All psychological interactions can be derived from a physical process. The movements of neurotransmitters are governed by the physical properties of diffusion and molecular motion. The functioning of our brain is related to our underlying dualism.

54. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Nature teaches true science with physics as an efficient tool.
2. Science and technology should be used in a balanced manner so that they do become weapons to destroy nature which taught us science
3. Global warming and other negative impacts of technology need to be checked.
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Nature teaches true science with physics as an efficient tool. Science and technology should be used in a balanced manner so that they do not become weapons to destroy nature which taught us science. Global warming and other negative impacts of technology need to be checked. Safe science with moderate and appropriate use of technology is the need of this century.

55. Which of the following timeline refers to the traditional or the Classical Physics?

a) After 20^th century

b) 19^th century

c) Before 20^th century

d) After 2^nd BCE

56. Which of the following branch does not belong to the Classical physics?

a) Optics

b) High energy physics

c) Acoustics

d) Astrophysics

Explanation

57. What does the Atomic physics deals with,

a) Structure and reaction of the nuclei of atoms.

b) Study of the nature of the particles.

c) Study of nature of phenomena at the atomic levels.

d) Study of structures and properties of the atom.

58. Which of these are used to understand the structure of nucleic acids?

a) Neutron diffraction techniques

b) Carbon isotopes

c) Radioactive tracer techniques

d) Chromatography

Explanation

X-ray and neutron diffraction techniques have helped us to understand the structure of nucleic acids, which help to control vital life processes. X-rays are used for diagnostic purposes. Radio-isotopes are used in radiotherapy for the cure of cancer and other diseases.

59. Choose the correct statements.

i) Physics is a qualitative and comparative science.

ii) Physics is mostly related to mathematics as a tool for its development.

1. i only
2. ii only
3. Both i and ii
4. Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Physics is a quantitative science. It is most closely related to mathematics as a tool for its development.

60. Which of the following is the usage of Diffraction techniques in geology?

a) Estimate age of rocks, fossils and earth

b) Study the crystal structure of rocks

c) Study about the planets

d) Estimating the Nuclear activity

Explanation

Diffraction techniques help to study the crystal structure of various rocks. Radioactivity is used to estimate the age of rocks, fossils and the age of the Earth.

61. Which of these are measured by the Oceanographers to understand the physical and chemical process of Oceans?

a) Current speed

b) Salinity

c) Chemical components

d) All the above

Explanation

Oceanographers seek to understand the physical and chemical processes of the oceans. They measure parameters such as temperature, salinity, current speed, gas fluxes, and chemical components.

62. Choose the correct statements.

i) The process of measurement is basically a process of comparison with a reference standard.

ii) The standard measure is known as the unit of the quantity.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

The process of measurement is basically a process of comparison. To measure a quantity, we always compare it with some reference standard. For example, when we state that a rope is 10 meter long, it is to say that it is 10 times as long as an object whose length is defined as 1 meter. Such a standard is known as the unit of the quantity. Here 1 meter is the unit of the quantity ‘length’.

63. Which is not a metric system?

a) fps

b) mks

c) SI

d) cgs

Explanation

The cgs, mks and SI are metric or decimal system of units. The fps system is not a metric system.

64. Which of the following country uses the FPS system for measurement?

a) South Asian countries

b) British Engineering systems

c) The United States customary system

d) Indian Standards

Explanation

The f.p.s. system is the British Engineering system of units, which uses foot, pound and second as the three basic units for measuring length, mass and time respectively.

65. Which of these denotes the time measurement in the m.k.s system?

a) m

b) s

c) k

d) g

Explanation

The m.k.s system is based on metre, kilogram and second as the three basic units for measuring length, mass and time respectively.

66. Which of the following is not a metric system?

a) c.g.s

b) m.k.s

c) f.p.s

d) SI

Explanation

The c.g.s, m.k.s and SI are metric or decimal system of units. The fps system is not a metric system.

67. From which year the common metric system was used by the scientists and engineers?

a) 1935

b) 1956

c) 1960

d) 1982

Explanation

The system of units used by scientists and engineers around the world is commonly called the metric system but, since 1960, it has been known officially as the International System, or SI.

68. Which of this system uses the c.g.s for measurement?

a) The Gaussian system

b) The SI system

c) The British Engineering systems

d) The United States customary systems

Explanation

The c.g.s system is the Gaussian system, which uses centimeter, gram and second as the three basic units for measuring length, mass and time respectively.

69. Which is the common system of units used by the scientists and engineers around the world?

a) International system

b) Metric system

c) Système International

d) All the above

Explanation

The system of units used by scientists and engineers around the world is commonly called the metric system but, since 1960, it has been known officially as the International System, or SI (the abbreviation for its French name, Système International).

70. Which of the following is not an advantage of using a SI system?

a) Uses only one unit for one physical quantity.

b) All the derived units can be easily obtained from basic units.

c) Non-coherent and Non-rational system of units.

d) The multiples and submultiples are expressed as powers of 10.

Explanation

The advantages of the SI system are, this system makes use of only one unit for one physical quantity, which means a rational system of units. In this system, all the derived units can be easily obtained from basic and supplementary units which means it is a coherent system of units. It is a metric system which means that multiples and submultiples can be expressed as powers of 10.

71. What is the value of triple point temperature of water?

a) 233 F

b) 0° K

c) 100° C

d) 273.16K

Explanation

Triple point of water is the temperature at which saturated vapor, pure water and melting ice are all in equilibrium. The triple point temperature of water is 273.16K

72. Which of the following is not a physical quantity?

a) Length

b) Mass

c) Atomic number

d) Energy

Explanation

Quantities that can be measured, and in terms of which, laws of physics are described are called physical quantities. Examples are length, mass, time, force, energy, etc.

73. Which of the following is not a fundamental or base quantity?

a) Mass

b) Time

c) Magnetic Induction

d) Electric Current

Explanation

Fundamental or base quantities are quantities which cannot be expressed in terms of any other physical quantities. These are length, mass, time, electric current, temperature, luminous intensity and amount of substance.

74. Which of this metal is used in the prototype cylinder to define kilogram value?

a) Aluminium

b) Tin

c) Platinum Iridium alloy

d) Copper

Explanation

One kilogram is the mass of the prototype cylinder of platinum iridium alloy (whose height is equal to its diameter), preserved at the International Bureau of Weights and Measures at Serves, near Paris, France. (1901)

75. Which of the following is not an advantage of using a SI system?

a) Uses only one unit for one physical quantity.

b) All the derived units can be easily obtained from basic units.

c) Used for Non-coherent and Non-rational system of units.

d) The multiples and submultiples are expressed as powers of 10.

Explanation

The advantages of the SI system are, this system makes use of only one unit for one physical quantity, which means a rational system of units. In this system, all the derived units can be easily obtained from basic and supplementary units which means it is a coherent system of units. It is a metric system which means that multiples and submultiples can be expressed as powers of 10.

76. What is the fraction value of thermodynamic temperature of water that defines a kelvin?

a) 1/ 273.16

b) 35

c) 273.16

d) 300

Explanation

One kelvin is the fraction 1/273.16 of the thermodynamic temperature of the triple point of the water. (1967)

77. What is the SI unit for defining the Luminous intensity?

a) mg

b) c

c) cd

d) s

Explanation

Luminous intensity, candela (cd) One candela is the luminous intensity in a given direction, of a source that emits monochromatic radiation of frequency 5.4 × 10 ¹⁴ Hz and that has a radiant intensity of 1/683 watt/steradian in that direction. (1979).

78. Which of this expression defines moment of force or torque?

a) Force x Distance

b) Force / Area

c) Force x Time

d) Force / Length

79. Which of this physical quantity is expressed in tesla?

a) Surface Tension

b) Moment of Inertia

c) Magnetic Induction

d) Current Density

80. Identify the Incorrect match.

A. Energy i) N m

B. Impulse ii) N m^-1

C. Current density iii) A m^-2

D. Specific Heat iv) J kg^-1 K^-1

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

81. Which of this constant value defines the energy of photon per frequency?

a) Coulomb’s constant

b) Plank’s constant

c) Gravitational constant

d) Boltzmann constant

Explanation

82. What is the value of one radian value in degrees?

a) 57.27°

b) 180°

c) 360°

d) 60°

Explanation

π radian = 180°

1 radian = ­180°/ π = 57.27°

83. Which of these distances constitutes a macrocosm?

a) Stars

b) Sun

c) Moon

d) All the above

Explanation

The SI unit of length is metre. The objects of our interest vary widely in sizes. For example, large objects like the galaxy, stars, Sun, Earth, Moon etc., and their distances constitute a macrocosm.

84. Choose the correct statements.

i) One radian is the angle subtended at the center of a circle by an arc of equal length of its circumference.

ii) One steradian is the solid angle subtended at the center of the sphere which has equal in area to the square of radius of the sphere.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

The Radian (rad): One radian is the angle subtended at the center of a circle by an arc equal in length to the radius of the circle.

The Steradian (sr): One steradian is the solid angle subtended at the center of a sphere, by that surface of the sphere, which is equal in area, to the square of radius of the sphere.

85. Which of the following distances does not fit into a microcosm?

a) Molecules

b) Bacteria

c) Neutron

d) Human organs

Explanation

On the contrary, objects like molecules, atoms, proton, neutron, electron, bacteria etc., and their distances constitute microcosm, which means a small world in which both objects and distances are small-sized.

86. What is the value one atto in the powers of 10?

a) 10⁶

b) 10^-18

c) 10²¹

d) 10^-6

87. Match

A. exa i) 10^-24

B. yocto ii) 10¹⁵

C. femto iii) 10¹⁸

D. peta iv) 10^-15

a) iii, i, iv, ii

b) iv, i, ii, iii

c) i, iv, ii, iii

d) ii, iv, i, iii

Explanation

Prefixes for Powers of Ten

88. Choose the correct statements about Screw gauge.

i) The basic principle is magnification of linear motion using the circular motion of a screw.

ii) The least count of the screw gauge is 0.01mm

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Screw gauge: The principle of the instrument is the magnification of linear motion using the circular motion of a screw. The least count of the screw gauge is 0.01 mm.

89. What is the maximum measuring value of the screw gauge?

a) 0.50m

b) 50mm

c) 25mm

d) 500m

Explanation

The screw gauge is an instrument used for measuring accurately the dimensions of objects up to a maximum of about 50 mm.

90. What is the least count of the Vernier caliper?

a) 0.01cm

b) 0.01mm

c) 0.1cm

d) 0.001m

Explanation

Vernier caliper: A Vernier caliper is a versatile instrument for measuring the dimensions of an object namely diameter of a hole, or a depth of a hole. The least count of the Vernier caliper is 0.01 cm

91. Which of these methods are used to determine very large distances?

a) Triangulation method

b) Parallax method

c) Radar method

d) All the above

Explanation

For measuring larger distances such as the height of a tree, distance of the Moon or a planet from the Earth, some special methods are adopted. Triangulation method, parallax method and radar method are used to determine very large distances.

92. Which of this distance is measured by the parallax method?

a) Latitude and longitude distances

b) Distance between subatomic particles

c) Distance of a planet from the Earth

d) Half life time of a neutron

Explanation

Very large distances, such as the distance of a planet or a star from the Earth can be measured by the parallax method. Parallax is the name given to the apparent change in the position of an object with respect to the background, when the object is seen from two different positions.

93. Calculate the height of a building from a point on the ground top of the building is seen to have an elevation angle of 60° and the distance between the building and point is 100m?

a) 173.2 m

b) 17.32 m

c) 1.732 m

d) 1732m

Explanation

Solution: Angle θ = 60°, The distance between the tree and a point x = 100 m

Height of the tree (h), for triangulation method tan θ = h/ x

h = x tan θ = 100 × tan 60° = 100 × 1.732. The height of the tree is 173.2 m.

94. Choose the correct statements.

i) RADAR denotes the radio detection and ranging methodology to measure the distance of a nearby planet.

ii) Radio waves are sent from transmitters to the distant planet and the reflection is received by the receiver.

iii) The time interval between the sent and received radio waves is used to find the distance of the planet.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

The word RADAR stands for radio detection and ranging. Radar can be used to measure accurately the distance of a nearby planet such as Mars. In this method, radio waves are sent from transmitters which, after reflection from the planet, are detected by the receiver. By measuring, the time interval (t) between the instants the radio waves are sent and received, the distance of the planet can be determined.

95. Assertion (A): The distance of the Sun from the earth is 10¹¹m.

Reasoning(R): The Moon is located at the distance of 10⁸m from the Earth.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

96. What is the diameter of a Hydrogen atom?

a) 10²¹ m

b) 10^-2m

c) 10^-7m

d) 10^-10m

97. What is the radius of the Earth?

a) 10²⁶ m

b) 10⁷m

c) 10¹⁵m

d) 10¹¹m

98. Identify the Incorrect Match

A. 10^-5 i) Diameter of a red blood cell

B. 10^-12 ii) Length of a virus

C. 10²¹ iii) Size of our galaxy

D. 10^-15 iv) Diameter of a proton

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

Range and Order of Lengths

99. Identify the correct match.

A. Fermi i) 10^-12m

B. Micro ii) 10^-16m

C. Angstrom iii) 10^-11m

D. Nanometer iv) 10^-9m

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

Some Common Practical Units

Fermi = 1 fm = 10^-15m

1 angstrom = 1 Å = 10^-10m

1 nanometer = 1 nm = 10^-9 m

1 micron = 1μm = 10^-6m

100. Choose the incorrect statements.

i) One light year is defined as the distance travelled by light in vacuum in one year.

ii) One parsec is the distance at which an arc of length 1AU subtends an angle of 1 second of arc.

iii) One astronomical unit is the mean distance of the Moon from the Earth.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

1 Light year (Distance travelled by light in vacuum in one year) 1 Light Year = 9.467 × 10¹⁵ m

1 astronomical unit (the mean distance of the Earth from the Sun) 1 AU = 1.496 × 10¹¹ m

1 parsec (Parallactic second) (Distance at which an arc of length 1 AU subtends an angle of 1 second of arc)

1 parsec = 3.08 × 10¹⁶ m =3.26 light year

101. Which is the largest practical unit?

a) Astronomical unit

b) Chandrasekhar Limit

c) Light year

d) Parsec

Explanation

Chandrasekhar Limit (CSL) is the largest practical unit of mass.

1 CSL = 1.4 times the mass of the Sun

102. What is the value of the smallest practical unit?

a) 10^-2s

b) 10^-34g

c) 10^-8s

d) 10^-10m

Explanation

The smallest practical unit of time is Shake. One Shake = 10^-8 s

103. Which of the following statement is not true regarding the concept of Mass?

a) It is defined as the quantity of matter contained in a body.

b) The SI unit of mass is kilogram (kg).

c) Mass is a property of matter.

d) Mass value depends on the temperature and pressure variations of the body.

Explanation

Mass is a property of matter. It does not depend on temperature, pressure and location of the body in space. Mass of a body is defined as the quantity of matter contained in a body. The SI unit of mass is kilogram (kg). The masses of objects which we shall study in this course vary over a wide range.

104. Which of these has an order of mass as 10² in kg?

a) Frog

b) Human

c) Ship

d) A cell

Explanation

105. Which of these is used to measure the small masses of atomic/ subatomic particles?

a) Mass Spectrograph

b) Spring Balance

c) Electronic Balance

d) All the above

Explanation

For measurement of small masses of atomic/subatomic particles etc., we make use of a mass spectrograph. Some of the weighing balances commonly used are common balance, spring balance, electronic balance, etc.

106. Which of this atom is considered for the atomic standard of time?

a) Tungsten

b) Titanium

c) Cesium

d) Carbon

Explanation

A clock is used to measure the time interval. An atomic standard of time is based on the periodic vibration produced in a Cesium atom. Some of the clocks developed later are electric oscillators, electronic oscillators, solar clock, quartz crystal clock, atomic clock, decay of elementary particles, radioactive dating etc.

107. Match

A. Wink of eye i) 10¹⁷s

B. Period of X-rays ii) 10^-1s

C. Age of Universe iii) 10⁴s

D. Time period of a satellite iv) 10^-19s

a) iii, i, ii, iv

b) ii, iv, i, iii

c) ii, i, iv, iii

d) i, iv, ii, iii

108. What is the time period of a satellite?

a) 10⁹

b) 10¹²

c) 10⁴

d) 10¹⁷

109. Which of these events has a value of 10⁰?

a) Wink of an eye

b) Time interval between two successful heart beats

c) Travel time of light from Sun to earth

d) Lifespan of most unstable particle

Explanation

110. Which of this organization in India is responsible for maintenance and improvement of physical standards?

a) The National Physical Laboratory

b) Indian Physical Society

c) National Informatics Center

d) Center for Development of Advanced Computing

Explanation

In India, the National Physical Laboratory (New Delhi) has the responsibility of maintenance and improvement of physical standards of length, mass, time, etc.

111. Which of the following factor is not related to systematic error?

a) Reproducible

b) Same direction errors

c) Average value of independent errors.

d) Persists throughout the experiment.

Explanation

Systematic errors: Systematic errors are reproducible inaccuracies that are consistently in the same direction. These occur often due to a problem that persists throughout the experiment.

112. Which of these are the systematic errors?

a) Instrumental error

b) Random error

c) Least count error

d) Personal error

Explanation

Systematic errors can be classified as follows, Instrumental error, Imperfections in experimental technique or procedure, Personal errors, Errors due to external causes, Least count error.

113. Which of these variations will effect in random errors?

a) Pressure

b) Temperature

c) Voltage supply

d) All the above

Explanation

Random errors may arise due to random and unpredictable variations in experimental conditions like pressure, temperature, voltage supply etc.

114. What is the other name for the random errors?

a) Precise error

b) Absolute error

c) Chance error

d) Average error

Explanation

Errors may also be due to personal errors by the observer who performs the experiment. Random errors are sometimes called “chance error”.

115. What are the sources of gross error?

a) Carelessness of observer.

b) Taking observations without the sources of errors and precautions.

c) Recording wrong observations and using wrong values in calculations.

d) All the above

Explanation

Gross Error: The error caused due to the shear carelessness of an observer is called gross error. For example, Reading an instrument without setting it properly. Taking observations in a wrong manner without bothering about the sources of errors and the precautions. Recording wrong observations. Using wrong values of the observations in calculations.

116. Choose the correct statements about the systematic error.

i) Easily detected and analyzed by the statistical methods.

ii) All the data is in the same direction either too high or too low.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Systematic error: Systematic errors are difficult to detect and cannot be analyzed statistically, because all of the data is in the same direction. (Either too high or too low)

117. Which is called as the arithmetic mean of absolute errors in all the measurements?

a) Mean absolute error

b) Mean value

c) Total error value

d) Relative error

Explanation

Mean Absolute error: The arithmetic mean of absolute errors in all the measurements is called the mean absolute error.

118. What is the range of the quantity if the true value is a_m and the mean absolute error is Δa_m?

a) a_m + Δa_m

b) a_m + Δa_m

c) a_m + Δa_m to a_m – Δa_m

d) a_m / Δa_m

Explanation

If am is the true value and Δa_m is the mean absolute error then the magnitude of the quantity may lie between a_m + Δa_m and a_m – Δa_m

119. What is the value of the relative error?

a) Mean absolute error / Mean value

b) Total error / Number of measurements

c) Number of error value / Mean value

d) Number of measurements * Total error value

Explanation

Relative error: The ratio of the mean absolute error to the mean value is called relative error. This is also called as fractional error. Thus Relative error=Mean absolute error / Mean value

120. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Relative error expressed as a percentage is called as percentage error.

ii) A percentage error close to infinity is good and acceptable.

iii) The error may be due to impression of equipment or an experimentation mistake.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Percentage error: The relative error expressed as a percentage is called percentage error. Percentage error = Δam/am×100% . A percentage error very close to zero means one is close to the targeted value, which is good and acceptable. It is always necessary to understand whether error is due to impression of equipment used or a mistake in the experimentation.

121. Which of these factors are combined for accurate calculation of an experiment?

a) Errors in individual measurements.

b) Nature of mathematical operations.

c) Collective measurement of various quantities.

d) All the above

Explanation

A number of measured quantities may be involved in the final calculation of an experiment. Different types of instruments might have been used for taking readings. Then we may have to look at the errors in measuring various quantities, collectively. The error in the final result depends on the errors in the individual measurements and on the nature of mathematical operations performed to get the final result. So we should know the rules to combine the errors

122. Calculate the error percentage for the physical quantity x= a² b⁵ /⎷cd, if the percentage error in measurement of a, b, c, d are 4%, 7%, 2% and 0.5%?

a) 13%

b) 8.5%

c) 5%

d) 2.5%

Explanation

123. State the number of significant figures for the value 6.73x 10⁵

a) 3

b) 5

c) 4

d) 2

Explanation

The number of meaningful digits which contain numbers that are known reliably and first uncertain number.

124. Which of the following is not an independent base physical quantity?

a) M

b) S

c) L

d) T

Explanation

In mechanics, we deal with the physical quantities like mass, time, length, velocity, acceleration, etc. which can be expressed in terms of three independent base quantities such as M, L and T. So, the dimension of a physical quantity can be defined as ‘any physical quantity which is expressed in terms of base quantities whose exponent (power) represents the dimension of the physical quantity.

125. Which of this quantity has the dimensional formula as LT^-2?

a) Volume

b) Density

c) Force

d) Acceleration

Explanation

126. Match the following.

A. Dimensional Constant i) Refractive index

B. Dimensionless Variables ii) Acceleration

C. Dimensionless Constant iii) Gravitational constant

D. Dimensional Variables iv) Euler’s number

a) iii, i, iv, ii

b) ii, i, iv, iii

c) iv, iii, ii, i

d) iii, ii, i, iv

Explanation

On the basis of dimension, we can classify quantities into four categories.

Dimensional variables: Physical quantities, which possess dimensions and have variable values, are called dimensional variables. Examples are length, velocity, and acceleration.

Dimensionless variables: Physical quantities which have no dimensions, but have variable values are called dimensionless variables. Examples are specific gravity, strain, refractive index etc.

Dimensional Constant: Physical quantities which possess dimensions and have constant values are called dimensional constants. Examples are Gravitational constant, Planck’s constant etc.

Dimensionless Constant: Quantities which have constant values and also have no dimensions are called dimensionless constants. Examples are π, e (Euler’s number), numbers etc.

127. Which of these is not an application of the method of dimensional analysis?

a) Convert a physical quantity from one system of units to another.

b) Convert a vector quantity to scalar.

c) Establish relations among various physical quantities.

d) Check the dimensional correctness of a physical equation.

Explanation

Application of the Method of Dimensional Analysis method is used to convert a physical quantity from one system of units to another. Check the dimensional correctness of a given physical equation. Establish relations among various physical quantities.

11th Science Lesson 2 Questions in English

2] Trends in Economic Zoology

1. Match the following

1. Physiologists 1. Focus on the early developmental stages of animal life
2. Taxonomists 2. Study the metabolic processes of animals
3. Embryologist 3. Deal with the naming and the classification of animal species
4. 2, 1, 3
5. 2, 3, 1
6. 3, 2, 1
7. 1, 3, 2

Explanation

Zoology, there are several specializations that the students can venture into.  There are physiologists, who study the metabolic processes of animals; there are taxonomists who deal with the naming and the classification of animal species; embryologist whose job is to study and focus on the early developmental stages of animal life.

2. Based on economic importance animals can be categorized into____ types

1. 3
2. 4
3. 1
4. 2

Explanation

Based on the economic importance, animals can be categorized into four types:

• Animals for food and food products
• Economically beneficial animals
• Animals of aesthetic importance
• Animals for scientific research.

3. _____ is the process of using earthworms to decompose organic food waste

1. Sericulture
2. Vermiculture
3. Apiculture
4. Epiculture

Explanation

Vermiculture is the process of using earthworms to decompose organic food waste, into a nutrient-rich material capable of supplying necessary nutrients which helps to sustain plant growth.

4. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The aim of vermiculture is to continually increase the number of worms to have a sustainable harvest
2. The excess worms can either be used to expand a vermicomposting operation or sold to customers.
3. Vermicompost is the secondary goal of vermiculture
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The aim is to continually increase the number of worms to have a sustainable harvest. The excess worms can either be used to expand a vermicomposting operation or sold to customers. Vermicompost is the primary goal of vermiculture.

5. Applications of earthworm in technology of composting and bioremediation of soils is called____

1. Vermicompost
2. Vermitech
3. Vermiculture
4. Vermiore

Explanation

Vermicompost on the other hand, is comprised of the castings, bits of bedding and other organic matter. Applications of earthworm in technology of composting and bioremediation of soils and other activities is called Vermitech.

6. Which of the following are called “farmer’s friends”?

1. Yeast
2. Earthworms
3. Bacteria
4. Fungi

Explanation

Earthworms play a vital role in maintaining soil fertility; hence these worms are called as “farmer’s friends”. These are also called as “biological indicators of soil fertility”.

7. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The disposal of solid wastes remains a serious challenge in most of the countries.
2. The support bacteria, fungi, protozoans and a host of other organisms which are essential for sustaining a healthy soil
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The reason is that they support bacteria, fungi, protozoans and a host of other organisms which are essential for sustaining a healthy soil. The disposal of solid wastes (biodegradable and non- biodegradable) remains a serious challenge in most of the countries.

8. Earthworms are divided into__ major groups.

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Explanation

Earthworms are divided into two major groups. The breakdown of organic matter by the activity of the earthworms and its elimination from its body is called vermicast.

9. Which of the following statement about earthworm is incorrect?

1. The first group of earthworms are the humus formers, dwell on the surface and feed on organic matter
2. The second group of earthworms are humus feeders, are burrowing worms that are useful in making the soil porous
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Earthworms are divided into two major groups. The first group, the humus formers, dwell on the surface and feed on organic matter. They are generally darker in colour. These worms are used for vermicomposting. The second group, the humus feeders, are burrowing worms that are useful in making the soil porous.

10. Which of the following are exotic earthworm species in India?

1. Periyonyx excavates
2. Eisenia fetida
3. Eudrilus eugeniae
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

There are different endemic (native) species of earthworms cultured in India for vermicomposting such as Periyonyx excavatus, Lampito mauritii, Octochaetona serrata. Some earthworm species have been introduced from other countries and called as exotic species Eg. Eisenia fetida, Eudrilus eugeniae.

11. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Earthworms release their castings on the surface.
2. It may take several days for the entire biomass to be composted depending on the amount of biomass.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Earthworms release their castings on the surface. One can start harvesting this from the surface on noticing the castings on the surface. It may take several days for the entire biomass to be composted depending on the amount of biomass.

12. Which of the following are the enemies of Earthworm?

1. Springtails
2. Centipedes
3. Ants
4. Mites
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 1, 3, 4
7. 2, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Earthworm enemies include ants, springtails, centipedes, slugs, mites, certain beetle larvae, birds, rats, snakes, mice, toads, and other insects or animals which feed on worms.

13. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Earthworms are subjected to attack by a variety of pests.
2. Most outbreaks are the result of poor bed management
3. The earthworm has a number of internal parasites including numerous protozoa, some nematodes, and the larvae of certain flies
4. 1, 3
5. 1, 2
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Earthworms are subjected to attack by a variety of pests. Most outbreaks are the result of poor bed management. The earthworm has a number of internal parasites including numerous protozoa, some nematodes, and the larvae of certain flies. Larger predators can be excluded from worm beds by proper construction of the bins, and by use of screens or gratings at the bottom and top of the beds.

14. Which of the following are the advantages of vermicompost?

1. Vermicompost is rich in essential plant nutrients
2. Vermicompost are against pests
3. Vermicompost is a rich in nutrients and an eco-friendly amendment to soil for farming and terrace gardening
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Marketing of vermicompost can provide a supplementary income.

• Vermicompost is rich in essential plant nutrients.
• It improves soil structure texture, aeration, and water holding capacity and prevents soil erosion
• Vermicompost is a rich in nutrients and an eco-friendly amendment to soil for farming and terrace gardening.
• It enhances seed germination and ensures good plant growth

15. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Being Non-biodegradable and self-sustaining material; silk has assumed special relevance in present age
2. Historical evidence reveals that sericulture was long back practised in china
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Being eco-friendly, biodegradable and self-sustaining material; silk has assumed special relevance in present age. Historical evidence reveals that sericulture was practiced in China long back.

16. Which of the following is/are commercial fibre of animal origin?

1. Cotton
2. Wool
3. Silk
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Silk is Nature’s gift to mankind and a commercial fibre of animal origin other than wool. Cotton and Jute are plant based commercial origin.

17. Rearing of silk is known as______

1. Sericulture
2. Vermiculture
3. Apiculture
4. Epiculture

Explanation

Silk has assumed special relevance in present age. Sericulture is an agro –based industry, the term which denotes commercial production of silk through silkworm rearing.

18. Which country have monopolized silk trade by maintaining secret for more than 3000 years?

1. India
2. China
3. Pakistan
4. Thailand

Explanation

Historical evidence reveals that sericulture was practiced in China long back and they preserved the secret for more than 3000 years and maintained monopoly in silk trade with the rest of the world.

19. Mulberry cultivation in India spread from china through_____

1. Burma
2. Tibet
3. Tashkent
4. Nepal

Explanation

According to Western historians, mulberry cultivation spread to India about 140BC from China through Tibet. The fabulous silk from China and India were carried to European countries.

20. Silk road is about_____ miles

1. 3000
2. 8000
3. 7000
4. 2000

Explanation

The 7000 miles lengthy road, historically called the “Silk road” passing through Baghdad, Tashkent, Damascus and Istanbul was used for silk transport.

21. ________ country stands 1^st in silk production

1. Pakistan
2. Sri Lanka
3. India
4. China

Explanation

Today more than 29 countries in the world are practicing sericulture and producing different kinds of silk. India stands second in silk production next to China.

22. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Production of silk from the silk worm, by rearing practices on a commercial scale is called sericulture
2. It is an agro-based industry comprising three main components
3. All species of silkworms are used in the sericulture industry
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Production of silk from the silk worm, by rearing practices on a commercial scale is called sericulture. It is an agro-based industry comprising three main components: i) cultivation of food plants for the silkworms, ii) rearing of silkworms, and iii) reeling and spinning of silk. The first two are agricultural and the last one is an industrial component. Only few species of silkworms are used in the sericulture industry.

23. The adult of Bombyx mori is about ___cm in length

1. 2
2. 2.5
3. 1.5
4. 1

Explanation

The adult of Bombyx mori is about 2.5 cm in length and pale creamy white in colour. Due to heavy body and feeble wings, flight is not possible by the female moth.

24. Match the following

1. Bombyx mori 1. Eri Silk
2. Antheraea assamensis 2. Mulberry Silk
3. Antheraea mylitta 3. Tassar Silk
4. Attacus ricini 4. Muga Silk
5. 1, 3, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 1, 4
7. 2, 4, 3, 1
8. 3, 2, 4, 1

25. Which type of silk is majorly produced in the state of Tamil Nadu?

a) Tassar Silk

b) Mulberry Silk

c) Eri Silk

d) Muga Silk

Explanation

26. A single female moth lays_____ eggs

1. 200 to 300
2. 400 to 500
3. 500 to 600
4. 100 to 200

Explanation

Just after copulation, female starts egg laying which is completed in1-24 hours. A single female moth lays 400 to 500 eggs depending upon the climatic conditions.

27. Which of the following statement about Bombyx mori is correct?

1. Two types of eggs are generally found namely diapause type and non-diapause type
2. The diapause type is laid by silkworms inhabiting the tropical regions, whereas silkworms belonging to subtropical regions like India lay non-diapause type of eggs
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Two types of eggs are generally found namely diapause type and non-diapause type. The diapause type is laid by silkworms inhabiting the temperate regions, whereas silkworms belonging to subtropical regions like India lay non-diapause type of eggs.

28. The eggs after____ days of incubation hatch into caterpillar

1. 20
2. 10
3. 15
4. 13

Explanation

The eggs after ten days of incubation hatch into larva called as caterpillar. The newly hatched caterpillar is about 3 mm in length and is pale, yellowish-white in colour.

29. The caterpillars feed easily on____ leaves

1. Mulberry
2. Neem
3. Mango
4. Banyan

Explanation

The newly hatched caterpillar is about 3 mm in length and is pale, yellowish-white in colour. The caterpillars are provided with well-developed mandibulate type of mouth-parts adapted to feed easily on the mulberry leaves.

30. The fully grown caterpillar is____ cm in length

1. 10
2. 15
3. 7.5
4. 4.5

Explanation

After 1st, 2nd, 3rd and 4th moultings caterpillars get transformed into 2nd, 3rd, 4th and 5th instars respectively It takes about 21 to 25 days after hatching. The fully grown caterpillar is 7.5 cm in length.

31. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. The fully grown caterpillar develops salivary glands, stops feeding and undergoes pupation.
2. The secreted fluid comes out through spinneret and takes the form of long fine thread of silk which hardens on exposure to air and is wrapped around the body of caterpillar in the forms of a covering called as cocoon
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The fully grown caterpillars stop feeding and move towards the corner among the leaves and secretes a sticky fluid through their silk gland. The secreted fluid comes out through spinneret (a narrow pore situated on the hypopharynx) and takes the form of long fine thread of silk which hardens on exposure to air and is wrapped around the body of caterpillar in the forms of a covering called as cocoon.

32. The length of continuous thread secreted by caterpillar for the formation of cocoon is about___ m

1. 1000 to 2000
2. 1000 to 1200
3. 1500 to 3000
4. 2000 to 3000

Explanation

The length of continuous thread secreted by a caterpillar for the formation of cocoon is about 1000-1200 metres which requires 3 days to complete. The pupal period lasts for 10 to 12 days and the pupae cut through the cocoon and emerge into adult moth.

33. Which country has the distinction of producing all the four types of silk?

1. China
2. India
3. Bangladesh
4. Myanmar

Explanation

34. The cultivation of mulberry is called as_____

1. Apiculture
2. Sericulture
3. Moriculture
4. Apiculture

Explanation

The first component, is to grow the food plants for the silkworms. Mulberry leaves are widely used as food for silkworm Bombyx mori and the cultivation of mulberry is called as Moriculture.

35. The not favourable season for cultivating of the mulberry plants is____

1. July
2. November
3. February
4. December

Explanation

Presently improved mulberry varieties like Victory1, S36, G2 and G4 which can withstand various agro – climatic and soil conditions are used for planting. The favourable season for cultivating of the mulberry plants is June, July, November and December.

36. Which of the following are included in mulberry crop production technology?

1. Land preparation
2. Preparation of cutting
3. Maintenance of mulberry nursery
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The mulberry crop production technology includes land preparation, preparation of cutting, planting techniques, maintenance of mulberry nursery, disease and pest management and uprooting for raising new mulberry gardens.

37. After how many days salivary glands (silk glands) starts secreting silk to spin cocoons?

1. 30
2. 45
3. 60
4. 70

Explanation

The small larvae (caterpillars) hatch between 7-10 days. These larvae are kept in trays inside a rearing house at a temperature of about 20°C – 25°C. These are first fed on chopped mulberry leaves. After 4-5 days fresh leaves are provided. As the larvae grow, they are transferred to fresh leaves on clean trays, when fully grown they spin cocoons. Their maturity is achieved in about 45 days. At this stage the salivary glands (silk glands) starts secreting silk to spin cocoons

38. How many processes are included in Post cocoon processing?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 5

Explanation

The method of obtaining silk thread from the cocoon is known as post cocoon processing. This includes stifling and reeling.

39. The process of removing the threads from the killed cocoon is called______

1. Stifling
2. Reeling
3. Rearing
4. Trimming

Explanation

The process of killing the cocoons is called stifling. The process of removing the threads from the killed cocoon is called reeling. For reeling silk the cocoons are gathered about 8 -10 days after spinning had begun.

40. The Institute of Materials Research and Engineering (IMRE) is located in_____

1. India
2. Singapore
3. Malaysia
4. China

Explanation

New silkworm diet produces coloured silk. The Institute of Materials Research and Engineering (IMRE) in Singapore has developed a way to replace the traditional dying process necessary to make coloured silk.

41. Which of the following are the uses of Silk?

1. Silk is dyed and printed to prepare ornamented fabrics
2. Silk is used in industries and for military purposes
3. It is used in the manufacture of fishing fibres, parachutes, cartridge bags, insulation coils for telephone
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Silk fibres are utilized in preparing silk clothes. Silk fibres are now combined with other natural or synthetic fibres to manufacture clothes like Teri-Silk, Cot-Silk etc. Silk is dyed and printed to prepare ornamented fabrics. They are generally made from Eri-silk or spun silk. Silk is used in industries and for military purposes. It is used in the manufacture of fishing fibres, parachutes, cartridge bags, insulation coils for telephone, wireless receivers, tyres of racing cars, filter fibres, in medical dressings and as suture materials.

42 . Which of the following threatens profitable silk industry?

1. Virus
2. Bacteria
3. Crows
4. Protozoan
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

The profitable silk industry is threatened by various diseases caused by the virus, fungal, bacterial and protozoan infections but also by insect predators, birds and other higher animals. Ants, crows, kites, rats, feed upon silk worms thereby causing a great loss to silk industry.

43. Pebrine a dangerous disease to in silkworms is called by___

1. Nosema bombycis
2. Nosema mori
3. Nosema oslo
4. Bombyx mori

Explanation

Pebrine, is a dangerous disease to in silkworms and the causative organism is Nosema bombycis, a protozoan. This silkworm disease is transmitted through the egg of the mother silkworm and also through ingestion of contaminated food.

44. Rearing of Honey is known as_____

1. Apiculture
2. Sericulture
3. Moriculture
4. Apiculture

Explanation

Care and management of honey bees on a commercial scale for the production of honey is called Apiculture or Bee Keeping. The word ‘apiculture’ comes from the Latin word ’apis’ meaning bee.

45. Match the following

1. Apis dorsata 1. African bee
2. Apis florea 2. Little bee
3. Apis indica 3. Rock bee
4. Apis adamsoni 4. Indian bee
5. 2, 1, 3, 4
6. 3, 2, 4, 1
7. 2, 1, 3, 4
8. 4, 2, 3, 1

Explanation

There are five well recognized types of bees in the world. They are Apis dorsata (Rock bee), Apis florea (Little bee), Apis indica (Indian bee), Apis mellifera (European bee) and Apis adamsoni (African bee).

46. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. In honey bees, a highly organized division of labour is found.
2. A well- developed honey bee colony consists of the Queen, Drones and Workers
3. There is normally one queen, 10,000 to 30,000 workers
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

In honey bees, a highly organized division of labour is found. A well-developed honey bee colony consists of the Queen, Drones and Workers. All the three types depend on each other for their existence. There is normally one queen, 10,000 to 30,000 workers and few hundred drones (male bees) in a colony.

47. __________ is a functional female bee present in each hive and feeds on Royal Jelly

1. Drone
2. Worker
3. Queen
4. All the above

Explanation

Queen bee is a functional female bee present in each hive and feeds on Royal Jelly. Its sole function is to lay eggs throughout its life span. The virgin queen bee mates only once in her life.

48. The mating season of queen bee is______

1. Summer
2. Winter
3. Spring
4. Autumn

Explanation

During the breeding season in winter, a unique flight takes place by the queen bee followed by several drones. This flight is called “nuptial flight”.

49. The queen bee produces a hormonal chemical substance called______

1. Ergoneme
2. Pheromone
3. Estrogen
4. Progesterone

Explanation

The queen bee produces a hormonal chemical substance called pheromone. The drones in the area are attracted to the pheromone and mating takes place.

50. In a life span of two to four years, a queen bee lays about_____ eggs.

1. 15 lakhs
2. 10 lakhs
3. 20 lakhs
4. 3 lakhs

Explanation

In a life span of two to four years, a queen bee lays about 15 lakh eggs. When the queen bee loses its capacity to lay eggs, another worker bee starts feeding on the Royal Jelly and develops into a new queen.

51. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Among the honey bees, workers are sterile females and smallest
2. Worker bee lives in a chamber called ‘Worker Cell’ and it takes about 21 days to develop from the egg to adult
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Among the honey bees, workers are sterile females and smallest but yet function as the main spring of the complicated machinery in the colony. Worker bee lives in a chamber called ‘Worker Cell’ and it takes about 21 days to develop from the egg to adult and its lifespan is about six weeks.

52. Which of following enzyme transform into honey?

1. Invertase
2. Zymase
3. Peptase
4. Peptin

Explanation

Honey bee uses its long-tube like tongue to extract sugary liquid called nectar from the flowers. The nectar is stored in the stomach and the enzyme invertase transforms it into honey.

53. ______ is the functional male member of the colony which develops from an unfertilized egg

1. Queen
2. King
3. Drone
4. Worker

Explanation

The drone is the functional male member of the colony which develops from an unfertilized egg. It lives in a chamber called drone cell. Drones totally depend on workers for honey.

54._____ is called as called “King of the colony”

1. Queen
2. Drone
3. Worker
4. All the above

Explanation

The sole duty of the drone is to fertilize the virgin queen hence called “King of the colony”. During swarming (the process of leaving the colony by the queen with a large group of worker bees to form a new colony) the drones follow the queen, copulates and dies after copulation.

55. The house of honey bee is termed as___

1. Comb
2. Valet
3. Hive
4. Either a or b

Explanation

The house of honey bee is termed as bee hive or comb. The hive consists of hexagonal cells made up of wax secreted by the abdomen of worker bees arranged in opposite rows on a common base.

56. How many methods of Apiculture are there?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 5
4. 4

Explanation

The main objective is to get more and more quality honey. There are two methods used by apiculturists. They are indigenous method and the modern method.

57. How many types of brood cells are there in Apis dorsata?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 5
4. 3

Explanation

In Apis dorsata, the brood cells are of similar in size and shape but in other species, brood cells are of three types viz., queen cell for queens, worker cell for workers and drone cells for drones.

58. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. A single honey bee travels about double the distance of the circumference of the earth’s globe for preparing 453.5ml of honey
2. Bees teach us a lesson to work with cooperation
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Bees teach us a lesson to work with cooperation. Imagine the hard-work of the bees! A single honey bee travels about double the distance of the circumference of the earth’s globe for preparing 453.5ml of honey.

59. Bee wax is secreted by____ of the worker bees

1. Neck
2. Sting
3. Abdomen
4. Anus

Explanation

Bee wax is secreted by the abdomen of the worker bees at the age of two weeks. The wax is masticated and mixed with the secretions of the cephalic glands to convert it into a plastic resinous substance

60. Which of the following are major constituents of honey?

1. Dextrose
2. Levulose
3. Maltose
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Honey is the healthier substitute for sugar. The major constituents of honey are: levulose, dextrose, maltose, other sugars, enzymes, pigments, ash and water.

61. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Honey is an aromatic sweet material derived from nectar of plants
2. It is used as an antiseptic, laxative and as a sedative.
3. It is generally used in Ayurvedic and Unani systems of medicine.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Honey is an aromatic sweet material derived from nectar of plants. It is a natural food, the smell and taste depend upon the pollen taken by the honey bee. It is used as an antiseptic, laxative and as a sedative. It is generally used in Ayurvedic and Unani systems of medicine. It is also used in the preparation of cakes, breads and biscuits.

62. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The pure wax is white in colour and the brown colour is due to the presence of carotenoid pigments
2. It is used for making candles, water proofing materials, polishes for floors, furniture, appliances, leather and taps
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The resinous chemical substance present in the wax is called propolis which is derived from pollen grains. The pure wax is white in colour and the yellow colour is due to the presence of carotenoid pigments. It is used for making candles, water proofing materials, polishes for floors, furniture, appliances, leather and taps.

63. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The culture of lac insect using techniques for the procurement of lac on large scale is known as Lac culture
2. Lac is produced by the lac insect Tachardia lacca previously known as Laccifer lacca.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The culture of lac insect using techniques for the procurement of lac on large scale is known as Lac culture. Lac is produced by the lac insect Tachardia lacca previously known as Laccifer lacca. It is a minute, resinous crawling scale insect which inserts its probosics into the plant tissues and sucks juice, grows and secretes lac from the hind end of the body as a protective covering for its body.

64. Match the following

1. Karanagalli 1. Schleichera oleosa
2. Karuvelai 2. Acacia catechu
3. Kumbadiri 3. Acacia nilotica
4. 2, 1, 3
5. 2, 3, 1
6. 3, 1, 2
7. 1, 3, 2

Explanation

The insect is a parasite on host plants i.e., Karanagalli (Acacia catechu), Karuvelai (Acacia nilotica) and Kumbadiri (Schleichera oleosa). The quality of lac depends upon the quality of the host plant. The female lac insect is responsible for large scale production of lac, which is larger than the male lac insect.

65. The female lac lays______ eggs

1. 200 to 500
2. 200 to 1500
3. 400 to 500
4. 200 to 250

Explanation

After copulation, the male insect dies. The female develops very rapidly after fertilization and lays about 200 to 500 eggs

66. Lac eggs hatch into larvae after_____

1. 6 days
2. 6 weeks
3. 12 days
4. 12 weeks

Explanation

The female lac insect is responsible for large scale production of lac, which is larger than the male lac insect. Eggs hatch into larvae after six weeks.

67. The mass emergence of larvae from the egg in search of a host plant is called_______

1. Stifling
2. Reeling
3. Rearing
4. Swarming

Explanation

The mass emergence of larvae from the egg in search of a host plant is called ‘swarming’. After settling on the host, the larvae start feeding continuously and the secretion of lac also starts simultaneously. Gradually the larvae become fully covered by lac.

68. A condition in which a secondary parasite develops within a previously existing parasite is called_________

1. Hypo-parasite
2. Hyperparasite
3. Saprophyte
4. Endophyte

Explanation

Hyperparasitism – A condition in which a secondary parasite develops within a previously existing parasite or a hyperparasite is the parasite whose host is also a parasite.

69. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Lac cultivation is an easy process
2. The process of introducing lac insect on the host plant is called inoculation
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Lac cultivation is a complicated process, so the cultivators should know well about the inoculation, swarming period and harvesting of lac. The process of introducing lac insect on the host plant is called inoculation.

70. Lac cut from the host plant is called_____ lac

1. Silk
2. Stick
3. Ari
4. None

Explanation

Lac cut from the host plant is called ‘Stick lac’. The lac present on the twig is scraped and collected. After grinding, the unnecessary materials like dusts and fine particles are removed.

71. Immature harvesting produces_______ lac

1. Silk
2. Stick
3. Ari
4. Seed

Explanation

The collection of lac from the host plant is known as harvesting. Harvesting may be done before swarming (immature) or after swarming (mature). Immature harvesting produces ‘Ari lac’

72. The seed lac is sun dried and then melted to produce______

1. Cerrlock
2. Shellac
3. Creming
4. Sering

Explanation

The lac present on the twig is scraped and collected. After grinding, the unnecessary materials like dusts and fine particles are removed. The resultant lac is called ‘seed lac’. The seed lac is sun dried and then melted to produce ‘shellac’.

73. Lac is_____ and____

1. Cohesive and good insulator
2. Adhesive and bad insulator
3. Cohesive and bad insulator
4. Adhesive and good insulator

Explanation

Lac is largely used as a sealing wax and adhesive for optical instruments. It is used in electric industry, as it is a good insulator.

74. Which of the following are the economic importance of lac?

1. It is used in laminating paper board
2. It is used in preparations of shoe and leather polishes
3. Used as a filling material for gold ornaments
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Economic importance of Lac:

• It is used in preparations of shoe and leather polishes and as a protective coating of wood.
• It is used in laminating paper board, photographs, engraved materials and plastic moulded articles.
• Used as a filling material for gold ornaments

75. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Aquaponics is a technique which is a combination of aquaculture and hydroponics
2. It also maintains ecosystem balance by recycling the waste and excretory products produced by the fish
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Aquaponics is a technique which is a combination of aquaculture (growing fish) and hydroponics (growing plants in non-soil media and nutrient-laden water). Aquaponics may also prevent toxic water runoff. It also maintains ecosystem balance by recycling the waste and excretory products produced by the fish.

76. In India, aquaponics was started in_______

1. 2015
2. 2013
3. 2020
4. 2021

Explanation

In India, aquaponics was started in 2013. Some primary methods of aquaponic gardening that are in use nowadays are as follows: Deep water culture, Media based method, Nutrient Film technique, Aqua vertica.

77. Match the following

1. Deep water culture 1. Vertical aquaponics
2. Media based method 2. Growing plants in inert planting media
3. Nutrient Film technique 3. Raft based method.
4. Aqua vertica 4. Plants are kept in the holes of the pipe
5. 2, 1, 3, 4
6. 3, 2, 4, 1
7. 3, 1, 4, 2
8. 4, 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Deep water culture is otherwise known as raft-based method. Media based method involves growing plants in inert planting media like clay pellets or shales. Nutrient Film technique involves the passage of nutrient rich water through a narrow trough or PVC pipe. Aqua vertica is otherwise known as vertical aquaponics.

78. Which of the following are the cultivable fishes in Aquaponics?

1. Tilapia
2. Koi
3. Bass
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Cultivable fishes like tilapia, trout, koi, gold fish, bass etc., are cultured in aquaponics. Common cultivable plants like tomato, pepper, lettuce, cucumber, and rose are co-cultivated in this method.

79. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Aquaculture has been practiced in varying forms for centuries dating to the time of the Phoenicians
2. India offers a huge potential for aquaculture development.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Aquaculture has been practiced in varying forms for centuries dating to the time of the Phoenicians. India offers a huge potential for aquaculture development.

80. Fish culture received notable attention in Tamil Nadu in_____

1. 1999
2. 1911
3. 1923
4. 1991

Explanation

Fish culture received notable attention in Tamil Nadu in 1911. Aquaculture is a branch of science that deals with the farming of aquatic organisms such as fish, molluscs, crustaceans and aquatic plants.

81. On the basis of source, aquaculture can be classified into_____ categories

1. 2
2. 4
3. 3
4. 5

Explanation

On the basis of source, aquaculture can be classified into three categories. They are (a) Freshwater aquaculture (b) Brackish water aquaculture (c) Marine water aquaculture.

82. Culturing of fishes is called______

1. Aquaculture
2. Pisciculture
3. Fishiculture
4. Ponoculture

Explanation

Culturing of fishes is called fish culture or pisciculture. Inland water bodies include freshwater bodies like rivers, canals, streams, lakes, flood plain wetlands, reservoirs, ponds, tanks and other derelict water bodies and ponds constructed for fresh water aquaculture.

83. The pH of the freshwater should be around neutral and salinity below_____ ppt

1. 7
2. 5
3. 9
4. 1

Explanation

The pH of the freshwater should be around neutral and salinity below 5 ppt (parts per thousand).

84. Brackish water fishes spend most of its life in________

1. Estuaries
2. Mangrove swamps
3. Lagoons
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Brackish water fishes spend most of its life in river mouths (estuaries) back waters, mangrove swamps and coastal lagoons.

85. Estuarine fish are more common in____

1. Kerala
2. Karnataka
3. Bengal
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Estuarine fish are more common in Bengal and Kerala. Culturing of animals in the water having salinity range 0.5-30 ppt are called as brackish water culture.

86. Match the following

1. Milk fish 1. Madavai
2. Sea bass 2. Chanos Chanos
3. Grey mullet 3. Koduva
4. Pearl spots 4. Karimeen
5. 2, 1, 3, 4
6. 2, 3, 1, 4
7. 3, 1, 2, 4
8. 4, 3, 1, 2

Explanation

Fishes cultured in brackish water are Milk fish (Chanos Chanos), Sea bass (‘Koduva’), Grey mullet (‘Madavai’), Pearl spots (‘Kari’meen) etc,

87. The Indian subcontinent approximately has a___ kms long coastline

1. 6500
2. 5600
3. 4500
4. 3500

Explanation

Marine Fisheries deal with fishing operations along seacoasts. The Indian subcontinent approximately has a 5600 kms long coastline.

88. About___ % of India’s marine fish are supplied by the west coast

1. 80
2. 50
3. 60
4. 70

Explanation

About 80% of India’s marine fish are supplied by the west coast and the remaining 20% by the east coast. The premier varieties are mackerels, sardines, sharks, and catfish.

89. Culturing of animals in the water salinity ranges from____ % is called Mariculture

1. 30 to 40
2. 30 to 35
3. 20 to 25
4. 15 to 25

Explanation

Marine edible fishes of Tamil Nadu coast include both cartilaginous and bony fishes. Culturing of animals in the water salinity ranges from 30 – 35% is called Mariculture.

90. Culturing of animals in the salinity ranges from____ % is called Metahaline culture.

1. 36 to 38
2. 36 to 40
3. 28 to 38
4. 30 to 35

Explanation

Culturing of animals in the salinity ranges from 36 – 40% is called Metahaline culture. Eg, Brine shrimp (Artemia salina).

91. ________ is commonly known as the brine shrimp

1. Mugil
2. Chanos
3. Artemia
4. Shrimp

Explanation

Artemia is commonly known as the brine shrimp. It is a crustacean and lives in high saline waters because of its high osmoregulatory capacity.

92. Which of the following are the Characteristics of cultivable fishes?

1. Fishes should have high growth rate in short period for culture
2. Fishes proposed for polyculture should be able to live together without interfering or attacking other fishes
3. They should not accept supplementary diet.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Characteristics of cultivable fishes

The special characteristic features of cultivable fishes are:

• Fishes should have high growth rate in short period for culture.
• They should accept supplementary diet.
• They should be hardy enough to resist some common diseases and infection of parasites.
• Fishes proposed for polyculture should be able to live together without interfering or attacking other fishes.
• They should have high conversion efficiency so that they can effectively utilize the food.

93. Match the following

1. Indigenous fresh water fishes 1. Carps
2. Salt water fishes acclimatized for fresh water 2. Mullet
3. Exotic fishes 3. Catla
4. 3, 2, 1
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 1, 3
7. 3, 1, 2

Explanation

Cultivable fish are of 3 types:

• Indigenous or native fresh water fishes (Major carps, Catla, Labeo, Clarias)
• Salt water fishes acclimatized for fresh water (Chanos, Mullet).
• Exotic fishes or imported from other counties (Common carps)

94. Which of the following statement about Carps is correct?

1. Feed on zooplanktons and phytoplanktons, decaying weeds, debris and other aquatic plants
2. Can tolerate O2 variations in water
3. Can be transported from one place to other easily.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Among these, major carps have proved to be best suited for culture in India, because the carps

• Feed on zooplanktons and phytoplanktons, decaying weeds, debris and other aquatic plants.
• They can survive in turbid water with slightly higher temperature
• Can tolerate O2 variations in water.
• Can be transported from one place to other easily.
• They are highly nutritive and palatable.

95. Which of the following factors that affect fish culture?

1. Temperature
2. Flood
3. pH hardness
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The factors that affect fish culture are temperature, light rain, water, flood, water current, turbidity of water, pH hardness, salinity and dissolved O2. Light and temperature also play an important role in fish breeding.

96. Which of the following are gonadotropin hormone?

1. FSH
2. LH
3. TSH
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Induced breeding is also done by hypophysation (removal of pituitary gland). The gonadotropin hormone (FSH and LH) secreted by the pituitary gland influences the maturation of gonads and spawning in fishes.

97. Which of the following are the advantages of prawn?

1. Rich glycogen
2. Rich protein
3. Low fat content
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Most important aquatic crustacean is prawn, which is widely cultured prawn flesh is palatable and rich in glycogen, protein with low fat content.

98. In Which of the following are areas of prawn production?

1. Ennure
2. Pulicat lake
3. Chilka lake
4. All the above

Explanation

Estuaries and back waters or saline lake prawn fishery – The area of production of prawns are the back waters seen along the Western coast, Ennur, Pulicat, Chilka lake and Estuaries of Ganga and Brahmaputra rivers.

99. Which of the following is not a prawn species?

1. Catla catla
2. Penaeus indicus
3. Penaeus monodon
4. Metapenaeus dobsoni

Explanation

A number of species of prawn are distributed in water resources such as Penaeus indicus, Penaeus monodon, Metapenaeus dobsoni and Macrobrachium rosenbergii. Catla catla is fish variety.

100. Macrobrachium rosenbergii is found in_____

1. Lakes
2. Rivers
3. Estuaries
4. Both b and c

Explanation

Macrobrachium rosenbergii is commonly seen in rivers, fields and low-saline estuaries. The prawn collected from ponds, river, and paddy fields are transferred to the tanks which are aerated.

101. Which of the following factors determine the Culture of marine prawn?

1. Selection of site
2. Soil quality
3. Water quality
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Several factors that determine the success of marine prawn culture includes selection of site, water quality, soil quality and availability of seed.

102. Which of the following statement about pearl culture?

1. Pearl is a white, highly shining globular concretion found within the shell of an Oyster
2. Pearl oysters are sedentary plants
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Pearl is a white, highly shining globular concretion found within the shell of an Oyster. Pearl oysters are sedentary animals.

103. In India it was cultured for the first time in_____

1. 1998
2. 1973
3. 1993
4. 1982

Explanation

In India it was cultured for the first time in 1973 at Thoothukudi. Pearl oysters are found along the coast of Kanyakumari and in the Gulf of Kutch

104. Genus Pinctada that can be cultured in the salinity range of____ ppt

1. 10
2. 15
3. 20
4. 30

Explanation

High quality pearls are obtained from pearl oysters of Genus Pinctada that can be cultured in the salinity range of 30 ppt in racks, raft and long line methods.

105. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Saltwater bivalve Lamellidens is also used in artificial pearl culture.
2. Mostly the pearl oysters inhabit the ridges of rocks or dead corals, forming extensive pearl banks.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Freshwater bivalve Lamellidens is also used in artificial pearl culture. Mostly the pearl oysters inhabit the ridges of rocks or dead corals, forming extensive pearl banks. These pearl beds produce best quality of pearls.

106. During which time cages are setup for Collection of oysters?

1. July to November
2. May to November
3. January to June
4. March to August

Explanation

Oysters are caught by special type of cages (84 x 54 x 20 cm) by covering a heavy wire frame with two centimeter wire mesh. These cages are suspended at a depth of 6 meters. From July to November, where spats are easily available. These collected oysters are now transferred to rearing cages.

107. Which of the following is not an enemy of oyster?

1. Eel
2. Devil fish
3. Octopus
4. Whale

Explanation

The collected oysters are stocked and reared in special type of cage called as rearing cage. These cages are well protected from enemies of oysters like Octopus, Eel, Devil fishes etc.

108. Which of the following is not composition of pearl?

1. Water
2. Calcium phosphate
3. Calcium carbonate
4. Carbonate

Explanation

109. Which of the following statement about pearl is correct?

1. The pearls obtained are of variable shapes and sizes.
2. They are only red in colour.
3. Pearl obtained from freshwater bivalves are not as valuable as those obtained from the marine oysters
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The pearls obtained are of variable shapes and sizes. They may be white, or cream red or pink red in colour. The spherical pearls of rainbow colour are rarely found. The best quality of pearl is obtained from marine oysters. Pearl obtained from freshwater bivalves are not as valuable as those obtained from the marine oysters.

110. Which of the following is not included in Animal husbandry?

1. Cows
2. Buffalo
3. Birds
4. Earthworm

Explanation

Animal husbandry is the practice of breeding and raising livestock cattle like cows, buffaloes, and goats and birds etc. that are useful to human beings.

111. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Parameters such as adequate ventilation, temperature, sufficient light, water and proper housing accommodation should be taken into account to maintain dairy and poultry farms.
2. More over the selection of good breeds with high yielding potential combined and  resistance to diseases is very important.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Parameters such as adequate ventilation, temperature, sufficient light, water and proper housing accommodation should be taken into account to maintain dairy and poultry farms. Animals should be cared and protected from diseases. Records should be maintained after the regular visits by Veterinarian. More over the selection of good breeds with high yielding potential combined and resistance to diseases is very important

112. Which of the following are the Objectives of Animal breeding?

1. To improve growth rate
2. Increasing the quality of the animal products
3. Enhancing the production of milk, meat. Egg
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Objectives of Animal breeding:

• To improve growth rate
• Enhancing the production of milk, meat. Egg etc.,
• Increasing the quality of the animal products
• Improved resistance to diseases e. Increased reproductive rate

113. Breeding between animals of the same breed for___ generations is called inbreeding

1. 4 to 6
2. 5 to 7
3. 3 to 6
4. 4 to 5

Explanation

Breeding between animals of the same breed for 4-6 generations is called inbreeding. Inbreeding increases homozygosity and exposes the harmful recessive genes.

114. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding.
2. Individuals produced do not have common ancestors for 3 to 4 generations.
3. New and favourable genes can be introduced into a population through outbreeding
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The breeding between unrelated animals is called outbreeding. Individuals produced do not have common ancestors for 4-6 generations. Outbreeding helps to produce new and favourable traits, to produce hybrids with superior qualities and helps to create new breeds. New and favourable genes can be introduced into a population through outbreeding.

115. _______ is the breeding between unrelated animals of the same breed

1. Inbreeding
2. Outbreeding
3. Out crossing
4. Cross breeding

Explanation

Out crossing is the breeding between unrelated animals of the same breed but having no common ancestry. The offspring of such a cross is called outcross. This method is suitable for breeding animals that are below average in productivity.

116. Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed is called_

1. Inbreeding
2. Outbreeding
3. Out crossing
4. Cross breeding

Explanation

Cross breeding: Breeding between a superior male of one breed with a superior female of another breed. The cross bred progeny has superior traits (hybrid vigour or heterosis.)

117. Mule is interspecific hybridization between_______

1. Donkey and horse
2. Horse and cat
3. Horse and zebra
4. Zebra and donkey

Explanation

Have you heard about Mule? It was produced by the process of interspecific hybridization between a male donkey and a female horse.

118. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Artificial insemination is a technique in which the semen collected from the male is injected to the reproductive tract of the selected female.
2. Artificial insemination is economical measure where fewer bulls are required and maximum use can be made of the best sire.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Artificial insemination is a technique in which the semen collected from the male is injected to the reproductive tract of the selected female. Artificial insemination is economical measure where fewer bulls are required and maximum use can be made of the best sire.

119. The process of storing semen in frozen condition is called as_____

1. Thawing
2. Dawing
3. Jawing
4. Mawing

Explanation

Thawing means to melt or become liquid. When the semen collected for artificial insemination is taken to far off places/stored for a long time in frozen condition it should be brought to room temperature slowly before use. This process is called thawing

120. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Dairying is the production and marketing of milk and its products.
2. There are 16 well defined breeds of cattle and 6 breeds of buffaloes in India
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Dairying is the production and marketing of milk and its products. Dairy operation consists of proper maintenance of cattle, the collection and processing the milk and its by-products. There are 26 well defined breeds of cattle and 6 breeds of buffaloes in India.

121. _______ breed is the smallest breed of Cow as per World Guinness Records.

1. Ongole
2. Kangeyam
3. Gir
4. Vechur

Explanation

122. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. To meet the milk demand of the growing population, milk breeds are preferred by farmers in small scale farms.
2. Goats are also used all over India for supplementing deficiencies in milk production
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

To meet the milk demand of the growing population, milk breeds are preferred by farmers in small scale farms. Goats are also used all over India for supplementing deficiencies in milk production.

123. Match the following

1. Jamunapari 1. Ganga-Jamuna riverine tract
2. Beetal 2. UP
3. Bar–bari 3. Punjab
4. 2, 1, 3
5. 1, 3, 2
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 3, 1, 2

Explanation

Some of the breeds of cattle that are good milkers are Jamunapari in Ganga-Jamuna riverine tracts, Beetal in Punjab, Bar–bari in Uttar Pradesh.

124. Which of the following is the not a cattle disease?

1. Cow pox
2. Small pox
3. Haemorrhagic fever
4. Rinderpest

Explanation

Cattle in ill health appear dull, restless and change posture frequently with drop in milk yield. The main diseases of dairy cattle are rinderpest, foot and mouth disease, cow pox, hemorrhagic fever, anthrax.

125. Milk is produced by dairy animals which is an emulsion of________

1. Fat
2. Maltose
3. Lactase
4. Both a and c

Explanation

Milk is produced by dairy animals which is an emulsion of fat and lactose. Milk also contains enzymes which are destroyed during pasteurization.

126. Which of the following Vitamin is deficient in Milk?

1. B2
2. C
3. A
4. B1

Explanation

Milk is a rich source of vitamin A, B2, B1, and deficient in Vitamin C. Due to its high nutrition value, it serves as a complete food for infants.

127. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. India is the largest producer of Milk, globally
2. Jersey is one of the indigenous cow breeds in India
3. India has many popular indigenous breeds of cows and buffaloes.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

India is the largest producer of Milk, globally. India has many popular indigenous breeds of cows and buffaloes. Prominent indigenous cow breeds in India – Gir, Red sindhi, Sahiwal, Hallikar, Amritmahal, Khillari, Kangayam, Bargur, Umblachery, Pulikulam, Alambadi, Tharparkar, Haryana, Kankrej, Ongole, Krishna valley and Deoni.

128.Which of the following minerals are found in meat?

1. Iron
2. Zinc
3. Copper
4. Selenium
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 1, 2
7. 2, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Meat is rich in protein and also contains many minerals like iron, zinc, vitamins and selenium. It also contains vitamins needed for human diet.

129. Which of the following avian farming are included in poultry farming?

1. Ducks
2. Turkey
3. Chicken
4. Quail
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 1, 3, 4
7. 2, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

The word poultry refers to the rearing and propagation of avian species such as chicken, ducks, turkeys, geese, quail and guinea fowls.

130. The most common and commercially farmed birds are______

1. Ducks
2. Turkey
3. Chicken
4. Turkey
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. 2, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

The most common and commercially farmed birds are chicken and ducks. Poultry farming is essential for the purpose of meat, eggs and feather production. Commercial poultry farming is also profitable.

131. How many breeds of chicken are there?

1. 12
2. 23
3. More than 100
4. 50

Explanation

There are more than 100 breeds of chicken. The commonly farmed chicken breeds are categorized into five based on the purpose for which it is farmed. They are egg layers, broiler type, dual type, games and ornamental types

132. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Leghorn is the most popular commercial breed in India and originated from Germany
2. They mature early and begin to lay eggs at the age of 5 or 6 months.
3. They can also thrive well in dry areas.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Leghorn is the most popular commercial breed in India and originated from Italy. They are small, compact with a single comb and wattles with white, brown or black colour. They mature early and begin to lay eggs at the age of 5 or 6 months. Hence these are preferred in commercial farms. They can also thrive well in dry areas.

133. Chittagong breed chiefly found in______

1. Punjab
2. Odisha
3. West Bengal
4. Karnataka

Explanation

Chittagong is the breed chiefly found in West Bengal. They are golden or light-yellow coloured. The beak is long and yellow in colour. Ear lobes and wattles are small and red in colour. They are good egg layers and are delicious

134. ____ is a breed of chicken has a typical fluffy plumage, which is said to feel like silk and satin

1. Aseel
2. Silkie
3. Brahma
4. All the above

Explanation

Silkie is a breed of chicken has a typical fluffy plumage, which is said to feel like silk and satin. The breed has numerous additional special characters, such as black skin and bones, blue earlobes, and five toes on each foot, while the majority chickens only have four.

135. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The feathers of poultry birds are used for making pillows and quilts
2. The droppings are rich in nitrogen, potash and phosphates.
3. 1, 2
4. 1, 3
5. 2, 3
6. All the above

Explanation

The feathers of poultry birds are used for making pillows and quilts. Droppings of poultry can be used as manure in fields. The droppings are rich in nitrogen, potash and phosphates.

136. Which of the following are poultry by-products?

1. Blood-meal
2. Feather meal
3. Hatchery by-product meal
4. All the above

Explanation

A number of poultry by products like blood-meal, feather meal, poultry by product meal and hatchery by-product meal are used as good sources of nutrients for meat producing animals and poultry. These by-products supply proteins, fats, vitamins and good amount of minerals.

137. Which of the following is not a poultary diseases?

1. Ranikhet
2. Coccidiosis
3. Mumps
4. Fowl pox

Explanation

Poultry diseases:

Ranikhet, Coccidiosis, and Fowl pox are some common poultry diseases.

138. Chickens communicate with more than___ vocalizations

1. 20
2. 24
3. 12
4. 32

Explanation

Chickens communicate with more than 24 vocalizations, each with a distinct meaning, including warning their friends about different types of predators or letting their mothers know whether they’re comfortable.

139. There are about____ breeds of ducks.

1. 10
2. 20
3. 30
4. 35

Explanation

Duck is an aquatic bird and forms only 6% of our country’s poultry population. There are about 20 breeds of ducks. The native one includes Indian Runner and Syhlet meta.

140. Which of the following are the advantages of duck farming?

1. They can be reared in small backyards where water is available
2. They need more care
3. They can adapt themselves to all types of environmental conditions
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Advantages of duck farming:

They can be reared in small backyards where water is available and needs less care and management as they are very hardy. They can adapt themselves to all types of environmental conditions and are breed for feed efficiency, growth rate and resistance to diseases.

141. What are the needs of Zoology?

a) Deals with economically useful animals

b) Provide food security

c) Employment opportunities

d) All the above

Explanation

Zoology is a branch of science that deals with economically useful animals. It involves the study of application of animals for human welfare. The need of Zoology is not just to improve our economic condition but also to provide food security and provide employment opportunities.

142. Name the container used for preparing a good fertilizer using earthworms?

a) Wormery

b) Vermibed

c) Wormbin

d) Both a and c

Explanation

Earthworms can be used for recycling of waste food, leaf, litter and biomass to prepare a good fertilizer in container known as wormery or wormbin.

143.Which of the following is not an advantage of vermicompost?

a) Improves soil structure, aeration and water holding capacity.

b) Used as an insecticide in flowering stage of plants.

c) Enhances seed germination and ensures plant growth

d) Eco-friendly amendment to soil for farming and terrace gardening.

Explanation

Advantages of Using Vermicompost: Vermicompost is rich in essential plant nutrients. It improves soil structure texture, aeration, and water holding capacity and prevents soil erosion. Vermicompost is a rich in nutrients and an eco-friendly amendment to soil for farming and terrace gardening. It enhances seed germination and ensures good plant growth.

144. Name the beehives practiced in India?

1. Langstroth
2. Newton
3. C
4. Both a and c

Explanation

In India, there are two types of beehives in practice namely, Langstroth and Newton.

145. Which of these methods are used for cultivating fast growing plants?

a) Nutrient film technique

b) Raft based method

c) Media based method

d) Aqua vertica

Explanation

Deep water culture is otherwise known as raft based method. In this method a raft floats in water. Plants are kept in the holes of raft and the roots float in water. This method is applicable for larger commercial scale system. By this method fast growing plants are cultivated.

146. Which of these factors does not affect the fish culture?

a) Temperature

b) Soil

c) Water current

d) pH hardness

Explanation

The factors that affect fish culture are temperature, light, rain, water, flood and water current, turbidity of water, pH hardness, and salinity and dissolved O2. Light and temperature also play an important role in fish breeding.

147. Which of these vitamins are rich in fish oil?

a) Vitamin A and D

b) Vitamin E and K

c) Vitamin C

d) Vitamin B1 and B2

Explanation

Fish oil is the most important fish by product. It is derived from fish liver and from the fish body. Fish liver oil is derived from the liver which is rich in vitamin A and D, whereas fish body oil has high content of iodine, not suitable for human consumption, but is used in the manufacture of laundry soaps, paints and cosmetics.

148. What are the factors that lead to the success of marine prawn culture?

a) Water quality

b) Selection of site

c) Availability of seed

d) All the above

Explanation

Several factors that determine the success of marine prawn culture includes selection of site, water quality, soil quality and availability of seed.

149. Which of the following is not an advantage of artificial insemination?

a) Increases the rate of conception.

b) Increasing the quality of the animal products.

c) Avoids genital diseases.

d) Superior animals can be bred successfully.

Explanation

Advantages of artificial insemination: It increases the rate of conception, It avoids genital diseases, Semen can be collected from injured bulls which have desirable traits, and Superior animals located apart can be bred successfully.

150. Choose the correct statements about the Multiple Ovulation embryo transfer technology.

i) Used to improve the growth rate of animals.

ii) Applied when the success rate of crossing is high after artificial insemination.

iii) Produce high milk yielding females and high-quality meat yielding bulls in a short time.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Multiple ovulation embryo transfer technology (MOET): It is another method of propagation of animals with desirable traits. This method is applied when the success rate of crossing is low even after artificial insemination. Instead of one egg per cycle, 6-8 eggs can be produced by this technology. The eggs are carefully recovered non-surgically from the genetic mother and fertilized artificially. This technology can be applied to cattle, sheep and buffaloes. Advantage of this technology is to produce high milk yielding females and high-quality meat yielding bulls in a short time.

151. How many groups of cattle’s are classified based on their purpose?

1. 5
2. 4
3. 7
4. 3

Explanation

Cattles are classified under three groups based on the purpose they serve to man. They are Dairy breeds or Milch breeds, Draught purpose breeds and Dual Purpose breeds.

152. Identify the Incorrect Match.

A. Draught breeds i) Kangayam

B. Dairy breeds ii) Sindhi

C. Dual purpose breeds iii) Malvi

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Dairy breeds or Milch breeds: They are high milk yielders with extended lactation. Eg, Sindhi, Gir, Sahiwal, Jersy, Brown Swiss, Holstein cattle.

Draught purpose breeds: Bullocks are good for draught purpose. Eg. Kangayam, Malvi

Dual Purpose breeds: Cows are meant for yielding more milk and bullocks are used for better drought purpose. Eg. Ongole, Hariana

153. Which of these breed are not good in incubation of eggs?

a) Aseel

b) Chittagong

c) White Plymouth

d) Brahma

Explanation

Game breeds: Since ancient times, special breed of roosters have been used for the sport of cockfighting. Aseel breed is white or black in colour. The hens are not good egg layers but are good in incubation of eggs. It is found in all states of India.

154. Which of the following stages is not involved in rearing of chicken?

a) Best layer selection

b) Selection of eggs for hatching

c) Disease management

d) Incubation

Explanation

Stages involved in rearing: There are some steps involved in rearing of chicken. Selection of the best layer, Selection of eggs for hatching and Incubation and hatching.

155. Choose the incorrect statements about incubation.

i) Fully developed chicks emerge out of egg after an incubation period of 21-22 days.

ii) Incubation is categorized into many types based on the techniques.

iii) More number of eggs are incubated in artificial incubation method.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

The maintenance of newly laid eggs in optimum condition till hatching is called incubation. The fully developed chick emerges out of egg after an incubation period of 21 – 22 days. There are two types of incubation namely natural incubation and artificial incubation. In the natural incubation method, only a limited number of eggs can be incubated by a mother hen. In artificial incubation, more number of eggs can be incubated in a chamber.

156. Which of this method is used for large scale poultry farms?

a) Battery cage

b) Yarding

c) Free range farming

d) Organic

Explanation

Types of Poultry farming: There are different methods used to rear both broiler and layer chicken. The types of poultry farming are Free range farming, Organic method, Yarding method, Battery cage method and Furnished cage method. Among these, Battery cage method is widely used in large scale poultry farms. The Free range, Organic and Yarding methods are eco-friendly and the eggs produced by such farming practices are preferred in the market.

157. Which of the following statement is correct regarding brooding?

i) Caring and management of young chicks after incubation period is called as brooding.

ii) Brooding is categorized into natural and artificial brooding.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Caring and management of young chicks for 4 – 6 weeks immediately after hatching is called brooding. It can also be categorized into two types namely natural and artificial brooding.

158. Assertion (A): The eggs and poultry meat are the richest sources of fat and carbohydrates.

Reasoning(R): Diet of chicks only contain adequate amount of water, proteins and vitamins.

a) A is correct; R explains about A.

b) A is wrong; R is correct.

c) A and R is wrong.

d) A is correct; R does not explains about A.

Explanation

The diet of chicks should contain adequate amount of water, carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins and minerals. The main products of poultry farming are eggs and meat. The eggs and poultry meat are the richest sources of proteins and vitamins.

159. From which of these breed domesticated ducks are derived?

a) Mallard

b) Aylesbury

c) Campbell

d) Muscori

Explanation

Duck is an aquatic bird and forms only 6% of our country’s poultry population. There are about 20 breeds of ducks. The native one includes Indian Runner and Syhlet meta. The exotic breeds include Muscori, Pekin, Aylesbury and Campbell. Domesticated ducks have been derived from the wild duck named Mallard (Anas boscas).

11th Science Lesson 3 Questions in English

3] Basic Medical Instruments and Techniques

1. Which of the following are used by doctors to monitor the health conditions of individuals?

1. Thermometer
2. Sphygmomanometer
3. Gyroscope
4. Stethoscope
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 3
8. All the above

Explanation

Traditionally doctors employ simple instruments like thermometer, stethoscope, and sphygmomanometer to monitor the health conditions of individuals. Medical technology has blossomed during the last few decades and revolutionized medical practices which are immensely influencing life saving means in emergency care of patients.

2. Haematology is the study of_____

1. Human body
2. Cause, prognosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases related to blood
3. Bone marrow
4. Bone

Explanation

Haematology, is the branch of medicine concerned with the study of the cause, prognosis, treatment, and prevention of diseases related to blood.

3. ______ is the study of the adverse effects of chemical substances on living organisms

1. Homeostatis
2. Haematology
3. Toxicology
4. Oncology

Explanation

Toxicology is a discipline that involves the study of the adverse effects of chemical substances on living organisms and the practice of diagnosing and treating exposures to toxins and toxicants.

4. Which of the following sounds can be hear using Stethoscope?

1. Heart beat
2. Sounds due to inhalation and exhalation of air
3. Foetal movements
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Stethoscope is a medical device used to hear the internal sounds of the human body such as heart beat, sounds due to inhalation and exhalation of air in the lungs, stomach, intestinal movements and also foetal movements.

5. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The modern electronic stethoscope is a high precision instrument used to hear with clarity the internal sounds of the human body even in a noisy environment or through the heavy clothing of the patient
2. A typical stethoscope consists of a disc shaped resonator that is placed against chest with two rubber tubes connected to earpieces
3. It is a simple but an effective diagnostic tool to localize problems and to diagnose diseases
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The modern electronic stethoscope is a high precision instrument used to hear with clarity the internal sounds of the human body even in a noisy environment or through the heavy clothing of the patient. A typical stethoscope consists of a disc shaped resonator that is placed against chest with two rubber tubes connected to earpieces. This is simply known as binaural stethoscope. It is a simple but an effective diagnostic tool to localize problems and to diagnose diseases.

6. Which of the following diseases can be diagnosed with stethoscope?

1. Ulcer
2. Pneumonia
3. Pulmonary edema
4. Bronchitis
5. 1, 2
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Stethoscope helps to diagnose lung diseases such as pneumonia, pulmonary edema, bronchitis and pleuritis.

7. Which of the following are the clinical significance of stethoscope?

1. Stethoscope helps to find the normal and abnormal heart beat sounds and also to diagnose valve functions
2. Stethoscopes along with sphygmomanometer are used to read the blood pressure
3. It outlines the status of cardiac, respiratory and intestinal disorders.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Clinical significance of stethoscope:

• Stethoscope helps to find the normal and abnormal heart beat sounds and also to diagnose valve functions.
• It helps to diagnose lung diseases such as pneumonia, pulmonary edema, bronchitis and pleuritis.
• Stethoscopes along with sphygmomanometer are used to read the blood pressure.
• It outlines the status of cardiac, respiratory and intestinal disorders.

8. Which of the following statement about Sphygmomanometer is correct?

1. Sphygmomanometer is a device that measures the blood pressure
2. It consists of a rubber cuff which is wrapped around the upper arm and the other end is connected to a mercury manometer which directly measures the pressure in a uniformly graduated scale
3. By gradually increasing and reducing the pressure in the cuff, the systolic and diastolic blood pressure is clearly monitored by the sounds of arterial blood flow
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Sphygmomanometer is a device that measures the blood pressure hence known as blood pressure meter, blood pressure monitor or blood pressure gauge. It consists of a rubber cuff which is wrapped around the upper arm and the other end is connected to a mercury manometer which directly measures the pressure in a uniformly graduated scale. By gradually increasing and reducing the pressure in the cuff, the systolic and diastolic blood pressure is clearly monitored by the sounds of arterial blood flow. The cuff is smoothly wrapped around the upper arm 3 cm above the elbow. The resonator of the stethoscope is placed on the brachial artery at the elbow to hear the blood flow sounds.

9. The cuff of sphygmomanometer is then rapidly inflated to____ mm Hg and is then slowly deflated

1. 90
2. 120
3. 80
4. 180

Explanation

The cuff of sphygmomanometer is then rapidly inflated to 180 mm Hg and is then slowly deflated. As the pressure in the cuff falls a “whooshing” sound is heard then the blood flow starts again in the artery. This indicates the patient’s systolic pressure. Then the pressure is slowly released until no sound is heard. This is measured as the diastolic blood pressure. For better clinical understanding readings may be taken in both arms.

10. Which of the following sphygmomanometer requires calibration checks?

1. Mercury sphygmomanometer
2. Aneuroid sphygmomanometer
3. Digital sphygmomanometer
4. All the above

Explanation

Aneuroid sphygmomanometer is a mechanical type with a dial and it requires calibration checks unlike mercury manometer. Mercury sphygmomanometer shows blood pressure by affecting the height of a column of mercury which does not require calibration.

11. Which of the following sphygmomanometer can be used without training?

1. Mercury sphygmomanometer
2. Aneuroid sphygmomanometer
3. Digital sphygmomanometer
4. All the above

Explanation

Digital sphygmomanometer detects systolic and diastolic pressures by an oscillometric detector. It is easy to use even without training.

12. The maximum pressure exerted during the ventricular contraction is called______ pressure

1. Systolic
2. Diastolic
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

The maximum pressure exerted during the ventricular contraction is called systolic pressure and the minimum pressure exerted during the ventricular relaxation is called diastolic pressure.

13. Systolic pressure =_____ mm Hg

1. 100
2. 120
3. 80
4. 180

Explanation

Normal Blood Pressure = 120/80 mmHg

Systolic pressure = 120 mm Hg

Diastolic pressure = 80 mm Hg

14. WHITE COAT EFFECT is related to____

1. Respiratory
2. Blood pressure
3. Neurological
4. Digestion

Explanation

White coat hypertension, more commonly known as white coat syndrome, is a phenomenon in which the patients exhibit a blood pressure level above the normal range, in a clinical setting, though they do not exhibit in other settings.

15. Which of the following are the uses of Sphygmomanometer?

1. To diagnose pathological conditions such as hypertension and hypotension
2. Helps to assess the state of blood circulation
3. Provides the functional details of heart
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Clinical Significance:

• To diagnose pathological conditions such as hypertension and hypotension
• Helps to assess the state of blood circulation.
• Provides the functional details of heart.

16. _____ is a simple and portable medical device used to record approximate levels of blood glucose

1. Glycometer
2. Glucometer
3. Gyroscope
4. Autoanalyzer

Explanation

Glucometer is a simple and portable medical device used to record the approximate levels of blood glucose. It is a battery-operated digital meter.

17. Most glucometers are based on_____

1. Biological reaction
2. Chemical reaction
3. Electrochemical reaction
4. Physical reaction

Explanation

Most glucometers are based on the electrochemical technology or colour reflectance principle. Based on colour change blood glucose level can be known.

18. The meter reads the blood sample and displays the glucose level in the units of____

1. g/mL
2. mg/mL
3. mg/dL
4. mg/L

Explanation

A drop of blood is taken from the tip of the finger and placed on the disposable test strip. The meter reads the blood sample and displays the glucose level in the units of mg/dL.

19. The glucometer results are displayed in approximately______ seconds

1. 10
2. 20
3. 40
4. 60

Explanation

Significance of glucometer:

• Handy and portable
• Immediate results, the results are displayed in approximately 40 seconds.
• Requires no calculation
• No training is required for operating the instrument

20. Match the following

1. Normal glucose value 1. 110 – 140mg/dL
2. Random blood sugar 2. 70 – 100 mg/dL
3. Fasting blood sugar 3. 80 – 120 mg/dL
4. Post – prandial blood sugar 4. 70 – 110 mg/dL
5. 2, 1, 3, 4
6. 2, 3, 4, 1
7. 2, 4, 1, 3
8. 1, 3, 4, 2

Explanation

Normal Glucose Values in blood:

Normal glucose value: 70 – 100 mg/dL

Random blood sugar: 80 – 120 mg/dL

Fasting blood sugar: 70 – 110 mg/dL

Post – prandial blood sugar: 110 – 140mg/dL

21. Which of the following biochemical parameters can be estimated using auto-analyser?

1. Glucose
2. Enzymes
3. Urea
4. Cholesterol
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. All the above

Explanation

Auto-analyser is a computer- controlled device. It is used for quick estimation of several bio-chemical parameters like glucose, urea, cholesterol, enzymes and other proteins present in body fluids. The analyser is fully integrated with all the necessary controls such as temperature of reaction, volumes of sample, reagents and transfer of fluids.

22. ______ is a test to evaluate the electrical activities of the brain

1. EEG
2. ECG
3. CEG
4. KEG

Explanation

EEG is a test to evaluate the electrical activities of the brain. Brain cells communicate with each other through electrical impulses.

23. Which of the following statement about EEG is correct?

1. EEG tracks and records the heart wave patterns
2. It is a graphical recording of the electrical activities of the cortical and sub cortical regions of the brain
3. The electrodes analyse the electrical impulses in the brain and send signals to a computer which records the results.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

EEG tracks and records the brain wave patterns. It is a graphical recording of the electrical activities of the cortical and sub cortical regions of the brain. It is recorded by placing the surface electrodes on the scalp region. The electrodes analyse the electrical impulses in the brain and send signals to a computer which records the results.

24. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. In 1929 Germen scientist Hans Berger was the first to analyse the EEG.
2. The electrical activity recorded by EEG may have synchronised or desynchronised waves
3. It has three frequency waves/ rhythms namely alpha, beta, delta waves
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

In 1929 Germen scientist Hans Berger was the first to analyse the EEG. Hence, EEG is also known as “Berger Wave”. The electrical activity recorded by EEG may have synchronised or desynchronised waves. It has four frequency waves/ rhythms namely alpha, beta, delta and theta waves.

25. Which of the following are the uses of EEG?

1. EEG provides a means to study the functioning of the brain and its coordination with other parts of the body
2. It can be used to diagnosis cardiac arrest
3. It is useful in diagnosis of neurological and sleep disorders
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Clinical significance of EEG: EEG provides a means to study the functioning of the brain and its coordination with other parts of the body. It is useful in diagnosis of neurological and sleep disorders. EEG is useful in assessing patients with suspected brain death.

26. Which of the following can be diagnosised using EEG?

1. Brain tumour
2. Cerebral infection
3. Epilepsy
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

EEG has proved to be a useful diagnostic tool in cases of serious head injuries, brain tumours and cerebral infections. It also helps to find the diseases like epilepsy and various degenerative disease of the nervous system.

27. Which of the following can record real-time data on various physiological conditions?

1. Fitness trackers
2. Helmet worn impact checkers
3. Filament implant
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Wearable Healthcare devices include smart watches, fit-bit wristbands, fitness trackers, helmet-worn impact checkers, back pain posture checkers, necklaces, clip-ons, smart clothing and filament implant. These medical devices with select sensors can record real-time data on various physiological conditions and electronically send them to doctor, or via apps on smart phone.

28. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Radiography is the use of X-rays to visualize the internal structures of a patient
2. X-Rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation, produced by an X-ray tube
3. The X-rays are passed through the body and captured behind the patient by a detector
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Radiography is the use of X-rays to visualize the internal structures of a patient (Figure12.6). X-Rays are a form of electromagnetic radiation, produced by an X-ray tube. The X-rays are passed through the body and captured behind the patient by a detector; film sensitive to x-rays or a digital detector.

29. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. There is variation in absorption of the X-rays by different tissues within the body
2. Dense bones absorb more radiation, while soft tissue allows more rays to pass through
3. This variation produces contrast image within the image to give a 2D representation of all the structures. It is invasive.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

There is variation in absorption of the X-rays by different tissues within the body. Dense bones absorb more radiation, while soft tissue allows more rays to pass through. This variation produces contrast image within the image to give a 2D representation of all the structures. It is invasive. It is also available as a portable X ray unit. It is less costly when compared to the other imaging units like MRI or CT.

30. Which of the following are the clinical significance of X-ray?

1. X- ray imaging is used for diagnosing the disease of the heart, lungs and fractures of bones and joints
2. Fluoroscopy for real time images
3. X-rays are used in radiation therapy to shrink cancerous tumours
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Clinical significance of X-ray:

• X- ray imaging is used for diagnosing the disease of the heart, lungs and fractures of bones and joints
• Fluoroscopy for real time images
• X-rays are used in radiation therapy to shrink cancerous tumours

31. ______ is a special type of X-ray imaging to create detail images of the breast tissues

1. Mammography
2. Manography
3. Avography
4. Polygraphy

Explanation

Mammography is a special type of X-ray imaging to create detail images of the breast tissues. X-ray is also used to visualise hollow organs and blood vessels by filling them with certain chemical formulations containing barium and iodine.

32. Who discovered X-ray?

1. Marie curie
2. Irire curie
3. Roentgen
4. Einstein

Explanation

‘X rays were discovered by German physicist Sir Wilhelm Conard Roentgen in 1895, while he was studying on high voltage discharge phenomenon in a Crooker’s tube. He noticed fluorescence of a barium platino cyanide screen lying several feet away in the same room.

33. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Ultrasound literally means sound beyond the range of human hearing. Ultrasound waves are produced by a physical phenomenon known as Piezo-electric effect
2. When an electric potential is applied to certain crystals they become excited, vibrate and produce ultrasound.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Ultrasound literally means sound beyond the range of human hearing. Ultrasound waves are produced by a physical phenomenon known as Piezo-electric effect. When an electric potential is applied to certain crystals for example: Lead zirconate, they become excited, vibrate and produce ultrasound. When the ultrasound waves are introduced through homogenous tissue, they pass unimpeded until they meet another tissue or organ. A part or whole of the ultrasound wave is reflected and received back by the same crystal and is converted into an electrical signal. This signal denoting reflecting interface is shown on the oscilloscope screen as a deflection from the base line.

34. Which of the following are significance of Ultrasound?

1. Ultrasound waves are used to image the foetus at different stages of pregnancy to study the progress of the developing foetus
2. They are used to hear foetal heart sound, blood flow, etc
3. Used for diagnosis of tumours, gall stones, kidney stones, obstructions in the genital tracts
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Clinical significance:

1. Ultrasound waves are used to image the foetus at different stages of pregnancy to study the progress of the developing foetus.

2. They are used to hear foetal heart sound, blood flow, etc.

3. Used in echocardiography to diagnose the damages in heart.

4. Used for diagnosis of tumours, gall stones, kidney stones, obstructions in the genital tracts

35. Which of the following statement about CT scanning is incorrect?

1. Computed tomography is originally known as computed axial tomography
2. It is a medical imaging technology employing tomography, were digital geometry processing is used to generate a three dimensional image of the internals of an object from a large series of two dimensional X ray images taken around a single axis of rotation
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Computed tomography is originally known as computed axial tomography (CAT or CT Scan). It is a medical imaging technology employing tomography, were digital geometry processing is used to generate a three dimensional image of the internals of an object from a large series of two dimensional X ray images taken around a single axis of rotation.

36. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. PET is also computerized imaging technique unlike CT
2. Positron emission tomography (PET) is a nuclear medicine procedure based on the measurement of positron emission from radiolabelled tracer molecules
3. A PET image gives quantitative regional information on the metabolic and physiological processes.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

PET is also computerized imaging technique unlike CT. Positron emission tomography (PET) is a nuclear medicine procedure based on the measurement of positron emission from radiolabelled tracer molecules. These radiotracers allow biologic processes to be measured and whole-body images to be obtained which demonstrates sites of radiotracer accumulation. A PET image gives quantitative regional information on the metabolic and physiological processes. PET uses positron emitting radio isotopes (11C 13N 15O 18F) which are generated by the cyclotron.

37. The most common radiotracer in use today is______

1. Uranium 235
2. Uranium 238
3. Thorium
4. 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose

Explanation

PET uses positron emitting radio isotopes (11C 13N 15O 18F) which are generated by the cyclotron. The most common radiotracer in use today is 18F-fluorodeoxyglucose (18F-FDG) which is a radio labelled sugar (glucose) molecule. These atoms are then incorporated by chemical methods into biological molecules like glucose, amino acids and ammonia.

38. PET imaging is effectively used in the measurement of_______

1. Regional cerebral blood volume
2. Blood flow
3. Metabolic rates for glucose
4. All the above

Explanation

PET imaging is effectively used in the measurement of regional cerebral blood volume, blood flow, metabolic rates for glucose and oxygen in humans.

39. Which of the following statement is correct about MRI?

1. Unlike conventional X-ray examinations and computed tomography (CT) scans, MRI does not utilize ionizing radiation
2. MRI uses a powerful magnetic field, radio frequency pulses and a computer to produce detailed pictures of organs, soft tissues, bone and virtually all other internal body structures
3. The radio frequency pulses re-align hydrogen atoms that naturally exist within the body while the patient is in the scanner without causing any chemical changes in the tissues
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Unlike conventional X-ray examinations and computed tomography (CT) scans, MRI does not utilize ionizing radiation. MRI uses a powerful magnetic field, radio frequency pulses and a computer to produce detailed pictures of organs, soft tissues, bone and virtually all other internal body structures. The radio frequency pulses re-align hydrogen atoms that naturally exist within the body while the patient is in the scanner without causing any chemical changes in the tissues. As the hydrogen atoms return to their usual alignment, they emit different amounts of energy that vary according to the type of body tissue from which they come. The MR scanner captures this energy and creates a picture of the tissues scanned based on this information.

40. Which is better in differentiation of abnormal (diseased) tissue from normal tissues?

1. MRI
2. CT
3. X-ray
4. Ultra-sound

Explanation

Frequently, the differentiation of abnormal (diseased) tissue from normal tissues is better with MRI than with other imaging modalities such as X-ray, CT and ultrasound. Detailed MR images allow physicians to evaluate various parts of the body and determine the presence of certain diseases.

41. Which of the following organs can be evaluated using MR imaging?

1. Chest
2. Abdomen
3. Lymph node
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

MR imaging of the body is performed to evaluate organs of the chest and abdomen, pelvic organs including the bladder and the reproductive organs, blood vessels and lymph nodes.

42. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Pacemaker is a medical device which uses electrical impulses, delivered by electrodes contracting the heart muscles, to regulate the beating of the heart
2. The primary purpose of a pacemaker is to maintain an adequate heart rate, either because the heart’s natural pacemaker is not fast enough, or because there is a block in the hearts electrical conducting system
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Pacemaker is a medical device which uses electrical impulses, delivered by electrodes contracting the heart muscles, to regulate the beating of the heart. The primary purpose of a pacemaker is to maintain an adequate heart rate, either because the heart’s natural pacemaker is not fast enough, or because there is a block in the hearts electrical conducting system.

43. Pacemaker batteries last between___ and___ years

1. 3, 13
2. 4, 14
3. 5, 15
4. 7, 17

Explanation

Pacemaker batteries last between 5 and 15 years (average 6 to 7 years), depending on how active the pacemaker is. The wires of the pacemaker also may need to be replaced eventually.

44. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Sick sinus syndrome (SSS) is characterized by dysfunction of the sinoatrial (SA) node
2. Treatment of SSS is directed at symptoms and typically involves the implantation of an artificial pacemaker
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Sick sinus syndrome (SSS) is characterized by dysfunction of the sinoatrial (SA) node. Treatment of SSS is directed at symptoms and typically involves the implantation of an artificial pacemaker.

45. Normally, the heart beats____ to____ times a minute when you are at rest

1. 60, 100
2. 50, 100
3. 20, 50
4. 70, 90

Explanation

Generally, heart rate is low when resting. It’s a sign of good health. When it is too low the condition is called bradycardia. Normally, the heart beats 60 to 100 times a minute when you are at rest.

46. Which of the following statement is correct about laser?

1. Lasers are devices that emit a single, coherent wavelength of electromagnetic radiation
2. It is used to cut, coagulate, or ablate tissue for a variety of clinical applications
3. The term “LASER” stands for light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Lasers are devices that emit a single, coherent wavelength of electromagnetic radiation that is used to cut, coagulate, or ablate tissue for a variety of clinical applications. The term “LASER” stands for light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation.

47. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Laser surgery uses ionizing radiation
2. Laser systems produce a variety of wavelengths of varying pulse duration and energy levels.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Laser surgery uses non-ionizing radiation, so it does not have the same long-term risks as X-rays or other types of ionizing radiation. Laser systems produce a variety of wavelengths of varying pulse duration and energy levels.

48. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Ordinary light, such as that from a light bulb, has many wavelengths and spreads in all directions.
2. It is focused in a narrow beam and creates a very high-intensity light.
3. Although lasers are commonly used superficially for cutaneous and ocular applications, smaller efficient laser delivery systems are available for minimally invasive applications, including endoscopy, bronchoscopy, laparoscopy, and endovenous ablation
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Ordinary light, such as that from a light bulb, has many wavelengths and spreads in all directions. Laser light, on the other hand, has a specific wavelength. It is focused in a narrow beam and creates a very high-intensity light. Computer-based imaging and guidance systems allow procedures to be performed precisely, quickly, and with greater control. Although lasers are commonly used superficially for cutaneous and ocular applications, smaller efficient laser delivery systems are available for minimally invasive applications, including endoscopy, bronchoscopy, laparoscopy, and endovenous ablation.

49. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The haemocytometer is a thick glass slide with a counting chamber in the middle.
2. The counting chamber contains two grids with improved Neubaur rulings of 4 by 4 mm primary square.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The haemocytometer is a thick glass slide with a counting chamber in the middle. The counting chamber contains two grids with improved Neubaur rulings of 3 by 3 mm primary square.

50. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The blood cells are diluted in specific diluting fluid to keep the cells intact
2. RBC diluting fluid (Hayem’s) is isotonic with blood, hence haemolysis does not occur
3. The blood is diluted 1:200 times with RBC diluting fluid and the cells are counted under 45X objective of the microscope
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The blood cells are diluted in specific diluting fluid to keep the cells intact. RBC diluting fluid (Hayem’s) is hypertonic with blood, hence haemolysis does not occur. The blood is diluted 1:200 times with RBC diluting fluid and the cells are counted under 45X objective of the microscope.

51. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The diluting fluid used for WBC count is Turk’s solution which contains glacial acetic acid and Gentian violet.
2. The glacial acetic acid lyses the red blood cells and the Gentian violet stains the nuclei of the leucocytes
3. The total number of cells counted is expressed in mm³
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The diluting fluid used for WBC count is Turk’s solution which contains glacial acetic acid and Gentian violet. The glacial acetic acid lyses the red blood cells and the Gentian violet stains the nuclei of the leucocytes. The blood is diluted 1:20 times and the cell are counted under 10X objective of the microscope. The total number of cells counted is expressed in mm³.

52. Match the following

1. Neutrophil 1. 2-8%
2. Eosinophil 2. 50-70%
3. Basophil 3. 1-4%
4. Monocyte 4. 0-1%
5. 2, 1, 3, 4
6. 1, 3, 2, 4
7. 2, 3, 4, 1
8. 3, 1, 2, 4

Explanation

53. Which of the following chemical formulations are filled in hollow blood vessels in X-ray imaging technique?

a) Iron and Tin

b) Barium and Iodine

c) Silicon and Germanium

d) Sodium and Potassium

Explanation

X- ray imaging is used for diagnosing the disease of the heart, lungs and fractures of bones and joints. It is also used to visualize hollow organs and blood vessels by filling them with certain chemical formulations containing barium and iodine.

54. Which of this instrument is operated by the piezo electric effect?

a) X-ray

b) Ultrasound

c) EEG

d) Glucometer

Explanation

Ultrasound waves are produced by a physical phenomenon known as Piezo-electric effect.

55. Which of the following instruments needed no training to operate?

a) Glucometer

b) Digital sphygmomanometer

c) Electroencephalogram

d) Both a and b

Explanation

Digital sphygmomanometer detects systolic and diastolic pressures by an oscillometric detector. It is easy to use even without training. Glucometer requires no calculation and no training is required for operating the instrument.

56. What is the origin of the word tomography?

a) Latin

b) Greek

c) Arab

d) Roman

Explanation

The word tomography is derived from the Greek word tomos means slice and graphe means to write.

57. Which of this technique is used to manipulate data’s of a CT scan?

a) Blocking

b) Tracing

c) Reflecting

d) Windowing

Explanation

CT produces volumes of data which can be manipulated through a process known as windowing in order to demonstrate various structures based on their ability to block the X ray beam.

58. Which of the following is not an important significance of CT scanning?

a) Used to hear foetal heart sound.

b) To measure bone mineral density.

c) Gives a clear image of bone, soft tissues and blood vessels.

d) To detect cancer, heart and lung disorders.

Explanation

Clinical significance of Computed Tomographic (CT) Scanning: Gives a clear image of bone, soft tissues and blood vessels. Helps in the diagnosis of injuries of the inner ears and sinuses. To detect cancer, heart and lung disorders. For diagnosis of spinal problems and skeletal injuries. Helps to measure bone mineral density. To detect stroke causing clots and hemorrhage in the brain.

59. In which of these a MR examination is not used?

a) Chest, abdomen tumours

b) Foetus in the womb

c) Haemorrhage Brain

d) Congenital heart disease

Explanation

Physicians use an MR examination to help diagnose or monitor treatment for conditions such as Tumors of the chest, abdomen or pelvis. Diseases of the liver, inflammatory bowel disease, heart problems, such as congenital heart disease. Malformation of the blood vessels and inflammation of the vessels (vasculitis). A foetus in the womb of a pregnant woman. Visualizing injuries, torn ligaments especially in areas like wrist ankle or knee.

60. Which of these cells provide power to the pacemaker system?

a) Silicon

b) Lithium-Halide cells

c) Cesium

d) Graphene

Explanation

The pacemaker system consists of pulse generator and an electrode. The

pulse generator is a sealed box which contains lithium-halide cells to provide power and an electronic circuit to regulate the rate and pulse width of the electrical impulse.

61. Which of this condition is called as Tachycardia?

a) High Blood pressure

b) Too high heart beat

c) Malformation of blood vessels

d) Brain haemorrhage

Explanation

Generally heart rate is low when resting. It’s a sign of good health. When it is too low the condition is called bradycardia. But with bradycardia, it goes down to less than 60 beat a minute. When the heart beat is too high it is called tachycardia.

62. In which of these applications use smaller efficient laser systems?

a) Laparoscopy

b) Bronchoscopy

c) Endoscopy

d) All the above

Explanation

Lasers are commonly used superficially for cutaneous and ocular applications; smaller efficient laser delivery systems are available for minimally invasive applications including endoscopy, bronchoscopy, laparoscopy, and endovenous ablation.

63. Which of the following is used for counting the WBC in haemocytometer?

a) Hydrochloric acid

b) Turk’s solution

c) Seltzer solution

d) All the above

Explanation

The diluting fluid used for WBC count in haemocytometer is Turk’s solution which contains glacial acetic acid and Gentian violet.

64. Which of these acids is used to lyse the red blood cells in the haemocytometer?

a) Sulphuric acid

b) Oxalic acid

c) Boric acid

d) Glacial acetic acid

Explanation

The glacial acetic acid lyses the red blood cells and the Gentian violet stains the nuclei of the leucocytes. The blood is diluted 1:20 times and the cells are counted fewer than 10X objective of the microscope.

65. Choose the correct statements about the differential WBC count method?

i) Various types of red blood cells are counted by examining the blood smear.

ii) Number of each white blood cell is expressed as a percentage of total number of cells.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

The differential WBC count is the method in which the numbers of different types of white blood cells present in the blood are counted by examining a well stained peripheral blood smear. The number of each type of white blood cell is then expressed as a percentage of the total number of cells counted.

11th Science Lesson 4 Questions in English

4] Work, Energy And Power

1. Assertion (A): Physics defines work as the work done by a force when applied on a body.

Reasoning(R): Work refers to both physical and mental work.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The term work is used in diverse contexts in daily life. It refers to both physical as well as mental work. In fact, any activity can generally be called as work. But in Physics, the term work is treated as a physical quantity with a precise definition. Work is said to be done by the force when the force applied on a body displaces it.

2. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Energy is defined as the ability to do work.

ii) Work and energy are not same in definition and dimensions.

iii) Energy exists in various forms as Electrical, Thermal and Mechanical and so on.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

To do work, energy is required. In simple words, energy is defined as the ability to do work. Hence, work and energy are equivalents and have same dimension. Energy, in Physics exists in different forms such as mechanical, electrical, thermal, and nuclear and so on.

3. Assertion (A): Work is a scalar quantity which has only magnitude and no direction.

Reasoning(R): The scalar product of two vectors is a scalar.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The product F. dr is a scalar product (or dot product). The scalar product of two vectors is a scalar. Thus, work done is a scalar quantity. It has only magnitude and no direction

4. What is the dimensional formula of work done on a object?

a) MT^-1

b) ML^-2T

c) ML²T^-2

d) ML²T^-2

Explanation

In SI system, unit of work done is N m (or) joule (J). Its dimensional formula is [ML²T^-2].

5. The angle value of the work is calculated between the force and ____.

a) Velocity

b) Equilibrium position

c) Displacement

d) Center point

Explanation

W= F dr cosθ which can be realized using the below diagram.

where, θ is the angle between applied force and the displacement of the body.

6. Which of this value is not related to the work done on an object?

a) Force

b) Angular momentum

c) Displacement

d) Angle between force and displacement

Explanation

The work done by the force depends on the force (F), displacement (dr) and the angle (θ) between them.

7. In which of the following cases the work done may not be zero?

a) Ideal situation

b) Zero displacement

c) Minimum gravity

d) Force value is zero

Explanation

Work done is zero in the following cases. When the force is zero (F = 0). For example, a body moving on a horizontal smooth frictionless surface will continue to do so as no force (not even friction) is acting along the plane. (This is an ideal situation.). When the displacement is zero (dr = 0). For example, when force is applied on a rigid wall it does not produce any displacement.

8. Which of this force does no work on a body if it moves in a horizontal direction?

a) Elastic force

b) Gravitational force

c) Electrostatic force

d) All the above

Explanation

When the force and displacement are perpendicular (θ = 90°) to each other. When a body moves on a horizontal direction, the gravitational force (mg) does no work on the body, since it acts at right angles to the displacement. In circular motion the centripetal force does not do work on the object moving on a circle as it is always perpendicular to the displacement.

9. Choose the incorrect statements.

i) The value of displacement by a given force to the body decides the work done.

ii) The goal keeper catching a ball towards him is an example of negative work.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

For a given force (F) and displacement (dr) the angle (θ) between them decides the value of work done. There are many examples for the negative work done by a force. In a football game, the goalkeeper catches the ball coming towards him by applying a force such that the force is applied in a direction opposite to that of the motion of the ball till it comes to rest in his hands. During the time of applying the force, he does a negative work on the ball.

10. A cart is pulled with a force of 50 N to produce a displacement of 25 m. If the angle between the force and displacement is 45°, find the work done by the force.

a) 883.86 J

b) 280.45 N

c) 885.86 J/ s

d) 581.72 J

Explanation

Force, F = 50 N , Displacement, dr = 25 m, Angle between F and dr, θ = 45°,

Work done, W= F dr cosθ

W= 50 ×25 × cos45° = 50 ×25 × 0.7071

W= 883.86 J

11. Match.

Angle Work

A. 180° i) Positive

B. 0< θ < 90° ii) Zero

C. 0° iii) Maximum negative

D. 90° iv) Maximum positive

a) i, iv, iii, ii

b) iii, i, iv, ii

c) ii, i, iv, iii

d) iv, i, iii, ii

Explanation

Angle (θ) and the nature of work

12. What is the value of angle between the force and displacement if an object is thrown upwards from the ground?

a) 0°

b) 90°

c) 180°

d) < 90°

Explanation

When the object goes up the displacement points in the upward direction whereas the gravitational force acting on the object points in downward direction. Therefore the angle between gravitational force and displacement of the object is 180°.

13. Calculate the work done by the gravity when a weight lifter lifts a mass of 250 kg with a force 5000 N to the height of 5 m.

a) -12.5k J

b) 0 J

c) 12.5 k J

d) 50 J

Explanation

When the weight lifter lifts the mass, the gravity acts downwards which means that the force and displacement are in opposite direction. Therefore, the angle between them 180° W gravity = F h mg hg cos 180°= – 12.5 k J

14. State the component of variable force F acting on a body to do a small work dW?

a) F cos q

b) F dr

c) F tan q

d) F

Explanation

When the component of a variable force F acts on a body, the small work done (dW) by the force in producing a small displacement dr is given by the relation dW­ ‑F cosdr [F cos q is the component of the variable force F]

15. Which of the following is not true regarding energy and work?

a) The capacity to do work is defined as the energy.

b) The dimension of the energy is ML^-2 T²

c) Work and Energy have the same dimension.

d) Work done on an object is the manifestation of energy.

Explanation

Energy is defined as the capacity to do work. In other words, work done is the manifestation of energy. That is why work and energy have the same dimension (ML ²T^-2)

16. Which of the following statements are not true?

a) For an isolated system the sum of all forms of energy is same.

b) The internal changes will affect the total energy of an isolated system.

c) Energy disappearing in one form will appear in another form.

d) Law of conservation energy defines for an isolated system.

Explanation

The important aspect of energy is that for an isolated system, the sum of all forms of energy i.e., the total energy remains the same in any process irrespective of whatever internal changes may take place. This means that the energy disappearing in one form reappears in another form. This is known as the law of conservation of energy.

17. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) The Frictional forces are classified into two types as Kinetic and Potential energy.

ii) Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body due to its motion.

iii) The energy possessed by the body by virtue of its position is known as potential energy.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

In a broader sense, mechanical energy is classified into two types, Kinetic energy and Potential energy. The energy possessed by a body due to its motion is called kinetic energy. The energy possessed by the body by virtue of its position is called potential energy.

18. What is the SI unit of the energy?

a) N m

b) J/ s

c) N m-1

d) J s-2

Explanation

The SI unit of energy is the same as that of work done i.e., N m (or) joule (J). The dimension of energy is also the same as that of work done. It is given by [ML2T-2].

19. Match

A. 1 electron volt i) 4.186 J

B. 1 erg ii) 1.6 x 10^-19J

C. 1 kilowatt hour iii) 10^-7J

D. 1 calorie iv) 3.6 x 10⁶J

a) iv, iii, i, ii

b) i, iv, ii, iii

c) ii, iii, iv, i

d) iii, i, ii, iv

Explanation

SI equivalent of other units of energy

20. Assertion (A): Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion.

Reasoning(R): All moving objects have kinetic energy.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Kinetic energy is the energy possessed by a body by virtue of its motion. All moving objects have kinetic energy. A body that is in motion has the ability to do work. For example a hammer kept at rest on a nail does not push the nail into the wood. Whereas the same hammer when it strikes the nail, draws the nail into the wood.

21. Which of the values are dependent on the Kinetic energy of a body?

a) Mass of the body

b) Magnitude of velocity

c) Potential energy

d) Both a and b

Explanation

Kinetic energy is measured by the amount of work that the body can perform before it comes to rest. The amount of work done by a moving body depends both on the mass of the body and the magnitude of its velocity. A body which is not in motion does not have kinetic energy.

22. What is the expression for a constant force?

a) F = ma

b) F = -dv/dt

c) F = g dx

d) F= ½ mv²

Explanation

The constant force is given by the equation, F =ma

23. State the expression for the kinetic energy with mass m and velocity v.

a) KE = ½ mv²

b) KE = mv²

c) KE = ma

d) KE = ¼ mv

Explanation

The expression for kinetic energy: The kinetic energy of the body of mass (m) moving with velocity (v).

24. Choose the correct statements.

i) The value of the Kinetic energy is always negative.

ii) The Kinetic energy is changed by the work done on the body.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Kinetic energy of the body is always positive. ­

The expression on the right hand side (RHS) of equation is the change in kinetic energy (ΔKE) of the body. This implies that the work done by the force on the body changes the kinetic energy of the body. This is called work-kinetic energy theorem.

25. Which of these are implied from the work-kinetic energy theorem?

a) The Kinetic energy is decreases if the work done by the force on the body is positive

b) The Kinetic energy is increased if the work done by force is negative.

c) No work done by the force on the body no change in the kinetic energy.

d) Body moving at a constant speed provides a variable mass.

Explanation

The work-kinetic energy theorem implies the following. If the work done by the force on the body is positive then its kinetic energy increases. If the work done by the force on the body is negative then its kinetic energy decreases. If there is no work done by the force on the body then there is no change in its kinetic energy, which means that the body has moved at constant speed provided its mass remains constant.

26. Assertion (A): The magnitude of the momentum is only calculated from the kinetic energy and the mass of the object.

Reasoning(R): The Kinetic energy and the mass are the scalars.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

If kinetic energy and mass are given, only the magnitude of the momentum can be calculated but not the direction of momentum. It is because the kinetic energy and mass are scalars.

27. Which of these factors is associated with the potential energy of a body?

a) Position and configuration

b) Gravity

c) Atomic structure

d) Mass

Explanation

The potential energy of a body is associated with its position and configuration with respect to its surroundings. This is because the various forces acting on the body also depends on position and configuration. “Potential energy of an object at a point P is defined as the amount of work done by an external force in moving the object at constant velocity from the point O (initial location) to the point P (final location). At initial point O potential energy can be taken as zero.

28. Which of the following statement is not true regarding the work-kinetic energy theorem?

a) Work done by the force is positive then the kinetic energy is increased.

b) The Kinetic energy is decreased if the work done by the force is negative.

c) If no work is done on the body then no change in its potential energy.

d) The body has a constant speed if its mass remains constant.

Explanation

The work-kinetic energy theorem implies the following. If the work done by the force on the body is positive then its kinetic energy increases. If the work done by the force on the body is negative then its kinetic energy decreases. If there is no work done by the force on the body then there is no change in its kinetic energy, which means that the body has moved at constant speed provided its mass remains constant.

29. Which of these is not a type of the potential energy?

a) Gravitational potential energy

b) Electrostatic potential energy

c) Angular potential energy

d) Elastic potential energy

Explanation

We have various types of potential energies. Each type is associated with a particular force. For example, The energy possessed by the body due to gravitational force gives rise to gravitational potential energy. The energy due to spring force and other similar forces give rise to elastic potential energy. The energy due to electrostatic force on charges gives rise to electrostatic potential energy.

30. Which of this value is constant in calculating the gravitational potential energy?

a) Velocity

b) Momentum

c) Work

d) Force

Explanation

The gravitational potential energy (U) at some height h is equal to the amount of work required to take the object from ground to that height h with constant velocity.

31. What is the value of the gravitational potential energy?

a) U = m g h

b) U= ma

c) U= ½ mv

d) U = v²

Explanation

The gravitational potential energy (U) at some height h is equal to the amount of work required to take the object from the ground to that height h.

Since the displacement and the applied force are in the same upward direction, the angle between them, ­θ= 0 Hence, cos0 =1 and F = mg and dr= dr

32. Assertion (A): Potential energy stored in an object is defined by the work done by the external positive force.

Reasoning(R): The external force transfers the energy to the object as potential energy.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The potential energy stored in the object is defined through work done by the external force which is positive. Physically this implies that the agency which is applying the external force is transferring the energy to the object which is then stored as potential energy. If the object is allowed to fall from a height h then the stored potential energy is converted into kinetic energy.

33. How can an object move with zero acceleration (constant velocity) when the external force is acting on the object?

a) Exact opposite force is applied externally to cancel each other.

b) When the acceleration of the external force is doubled.

c) When the object is allowed in a vacuum space.

d) If the gravitational force acting is at maximum value.

Explanation

It is possible when there is another force which acts exactly opposite to the external applied force. They both cancel each other and the resulting net force becomes zero, hence the object moves with zero acceleration.

34. Which of this value is kept as a constant value when defining the potential energy?

a) Energy

b) Acceleration

c) Velocity

d) Gravity force

Explanation

If the object does not move at constant velocity, then it will have different velocities at the initial and final locations. According to work kinetic energy theorem, the external force will impart some extra kinetic energy. But we associate potential energy to the forces like gravitational force, spring force and Coulomb force. So the external agency should not impart any kinetic energy when the object is taken from initial to final location.

35. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) A restoring force is developed in a spring when it is elongated.

ii) The Kinetic energy possessed by a spring due to deforming force is termed as elastic potential energy.

iii) The work done against the restoring force of a spring is stored as elastic potential energy.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

When a spring is elongated, it develops a restoring force. The potential energy possessed by a spring due to a deforming force which stretches or compresses the spring is termed as elastic potential energy. The work done by the applied force against the restoring force of the spring is stored as the elastic potential energy in the spring.

36. What is the sign of the restoring force developed in a spring?

a) Positive

b) Null

c) Negative

d) None of the above

Explanation

According Hooke’s law, the restoring force developed in the spring is  

The negative sign in the above expression implies that the spring force is always opposite to that of displacement x and k is the force constant. Therefore applied force is F_a = +kx. The positive sign implies that the applied force is in the direction of displacement x.

37. Which of this value is dependent on the spring force?

a) Displacement

b) Mass

c) Material

d) All the above

Explanation

The spring force is an example of variable force as it depends on the displacement x. Let the spring be stretched to a small distance dx. The work done by the applied force on the spring to stretch it by a displacement x is stored as elastic potential energy.

38. Choose the correct statements.

i) The applied force and the displacement in the spring action are opposite to each other.

ii) The initial position of the spring is taken as the equilibrium position or mean position.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

The applied force F_a and the displacement dr­ (i.e., here dx ) are in the same direction. As, the initial position is taken as the equilibrium position or mean position, x=0 is the lower limit of integration.

39. To which of these values the potential energy of the spring does not depend?

a) Mass

b) Velocity

c) Displacement

d) All the above

Explanation

The potential energy stored in the spring does not depend on the mass that is attached to the spring.

40. Which of the value can be calculated by the Force-displacement graph?

a) Linear momentum

b) Elastic potential energy

c) Kinetic energy

d) Mass of the spring

Explanation

Force-displacement graph for a spring: Since the restoring spring force and displacement are linearly related as F = – k x, and are opposite in direction, the graph between F and x is a straight line with dwelling only in the second and fourth quadrant. The elastic potential energy can be easily calculated by drawing a F – x graph. The shaded area (triangle) is the work done by the spring force.

41. What is the value of the energy of the spring in a frictionless environment?

a) Constant

b) Null

c) Infinity

d) Unity

Explanation

In a frictionless environment, the energy gets transferred from kinetic to potential and potential to kinetic repeatedly such that the total energy of the system remains constant. At the mean position, ∆KE = ∆U

42. Which of the value is dependent on the work done for a conservative force?

a) Initial and final positions of the body.

b) Initial and final velocity of the body.

c) Path followed by the Initial and final positions.

d) All the above

Explanation

Conservative force: A force is said to be a conservative force if the work done by or against the force in moving the body depends only on the initial and final positions of the body and not on the nature of the path followed between the initial and final positions.

43. What is the value of the conservative force?

a) Positive gradient of the Potential energy.

b) Negative gradient of the Kinetic energy.

c) Negative gradient of the Potential energy.

d) Positive gradient of the gravitational energy.

Explanation

Whatever may be the path, the work done against the gravitational force is the same as long as the initial and final positions are the same. This is the reason why gravitational force is a conservative force. Conservative force is equal to the negative gradient of the potential energy.

44. Which of the following is not a frictional force?

a) Elastic spring force

b) Frictional force

c) Magnetic force

d) Gravitational force

Explanation

Examples for conservative forces are elastic spring force, electrostatic force, magnetic force, gravitational force, etc.

45. A Conservative force is,

i) Work done is independent of the path.

ii) Work done in a round trip is not zero.

iii) Completely recoverable work done.

iv) Total energy is dissipated as heat.

a) i, ii, iv only

b) ii, iii, iv only

c) i, iii only

d) ii, iv only

46. Which of the following is not true regarding the Non-conservative forces?

a) Work done is completely recoverable.

b) Work done in a round trip is not zero.

c) Work done depends upon the path.

d) Energy dissipated as heat energy.

47. Which of these force is the negative gradient of the potential energy?

a) Conservative forces

b) Non-conservative forces

c) Both a and b

d) Neither a nor b

Explanation

Comparison of conservative and non-conservative forces

48. To which of this value the work done is dependent for a non-conservative force?

a) Potential energy of the body

b) Initial velocity of the body

c) Path between the initial and final positions.

d) Total energy dissipated.

Explanation

Non-conservative force: A force is said to be non-conservative if the work done by or against the force in moving a body depends upon the path between the initial and final positions. This means that the value of work done is different in different paths.

49. Which of the forces are classified as non-conservative forces?

a) Frictional forces

b) Air resistance force

c) Viscous force

d) All the above

Explanation

Frictional forces are non-conservative forces as the work done against friction depends on the length of the path moved by the body. The force due to air resistance, viscous force are also non-conservative forces as the work done by or against these forces depends upon the velocity of motion.

50. Which of the energy is at highest point of an object thrown upwards?

a) Potential energy

b) Gravitational energy

c) Kinetic energy

d) None of the above

Explanation

When an object is thrown upwards its kinetic energy goes on decreasing and consequently its potential energy keeps increasing (neglecting air resistance). When it reaches the highest point its energy is completely potential.

51. What is the intermediate point value of an object falling from a height?

a) Potential energy

b) Both Kinetic and Potential energy

c) Kinetic energy

d) Null

Explanation

When the object falls back from a height its kinetic energy increases whereas its potential energy decreases. When it touches the ground its energy is completely kinetic. At the intermediate points the energy is both kinetic and potential.

52. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) When an object reaches the ground from a height kinetic energy is stored as work done.

ii) The energy transformation takes place at every point of travel from a height to ground.

iii) By the law of conservation of energy the total mechanical energy remains constant.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

When the body reaches the ground the kinetic energy is completely dissipated into some other form of energy like sound, heat, light and deformation of the body etc. In this example the energy transformation takes place at every point. The sum of kinetic energy and potential energy i.e., the total mechanical energy always remains constant, implying that the total energy is conserved. This is stated as the law of conservation of energy.

53. What is the value of the total energy of an isolated system by the law of conservation?

a) Constant

b) Zero

c) Maximum

d) Minimum

Explanation

The law of conservation of energy states that energy can neither be created nor destroyed. It may be transformed from one form to another but the total energy of an isolated system remains constant.

54. Which of the following is not related to power?

a) Power is the rate of work done or energy delivered.

b) Power is the ratio of the work done and the time taken.

c) Power is not an important factor of a moving object.

d) Power is a measure of how fast or slow a work is done.

Explanation

Power is a measure of how fast or slow a work is done. Power is defined as the rate of work done or energy delivered. Power P = work done / time taken = W/ t

55. The average power is the ratio between total work done to the total _______.

a) Displacement

b) Energy

c) Time

d) None of the above

Explanation

Average power: The average power (P_av) is defined as the ratio of the total work done to the total time taken. P_av = total work done / total time taken

56. What is the value of the instantaneous power?

a) P _inst = dV/ dt

b) P _inst = dW/dt

c) P _inst = d M/ dt

d) P _inst = d A / dt

Explanation

Instantaneous power: The instantaneous power (P _inst) is defined as the power delivered at an instant (as time interval approaches zero), P _inst = dW/dt

57. Choose the correct statements.

i) Power is a vector quantity.

ii) The dimension of power is ML^-2T^-3

iii) The SI unit of power is watt (W).

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Power is a scalar quantity. Its dimension is [ML²T^-3]. The SI unit of power is watt (W), named after the inventor of the steam engine James Watt. One watt is defined as the power when one joule of work is done in one second, (1 W = 1 J s–1).

58. Which of this value is not a higher unit of energy?

a) Kilowatt

b) Megawatt

c) Watt / hour

d) Gigawatt

Explanation

The higher units are kilowatt (kW), megawatt (MW), and Gigawatt (GW).

1kW = 1000 W = 10³watt

1MW = 10⁶ watt

1GW = 10⁹ watt

59. How many watts power is equal to one horse power?

a) 500 W

b) 746 W

c) 250 W

d) 460 W

Explanation

For motors engines and some automobiles an old unit of power still commercially in use which is called as the horse-power (hp). We have a conversion for horse-power (hp) into watt (W) which is, 1 hp = 746 W

60. In which of this unit the electrical energy is measured?

a) Joule

b) Watt hour

c) Kilowatt hour

d) Joule / second

Explanation

Measuring the electrical energy in a small unit watt second (W s) leads to handling large numerical values. Hence, electrical energy is measured in the unit called kilowatt hour (kWh).1 electrical unit = 1 kWh = 1 × (10³ W) × (3600 s). 1 electrical unit = 3600×10³ W s. 1 electrical unit = 3.6×10⁶ J. 1 kWh = 3.6×10⁶ J

61. Calculate the energy consumed in electrical units when a 50 W fan is used for 5 hours daily for one month (30 days).

a) 12

b) 12000

c) 120

d) 24k

Explanation

Electrical energy = power × time of usage = P × t = 50 x 240 watt hour = 12000 W h= 12kWh

1 electrical unit = 1kWh

Electrical energy unit =12

62. Match

A. LED i) 1000hours

B. Incandescent lamps ii) 6000 hours

C. CFL iii) 50000 hours

a) iii, i, ii

b) ii, iii, i

c) i, iii, ii

d) ii, i, iii

Explanation

Incandescent lamps glow for 1000 hours. CFL lamps glow for 6000 hours. But LED lamps glow for 50000 hrs (almost 25 years at 5.5 hour per day).

63. Choose the correct statements.

i) A Collision can happen only between two bodies with physical contacts.

ii) Carom boards, Billiards and Marbles are example for collision.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Collision is a common phenomenon that happens around us every now and then. For example, carom, billiards, marbles, etc. Collisions can happen between two bodies with or without physical contacts.

64. Which of this factor is changed during a collision time?

a) Momentum

b) Mass

c) Angular displacement

d) Structure

Explanation

Linear momentum is conserved in all collision processes. When two bodies collide, the mutual impulsive forces acting between them during the collision time (Δt) produces a change in their respective momenta. That is, the first body exerts a forceF₂₁ on the second body. From Newton’s third law, the second body exerts a forceF₁₂ on the first body. This causes a change in momentum Δp₁ and Δp₂ of the first body and second body respectively.

65. Which of the following is used to find the total momentum in collision?

a) Vector addition

b) Scalar subtraction

c) Vector multiplication

d) Scalar addition

Explanation

The momentum is a vector quantity. Hence, vector addition has to be followed to find the total momentum of the individual bodies in collision.

66. Choose the correct statements.

i) The Total linear momentum, total energy and the total kinetic energy are always conserved in a collision process.

ii) The whole kinetic energy is transformed to other forms of energy after a collision.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both I and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

In any collision process, the total linear momentum and total energy are always conserved whereas the total kinetic energy need not be conserved always. Some part of the initial kinetic energy is transformed to other forms of energy.

67. How many types of collision are classified?

a) 5

b) 3

c) 2

d) 4

Explanation

By taking these effects into account, we classify the types of collisions as follows: Elastic collision, Inelastic collision.

68. What is the condition required for an elastic collision?

a) The total kinetic energy before and after collision are equal.

b) The total kinetic energy before the collision is less than the kinetic energy after collision.

c) The total kinetic energy before and after collision are equal to infinity.

d) The total kinetic energy before the collision is less than the kinetic energy after collision.

Explanation

Elastic collision: In a collision, the total initial kinetic energy of the bodies (before collision) is equal to the total final kinetic energy of the bodies (after collision) then, it is called as elastic collision. i.e., Total kinetic energy before collision = Total kinetic energy after collision

69. Choose the incorrect statements.

i) In an inelastic collision the total kinetic energy of the bodies is not equal to the total kinetic energy of the bodies.

ii) Both the total energy and the kinetic energy and the losses are conserved in a inelastic collision.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Inelastic collision: In a collision, the total initial kinetic energy of the bodies (before collision) is not equal to the total final kinetic energy of the bodies (after collision) then, it is called as inelastic collision. Total kinetic energy before collision ≠ Total kinetic energy after collision. Even though kinetic energy is not conserved but the total energy is conserved. This is because the total energy contains the kinetic energy term and also a term ΔQ, which includes all the losses that take place during collision.

70. Which of the following is known as complete or perfect inelastic collision?

a) The Total energy before and after collision is equal to zero.

b) If the total kinetic energy is transferred to another form of energy.

c) If two colliding bodies stick together after collision.

d) The Total energy is equal to the loss in kinetic energy after collision.

Explanation

The loss in kinetic energy during collision is transformed to another form of energy like sound, thermal, etc. Further, if the two colliding bodies stick together after collision such collisions are known as completely inelastic collision or perfectly inelastic collision. Such a collision is found very often. For example when a clay putty is thrown on a moving vehicle, the clay putty (or Bubblegum) sticks to the moving vehicle and they move together with the same velocity

71. Which of the following is not true regarding the Elastic collision?

a) Total momentum is conserved.

b) Conservative forces are involved.

c) Total Kinetic energy is not conserved.

d) Mechanical energy is not dissipated.

Explanation

Comparison between elastic and inelastic collisions

72. Choose the correct statements regarding the Inelastic collision.

i) Non-conservative forces are involved.

ii) Mechanical energy is not dissipated.

iii) Total kinetic energy is conserved.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

73. What is the dimension of the coefficient of restitution?

a) m

b) s

c) No dimension

d) f

Explanation

Total kinetic energy before collision: The amount of kinetic energy after the collision of two bodies, in general can be measured through a dimensionless number called the coefficient of restitution (COR)

74. Which of this relative factor is accounted for calculating the Coefficient of restitution?

a) Velocity

b) Mass

c) Momentum

d) Acceleration

Explanation

Coefficient of restitution (COR) is defined as the ratio of velocity of separation (relative velocity) after collision to the velocity of approach (relative velocity) before collision.

75. Choose the correct statements.

i) In ideal condition the value of restitution coefficient is equal to zero.

ii) In any real collision both the potential and kinetic energy have some losses.

iii) If the velocity separation is zero after a collision then the value of coefficient of restitution is also zero.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

In any real collision problems, there will be some losses in kinetic energy due to collision, which means e is not always equal to unity. If the ball is perfectly plastic, it will never bounce back and therefore their separation of velocity is zero after the collision. Hence, the value of coefficient of restitution, e = 0.

76. What is the range of the restitution coefficient value of a material?

a) 0< e < 1

b) -1 < e < 1

c) 0 < e < 10

d) 0 < e < ∞

Explanation

In general, the coefficient of restitution for a material lies between 0 < e <1.

77. At which of these conditions the work done will be negative?

a) θ = 90°

b) Cos θ = 1

c) 90° < θ < 180°

d) θ = 180

Explanation

78. Calculate the work done by the gravitational force on a 5kg object falls from a height of 10 m to the ground if g = 10 ms^-2.

a) 500J

b) 100J/kg

c) 50 J

d) 10J

Explanation

In this case the force acting on the object is downward gravitational force mg. This is a constant force.

The object also moves downward which is in the direction of gravitational force. Hence, the angle between them is θ = 0°; cosθ=1 and the displacement r_f – r_i =10 m

W=5 *10 (10) = 500J

79. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the Kinetic energy?

a) Mass and Kinetic energy is not enough to calculate the magnitude of momentum.

b) Kinetic energy is a vector.

c) Direction of momentum can be found by using Kinetic energy.

d) Mass And Kinetic energy are scalar quantities.

Explanation

If kinetic energy and mass are given, only the magnitude of the momentum can be calculated but not the direction of momentum. It is because the kinetic energy and mass are scalars.

80. Two objects of different mass have same momentum then,

a) The Kinetic energy of both masses is same.

b) The Kinetic energy is inversely proportional to the mass.

c) Two objects will have same speed.

d) The kinetic energy of smaller mass will have less kinetic energy.

Explanation

Two masses are having the same momentum, the kinetic energy of both masses is not the same. The kinetic energy of the heavier object has lesser kinetic energy than smaller mass. It is because the kinetic energy is inversely proportional to the mass (KE ∝ 1/m) for a given momentum. As the momentum, p = mv, the two objects will not have same speed.

81. Calculate the potential energy stored in the object of mass 20 kg is taken to a height 15 m from the ground g=10ms^-2.

a) 30J

b) 3000J

c) 200J

d) 1500J

Explanation

The potential energy U= mg h = 20 x 15×10= 3000 J. Here the positive sign implies that the energy is stored on the mass.

82. At which of these given positions the Kinetic energy and potential energy will be equal for a spring in a frictionless environment?

a) Initial position

b) Peak position

c) Mean position

d) All the above

Explanation

A compressed or extended spring will transfer its stored potential energy into kinetic energy of the mass attached to the spring. The potential energy-displacement graph is

In a frictionless environment, the energy gets transferred from kinetic to potential and potential to kinetic repeatedly such that the total energy of the system remains constant. At the mean position, Δ KE =ΔU.

83. In which spring more work has to be done if they are stretched by the same force if the two springs A and B be such that Kinetic energy of A is greater than B?

a) More work is done on B than A.

b) No work is done on A and B.

c) Equal work is done in both A and B.

d) Less work is done on B than A.

Explanation

The work done on the springs are stored as potential energy in the springs.

kA >kB implies that UB>UA . Thus, more work is done on B than A.

84. What is the value of work done by an applied force to the spring attached to the body of mass m elongated from its equilibrium position?

a) Maximum

b) Negative

c) Zero

d) Minimum

Explanation

The work done Ws by the spring force F is given by,

The spring force acts in the negative x direction while elongation acts in the positive x direction. The potential energy is defined through the work done by the external agency. The positive sign in the potential energy implies that the energy is transferred from the agency to the object. But the work done by the restoring force in this case is negative since restoring force is in the opposite direction to the displacement direction.

85. Calculate the total energy of an object of mass 10 kg is falling from the height h = 5 m if g= 10 ms^-2.

a) 0 J

b) 500 J

c) 5 J

d) 100J

Explanation

The gravitational force is a conservative force. So the total energy remains constant throughout the motion. At h =10 m, the total energy E is entirely potential energy.

E= U= mgh = 10 x 10 x 5 J

86. Choose the correct statement.

i) Electricity bills are generated in units of kWh.

ii) One unit of electrical energy is 100 kWh.

iii) KWh is the unit of power.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Electricity bills are generated in units of kWh for electrical energy consumption. 1 unit of electrical energy is 1 kWh. kWh is unit of energy and not of power.

87. Which of these are produced due to the impact of collisions?

a) Heat

b) Sound

c) Light

d) All the above

Explanation

The impact of collisions and deformation occurring due to collisions may in general produce heat, sound, light etc.

11th Science Lesson 5 Questions in English

5] Gravitation

1. Which of these 17^th century theory explained the motion of celestial and terrestrial objects?

a) Atomic Theory

b) Theory of Gravitation

c) Theory of Relativity

d) Quantum Theory

Explanation

The ‘Theory of Gravitation’ was developed by Newton in the late 17^thcentury to explain the motion of celestial objects and terrestrial objects and answer most of the queries raised. In spite of the study of gravitation and its effect on celestial objects, spanning last three centuries, “gravitation” is still one of the active areas of research in physics today.

2. For which of this discovery Albert Einstein was awarded Nobel Prize in 2017?

a) Gravitational Waves

b) Plank’s constant

c) Earth distance from the Sun

d) Solar system

Explanation

In 2017, the Nobel Prize in Physics was given for the detection of ‘Gravitational waves’ which was theoretically predicted by Albert Einstein in the year 1915.

3. Who was the first person to explain the geocentric model?

a) Aristotle

b) Claudius Ptolemy

c) Copernicus

d) Albert Einstein

Explanation

In the second century, Claudius Ptolemy, a famous Greco-Roman astronomer, developed a theory to explain the motion of celestial objects like the Sun, the Moon, Mars, and Jupiter etc. This theory was called the geocentric model.

4. Choose the correct statements.

i) The Earth is at the centre of the universe and all celestial objects orbit the earth except the Sun in the geocentric model.

ii) Ptolemy’s model does not match with the naked eye observations of Sky.

iii) Ptolemy’s model did not explain the motion of Mars and Jupiter effectively.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

According to the geocentric model, the Earth is at the centre of the universe and all celestial objects including the Sun, the Moon, and other planets orbit the Earth. Ptolemy’s model closely matched with the observations of the sky with our naked eye. But later, astronomers found that even though Ptolemy’s model successfully explained the motion of the Sun and the Moon up to a certain level, the motion of Mars and Jupiter could not be explained effectively.

5. In which century Nicholas Copernicus proposed the heliocentric model?

a) 2^nd century

b) 15^th century

c) 20^th century

d) 17^th century

Explanation

In the 15th century, a Polish astronomer, Nicholas Copernicus (1473-1543) proposed a new model called the ‘Heliocentric model’.

6. Which of the following is not correct regarding the heliocentric model?

a) The Nicholas Copernicus proposed the heliocentric model was an American astronomer.

b) The Sun was considered to be at the centre of the solar system.

c) All the planets orbited the Sun in circular orbits.

d) Heliocentric model explained the motion of all celestial objects.

Explanation

A Polish astronomer, Nicholas Copernicus (1473-1543) proposed a new model heliocentric model. In the ‘Heliocentric model’ the Sun was considered to be at the centre of the solar system and all planets including the Earth orbited the Sun in circular orbits. This model successfully explained the motion of all celestial objects.

7. Who discovered that all objects are accelerated towards the Earth?

a) Tycho

b) Copernicus

c) Galileo

d) Kepler

Explanation

Around the same time, Galileo, a famous Italian physicist discovered that all objects close to Earth were accelerated towards the Earth at the same rate.

8. Whose observations were used to form the Kepler’s law of planetary motion?

a) Tycho Brahe

b) Johannes Kepler

c) Albert Einstein

d) Nicholas Copernicus

Explanation

A noble man called Tycho Brahe (1546-1601) spent his entire lifetime in recording the observations of the stellar and planetary positions with his naked eye. The data that he compiled were analysed later by his assistant Johannes Kepler (1571–1630) and eventually the analysis led to the deduction of the laws of the planetary motion. These laws are termed as ‘Kepler’s laws of planetary motion’.

9. Which of these statements are not true regarding the Kepler’s law of Orbits?

i) All the planets move around the Sun in an elliptical orbit.

ii) The Closest point of approach of the planet to the Sun foci is called as perihelion.

iii) Copernicus and Ptolemy considered the planets orbits to be elliptical around the Sun.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Kepler’s laws are stated as follows: Law of orbits: Each planet moves around the Sun in an elliptical orbit with the Sun at one of the foci. The closest point of approach of the planet to the Sun ‘P’ is called perihelion and the farthest point ‘A’ is called aphelion. The semi-major axis is ‘a’ and semi-minor axis is ‘b’. In fact, both Copernicus and Ptolemy considered planetary orbits to be circular, but Kepler discovered that the actual orbits of the planets are elliptical.

10. Assertion (A): The Planets travel at varying speeds around the Sun to cover equal area in equal intervals of time.

Reasoning(R): The Sun is not at the centre of ellipse so the planets travel faster near the sun and slower when they are farther.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The radial vector (line joining the Sun to a planet) sweeps equal areas in equal intervals of time. The white shaded portion is the area DA swept in a small interval of time Dt, by a planet around the Sun. Since the Sun is not at the centre of the ellipse, the planets travel faster when they are nearer to the Sun and slower when they are farther from it, to cover equal area in equal intervals of time. Kepler discovered the law of area by carefully noting the variation in the speed of planets.

11. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the time period of revolution of a planet around the sun?

a) The square of the revolution time is directly proportional to the cube of semi-major axis of the ellipse.

b) The Planets revolve around the elliptical orbit of the Sun.

c) The distance of the planet from the Sun and the time period of revolution vary at the same rate.

d) The Distance of the planet from the Sun increases and the revolution time period decreases.

Explanation

The square of the time period of revolution of a planet around the Sun in its elliptical orbit is directly proportional to the cube of the semi-major axis of the ellipse. It can be written as: where, T is the time period of revolution for a planet and a is the semi-major axis. Physically this law implies that as the distance of the planet from the Sun increases, the time period also increases but not at the same rate.

12. State the constant value relating Kepler’s third law.

a) T⁵ / a⁴

b) T² / a³

c) T³ / a⁵

d) T² / a

Explanation

The time period of revolution of planets around the Sun along with their semi-major axes are given. We can realize that T² / a³ are nearly a constant endorsing Kepler’s third law.

13. Which of the planet takes around 165 years around the Sun?

a) Mars

b) Neptune

c) Uranus

d) Jupiter

14. Identify the Incorrect Match of the Planet and the revolution time around the sun.

A. Venus i) 0.615yrs

B. Jupiter ii) 29.55yrs

C. Uranus iii) 84yrs

D. Mars iv) 1.88yrs

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

15. Which of the following planets have the highest semi-major axis?

a) Earth

b) Saturn

c) Venus

d) Uranus

Explanation

The time period of revolution of the planets revolving around the Sun and their semi-major axes.

16. Which of these laws endorse the value of the T² / a³ as constant?

a) Kepler’s third law

b) Newton theory

c) Gravitational theory

d) None of the above

Explanation

The time period of revolution of planets around the Sun along with their semi-major axes are given. we can realize that T² / a³ is nearly a constant endorsing Kepler’s third law.

17. Which of the following person analysed the Kepler’s law?

a) Galileo

b) Isaac Newton

c) Albert Einstein

d) Copernicus

Explanation

Even though Kepler’s laws were able to explain the planetary motion, they failed to explain the forces responsible for it. It was Isaac Newton who analysed Kepler’s laws, Galileo’s observations and deduced the law of gravitation.

18. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Newton’s law of gravitation states that any particle is attracted by other particle with an attractive force.

ii) The strength of the attraction force is directly proportional to the product of the masses.

iii) The Square of the distance between the particles is also directly varies proportional to the force of attraction.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Newton’s law of gravitation states that a particle of mass M1 attracts any other particle of mass M2 in the universe with an attractive force. The strength of this force of attraction was found to be directly proportional to the product of their masses and is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

19. What is the value of the gravitational constant?

a) 6.67 x 10 ^-10 Nm²kg

b) 6.67 x 10 ^-11 Nm²kg^-2

c) 6.67 x 10 ¹⁷ Nmkg^-2

d) 6.67 x 10 ^-15 Nm²kg^-2

Explanation

G is the Gravitational constant that has the value of 6.67 x 10 ^-11 Nm²kg^-2

20. Which of this planet may experience less gravitational force from the sun?

a) Earth

b) Jupiter

c) Mercury

d) Mars

Explanation

As the distance between two masses increases, the strength of the force tends to decrease because of inverse dependence on r2. Physically it implies that the planet Uranus experiences less gravitational force from the Sun than the Earth since Uranus is at larger distance from the Sun compared to the Earth.

21. Assertion (A): The reaction force is exerted by the Earth on the Sun is directed towards the Earth.

Reasoning(R): The gravitational forces between two particles always constitute an action-reaction pair.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The gravitational forces between two particles always constitute an action- reaction pair. It implies that the gravitational force exerted by the Sun on the Earth is always towards the Sun. The reaction-force is exerted by the Earth on the Sun. The direction of this reaction force is towards Earth.

22. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) The Earth’s angular momentum about the Sun is constant throughout the motion.

ii) The torque experienced by the Earth due to gravitational force of the Sun is a constant scalar.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) None of the above

Explanation

The torque experienced by the Earth due to the gravitational force of the Sun is given by L is a constant vector. The angular momentum of the Earth about the Sun is constant throughout the motion. It is true for all the planets. In fact, this constancy of angular momentum leads to the Kepler’s second law.

23. Which of these assumptions is made to calculate the force between the Sun and the Earth?

a) Earth and the Sun are point masses.

b) The mass of Earth is zero.

c) Mass of the Sun is infinity.

d) All the above

Explanation

When it is said that Earth orbits around the Sun due to Sun’s gravitational force, we assumed Earth and Sun to be point masses. This assumption is a good approximation because the distance between the two bodies is very much larger than their diameters. For some irregular and extended objects separated by a small distance, we cannot directly use the equation. Instead, we have to invoke separate mathematical treatment which will be brought forth in higher classes.

24. State the Newton’s equation for the centripetal acceleration towards centre for the circular orbit?

a) a = v³

b) a = – v² / r

c) a = v / r²

d) a = v r

Explanation

Newton considered the orbits of the planets as circular. For circular orbit of radius r, the centripetal acceleration towards the centre is ,

Here v is the velocity and r, the distance of the planet from the center of the orbit.

25. Assertion (A): The shape of orbits of the planet around the Sun is elliptical.

Reasoning(R): The Planets orbit is very close to being circular as it has small deviation from the circular shape.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

We assumed that the orbit of the planet to be circular which is not true as the orbit of the planet around the Sun is elliptical. But this circular orbit assumption is justifiable because planet’s orbit is very close to being circular and there is only a very small deviation from the circular shape.

26. Who measured the distance between the Earth and the Moon?

a) Hipparchrus

b) Eratosthenes

c) Copernicus

d) Kepler

Explanation

The radius of the Earth was measured by Greek librarian Eratosthenes and distance between the Earth and the Moon was measured by Greek astronomer Hipparchrus 2400 years ago.

27. Assertion (A): The Value of gravitational constant plays an important role in the law of gravitation.

Reasoning(R): The Value of G explains the gravitational force between the Earth and the Sun is so great and between small objects is negligible.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

In the law of gravitation, the value of gravitational constant G plays a very important role. The value of G explains why the gravitational force between the Earth and the Sun is so great while the same force between two small objects (for example between two human beings) is negligible.

28. Who discovered the experimental value of the gravitational constant?

a) Kepler

b) Henry Cavendish

c) Copernicus

d) Isaac Newton

Explanation

In the year 1798, Henry Cavendish experimentally determined the value of gravitational constant ‘G’ by using a torsion balance. He calculated the value of ‘G’ to be equal to 6.75 ×10 ^-11Nm² kg^-2.

29. What is the exact accepted value of the gravitational constant?

a) 66.672 × 10^-11 Nmkg^-2

b) 6.67259 ×10^-11 Nm²kg^-2

c) 6.67259 x 10⁵

d) 12.663 ×10^-11 Nm²kg^-2.

Explanation

Using modern techniques a more accurate value of G could be measured. The currently accepted value of G is 6.67259 ×10^-11 Nm²kg^-2.

30. Based on which property the forces are classified?

a) Type of interaction

b) Movement of object

c) Type of objects

d) Number of forces involved

Explanation

Force is basically due to the interaction between two particles. Depending upon the type of interaction we can have two kinds of forces: Contact forces and Non-contact forces.

31. Assertion (A): Contact forces are applied to object in physical contact with the other object.

Reasoning(R): The movement of the object is caused by the physical force exerted through the contact.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Contact forces are the forces applied where one object is in physical contact with the other. The movement of the object is caused by the physical force exerted through the contact between the object and the agent which exerts force.

32. Assertion (A): The magnitude of E decreases as the distance increases.

Reasoning(R): The strength of gravitational field decreases as we move away from the mass.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The strength of the gravitational field decreases as we move away from the mass M as depicted. The magnitude of E decreases as the distance r increases.

33. Which of this physical quantity carries energy and momentum in space?

a) Field

b) Space

c) Charge

d) Quantum

Explanation

The “field” concept was introduced as a mathematical tool to calculate gravitational interaction. Later it was found that field is a real physical quantity and it carries energy and momentum in space. The concept of field is inevitable in understanding the behaviour of charges.

34. Which of the following has the unit Newton per kilogram?

a) Gravity

b) Gravitational field

c) Gravitational intensity

d) Gravity constant

Explanation

The unit of gravitational field is Newton per kilogram (N/kg) or m s^-2.

35. Choose the correct statements.

i) The superposition principle of gravitational fields involves the vector sum of the entire gravitational field due to individual masses.

ii) The total gravitational field at a point is irrespective of all the individual masses.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Consider ‘n’ particles of masses m_1,m _2,… m_n distributed in space at position r_1, r_2,…r_n with respect to point P. The total gravitational field at a point P due to all the masses is given by the vector sum of the gravitational field due to the individual masses. This principle is known as superposition of gravitational fields.

36. Assertion (A): The gravitational potential energy is always a negative value.

Reasoning(R): The system does the work when two masses come together from infinity.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The gravitational potential energy Ur ­‑ is always negative because when two masses come together slowly from infinity, work is done by the system.

37. Choose the correct statements.

i) The unit of gravitational potential energy is Joule / s which are a vector quantity.

ii) The gravitational potential energy depends on the masses and the distance between the masses.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

The unit of gravitational potential energy Ur ­‑ is Joule and it is a scalar quantity. The gravitational potential energy depends upon the two masses and the distance between them.

38. State the gravitational potential energy of a system with two masses m1 and m2 and the distance between that is r.

a) – G m₁m₂ /r

b) G m₁m₂ + r

c) G m₁m₂ r

d) G m₁m₂ / r²

Explanation

We can define gravitational potential energy of a system of two masses m1 and m2 separated by a distance r as the amount of work done to take the mass m2 from a distance r to infinity assuming m1 to be fixed in its position and is written as,

39. Which of the following value is responsible for the gravitational field?

a) Number of source

b) Forces

c) Source mass

d) Distance between the objects

Explanation

The gravitational field E depends only on the source mass which creates the field. It is a vector quantity. We can also define a scalar quantity called “gravitational potential” which depends only on the source mass.

40. What is the unit of the gravitational potential?

a) J s

b) J kg^-1

c) J / s

d) J

Explanation

The gravitational potential at distance r is equivalent to gravitational potential energy per unit mass at the same distance r. It is a scalar quantity and its unit is J kg^-1.

41. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) The Gravitational field and gravitational force are vector quantities.

ii) The gravitational potential and gravitational potential energy are scalar quantities.

iii) The Vector quantities are used for easy analyses of the motion of particles.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Gravitational field and gravitational force are vector quantities whereas the gravitational potential and gravitational potential energy are scalar quantities. The motion of particles can be easily analysed using scalar quantities than vector quantities.

42. Assertion (A): The gravitation pull produces a constant acceleration in all the bodies near the Earth’s surface.

Reasoning(R): Newton’s second law states that an object is accelerated only under the action of a force.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

When objects fall on the Earth, the acceleration of the object is towards the Earth. From Newton’s second law, an object is accelerated only under the action of a force. In the case of Earth, this force is the gravitational pull of Earth. This force produces a constant acceleration near the Earth’s surface in all bodies, irrespective of their masses.

43. Which of this value does not depend on the gravitational force exerted by earth near its surface?

a) Mass of the Earth

b) Radius of the Earth

c) Distance between the object and the Earth

d) Mass of the object

Explanation

The gravitational force exerted by Earth on the mass m near the surface of the Earth is given by,

M_E– mass of the Earth, m-mass of the object, R _E– radius of the Earth.

44. What is the magnitude of the earth’s gravity?

a) G M_e / R_e²

b) G M_e³ / R_e³

c) G M_e² / R_e

d) G M_e / R_e

Explanation

The acceleration experienced by the object near the surface of the Earth due to its gravity is called acceleration due to gravity. It is denoted by the symbol g. The magnitude of acceleration due to gravity is g,

45. Which of this factor does not depend on the mass of an object?

a) Acceleration due to gravity

b) Kinetic energy

c) Frictional forces

d) All the above

Explanation

It is to be noted that the acceleration experienced by any object is independent of its mass. The value of g depends only on the mass and radius of the Earth. In fact Galileo arrived at the same conclusion 400 years ago that all objects fall towards the Earth with the same acceleration through various quantitative experiments.

46. What is the value of the acceleration due to gravity near Earth equator?

a) 19.8 m s

b) 12.8 ms^-2

c) 9.8 m s^-2

d) 6.6 m

Explanation

The acceleration due to gravity g is found to be 9.8 m s^-2 on the surface of the Earth near the equator.

47. Choose the correct statements.

i) The Earth’s centrifugal force depends on the revolution time.

ii) The objects on earth’s surface experiences only the centrifugal force of earth’s spinning.

iii) The centrifugal force on objects on the surface of the Earth depends on the latitude of the object.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Whenever we analyse the motion of objects in rotating frames we must take into account the centrifugal force. Even though we treat the Earth as an inertial frame, it is not exactly correct because the Earth spins about its own axis. So when an object is on the surface of the Earth, it experiences a centrifugal force that depends on the latitude of the object on Earth. If the Earth were not spinning, the force on the object would have been mg. However, the object experiences an additional centrifugal force due to spinning of the Earth.

48. Which of this value is represented by the symbol λ in the centrifugal force of an object?

a) Wavelength

b) Latitude

c) Mass

d) Length

Explanation

This centrifugal force is given by mω²R‘. R’ = R cos λ where λ is the latitude. The component of centrifugal acceleration experienced by the object in the direction opposite to g.

49. At which of the following places the acceleration due to gravity is minimum?

a) North Pole

b) Earth’s atmosphere

c) South Pole

d) Equator

Explanation

From the above equation of we can infer that at equator, λ= 0; g­’= ‑ g- ω²R. The acceleration due to gravity is minimum. At poles λ= 90; g’­ = g, it is maximum. At the equator, g’ is minimum.

50. Which of the following is mainly found in earth’s atmosphere?

a) Oxygen

b) Hydrogen

c) Helium

d) Argon

Explanation

Hydrogen and helium are the most abundant elements in the universe but Earth’s atmosphere consists mainly of nitrogen and oxygen.

51. Which of these molecules easily escape from the earth surface?

a) Nitrogen

b) Hydrogen

c) Helium

d) Carbon dioxide

Explanation

Lighter molecules such as hydrogen and helium have enough speed to escape from the Earth unlike the heavier ones such as nitrogen and oxygen. The average speed of hydrogen and helium atoms compared with the escape speed of the Earth is presented in the kinetic theory of gases.

52. What is the value of the distance covered by the satellite during one rotation in the orbit?

a) R_E h

b) 2π­R_E h

c) 2π­R

d) 2­R_E

Explanation

Time period of the satellite: The distance covered by the satellite during one rotation in its orbit is equal to 2π­R_E hand time taken for it is the time period, T. Then Speed v Distance travelled Time taken

53. What is the value of the total energy of a satellite orbiting the earth?

a) Kinetic energy of the Satellite

b) Gravitational potential energy

c) Earth’s Magnetic energy

d) Both a and b

Explanation

The total energy of a satellite orbiting the Earth at a distance h from the surface of Earth is calculated as follows; the total energy of the satellite is the sum of its kinetic energy and the gravitational potential energy.

54. In which of this condition a satellite is free from the Earth’s gravity?

a) h approaches ∞

b) h approaches 0

c) h is maximum

d) None of the above

Explanation

The total energy of the satellite orbiting the Earth at a height of h is,

The negative sign in the total energy implies that the satellite is bound to the Earth and it cannot escape from the Earth. As h approaches ∞, the total energy tends to zero. Its physical meaning is that the satellite is completely free from the influence of Earth’s gravity and is not bound to Earth at large distances.

55. What is the value of h for the geo-stationary satellite?

a) 24 km

b) 86400 km

c) 36000 km

d) 100000 km

Explanation

Kepler’s third law is used to find the radius of the orbit.

Substituting for the time period (24 hrs = 86400 seconds), mass, and radius of the Earth, h turns out to be 36,000 km. Such satellites are called “geo-stationary satellites”, since they appear to be stationary when seen from Earth.

56. Which of the following statements are not true regarding the Polar satellites?

a) The polar satellites orbits earth from South Pole to North Pole.

b) The time period of a polar satellite is about 100 minutes.

c) The Polar satellites cover different small strips of earth area in each revolution.

d) Polar satellites cover only a small strip of area from pole to pole during one revolution.

Explanation

Earth orbits the Earth from north to south direction. This type of satellite that orbits Earth from North Pole to South Pole is called a polar satellite. The time period of a polar satellite is nearly 100 minutes and the satellite completes many revolutions in a day. A Polar satellite covers a small strip of area from pole to pole during one revolution. In the next revolution it covers a different strip of area since the Earth would have moved by a small angle. In this way polar satellites cover the entire surface area of the Earth.

57. Choose the correct statements.

i) All the objects anywhere in the solar system experience the gravitational force.

ii) The Earth gravitational force acts downwards towards the centre of the earth.

iii) There are number of forces acting on us when we stand on the floor in earth surface.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Objects on Earth experience the gravitational force of Earth. The gravitational force acting on an object of mass m is mg. This force always acts downwards towards the centre of the Earth. When we stand on the floor, there are two forces acting on us. One is the gravitational force, acting downwards and the other is the normal force exerted by the floor upwards on us to keep us at rest.

58. Assertion (A): The weight of an object is defined as the upward force with magnitude W is equal to the force.

Reasoning(R): Weight of an object is the upward force applied to hold it at rest or at constant velocity relative to earth.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is False but R is True.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The weight of an object W ­is defined as the downward force whose magnitude W is equal to that of upward force that must be applied to the object to hold it at rest or at constant velocity relative to the earth.

59. In which of this direction normal object weight is directed?

a) Upward force

b) Linear force

c) Gravitational force

d) Momentum

Explanation

The direction of weight is in the direction of gravitational force. So the magnitude of weight of an object is denoted as, W=N=mg

60. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) A man standing in an elevator experiences two kinds of forces.

ii) Gravitational force on the man in an elevator is acting downwards to the ground.

iii) The Normal force exerted by the floor also acts downwards to the man in an elevator.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

61. Assertion (A): The Astronauts in the satellites do not experience any gravitational force due to the distance from the earth.

Reasoning(R): The Satellites orbit very close to Earth experience only gravitational force.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

There is a wrong notion that the astronauts in satellites experience no gravitational force because they are far away from the Earth. Actually the Earth satellites that orbit very close to Earth experience only gravitational force. The astronauts inside the satellite also experience the same gravitational force. Because of this, they cannot exert any force on the floor of the satellite. Thus, the floor of the satellite also cannot exert any normal force on the astronaut. Therefore, the astronauts inside a satellite are in the state of weightlessness. Not only the astronauts, but all the objects in the satellite will be in the state of weightlessness which is similar to that of a free fall.

62. Towards which of this direction the planets move in the retrograde motion?

a) West

b) North

c) East

d) South

Explanation

When the motion of the planets are observed in the night sky by naked eyes over a period of a few months, it can be seen that the planets move eastwards and reverse their motion for a while and return to eastward motion again. This is called “retrograde motion” of planets.

63. From which month the Mars changes its direction from retrograde motion?

a) July

b) October

c) September

d) June

Explanation

Careful observation for a period of a year clearly shows that Mars initially moves eastwards (February to June), then reverses its path and moves backwards (July, August, September). It changes its direction of motion once again and continues its forward motion (October onwards).

64. Which of the following concept was introduced by Ptolemy to explain the retrograde motion of the planets?

a) Gravitational constant

b) Eclipse

c) Geo-stationary

d) Epicycle

Explanation

To explain this retrograde motion, Ptolemy introduced the concept of “epicycle” in his geocentric model. According to this theory, while the planet orbited the Earth, it also underwent another circular motion termed as “epicycle”.

65. Choose the incorrect statements.

i) The retrograde motion of the planets is a combination of epicycle and circular motion around the Earth.

ii) The Earth centric idea was introduced by Aristotle.

iii) Ptolemy’s model was very simple as every planet undergoes the retrograde motion.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

A combination of epicycle and circular motion around the Earth gave rise to retrograde motion of the planets with respect to Earth. Essentially Ptolemy retained the Earth centric idea of Aristotle and added the epicycle motion to it. Ptolemy’s model became more and more complex as every planet was found to undergo retrograde motion.

66. Which of these is the centre of the solar system according to the heliocentric model of Copernicus?

a) Earth

b) Sun

c) Mars

d) Jupiter

Explanation

In the 15^th century, the Polish astronomer Copernicus proposed the heliocentric model to explain this problem in a simpler manner. According to this model, the Sun is at the centre of the solar system and all planets orbited the Sun. The retrograde motion of planets with respect to Earth is because of the relative motion of the planet with respect to Earth.

67. Choose the correct statements.

i) Copernicus explained the retrograde motion of the Mars and Earth only.

ii) The Mars orbits around the Sun faster than the Earth.

iii) Mars appears to move backwards from July to October because of the relative motion of the Earth and Mars.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

The Earth orbits around the Sun faster than Mars. Because of the relative motion between Mars and Earth, Mars appears to move backwards from July to October. In the same way the retrograde motion of all other planets was explained successfully by the Copernicus model.

68. What is the advantage of the heliocentric model?

a) Simple model

b) Accurate results

c) Explained all the forces involved

d) All the above

Explanation

It was because of its simplicity, the heliocentric model slowly replaced the geocentric model. Historically, if any natural phenomenon has one or more explanations, the simplest one is usually accepted.

69. Which of the following statement is not true?

a) Kepler relied on Tycho Brahe’s astronomical observations for his laws.

b) Kepler’s third law related the distances of a planet from the Sun to its revolution period.

c) The distance of the planet from the Sun is calculated in terms of the distance between Earth and the Sun.

d) The Astronomers used complex algorithms and calculations to calculate the distance of a planet from the Sun.

Explanation

When Kepler derived his three laws, he strongly relied on Tycho Brahe’s astronomical observation. In his third law, he formulated the relation between the distances of a planet from the Sun to the time period of revolution of the planet. Astronomers cleverly used geometry and trigonometry to calculate the distance of a planet from the Sun in terms of the distance between Earth and Sun.

70. What is the distance between the Earth and the Sun?

a) One Astronomical Unit

b) One Light year

c) One Parsec

d) One Solar Mass

Explanation

When Venus is at maximum elongation (i.e., 46 degree) with respect to Earth, Venus makes 90 degree to Sun. This allows us to find the distance between Venus and Sun. The distance between Earth and Sun is taken as one Astronomical unit (1 AU).

71. Which of the following planets have the highest value of the semi major axis of the orbit from the Sun?

a) Mars

b) Earth

c) Jupiter

d) Venus

72. Identify the Incorrect Match.

PLANETS TIME PERIOD

A. Saturn i) 4332.62

B. Mercury ii) 87.77

C. Venus iii) 224.70

D. Mars iv) 686.98

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

The distances of planets from the Sun are given in the table below.

73. Which of these values denotes the difference in sun ray shadow due to the curvature of the Earth?

a) 7.5 degree

b) 1/ 8 radian

c) 0.75 degree

d) 1/ 18 radian

Explanation

During noon time of summer solstice the Sun’s rays cast no shadow in the city Syne which was located 500 miles away from Alexandria. At the same day and same time he found that in Alexandria the Sun’s rays made 7.2 degree with local vertical. This difference of 7.2 degree was due to the curvature of the Earth. The angle 7.2 degree is equivalent to 1/8radian. So ­θ= 1/8 rad;

74. In which colour the moon will appear inside the umbra shadow?

a) Yellow

b) Blue

c) Red

d) Black

Explanation

When the Moon is inside the umbra shadow, it appears red in colour. As soon as the Moon exits from the umbra shadow, it appears in crescent shape.

75. Assertion (A): During the lunar eclipse the orbits of the Moon and Earth lie on the same plane on full moon day.

Reasoning(R): The Solar eclipse is observed during the new moon day.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

If the orbits of the Moon and Earth lie on the same plane, during full Moon of every month, we can observe lunar eclipse. If this is so during new Moon we can observe solar eclipse.

76. Why Solar and Lunar eclipse occur only during certain periods of the year?

a) The earth revolution on its own axis.

b) The Orbit of Moon is tilted for 5° with respect to the Earth’s orbit.

c) The Gravitation field of the Earth and Moon are different.

d) Planets have different rotation period with respect to Earth.

Explanation

Moon’s orbit is tilted 5° with respect to Earth’s orbit. Due to this 5° tilt, only during certain periods of the year, the Sun, Earth and Moon align in straight line leading to either lunar eclipse or solar eclipse depending on the alignment.

77. Assertion (A): The Northern and the Southern part of the Earth experiences seasonal changes depending on the distance from the Sun.

Reasoning(R): The seasons in the Earth arise due to the rotation of the Earth around the Sun with 23.5° tilt.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The seasons in the Earth arise due to the rotation of Earth around the Sun with 23.5° tilt Due to this 23.5° tilt, when the northern part of Earth is farther to the Sun, the southern part is nearer to the Sun. So when it is summer in the northern hemisphere, the southern hemisphere experience winter.

78. Which of these can be explained by the spinning motion of Earth?

a) Sun light radiation

b) Solar eclipse

c) Position of Stars

d) Planets movement

Explanation

The Earth’s spinning motion can be proved by observing star’s position over a night. Due to Earth’s spinning motion, the stars in sky appear to move in circular motion about the pole star.

79. Name the pole star of the Earth.

a) Polaris

b) Alpha Pictoris

c) Delta Doradus

d) Draconis

Explanation

Pole star is a star located exactly above the Earth’s axis of rotation hence it appears to be stationary. The Star Polaris is our pole star.

80. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) The Electromagnetic spectrum was discovered at the end of the 19^th century.

ii) Newton’s law of gravitation was able to explain the entire phenomenon related to gravity.

iii) Albert Einstein General relativity theory was the most successful theory in the 20^th century.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

After the discovery of the electromagnetic spectrum at the end of the 19th century, our understanding of the universe increased enormously. Because of this development in the late 19th century it was found that Newton’s law of gravitation could not explain certain phenomena and showed some discrepancies. Albert Einstein formulated his ‘General theory of relativity’ which was one of the most successful theories of 20th century in the field of gravitation.

81. For which of the following theories Subramanian Chandrasekhar was awarded Nobel Prize in the year 1983?

a) Black hole theory

b) Gravitational theory

c) ­­Big Bang theory

d) Quantum field theory

Explanation

Subramanian Chandrasekhar formulated the theory of black holes and explained the life of stars. These studies brought him the Nobel Prize in the year 1983. Another very notable Indian astrophysicist Meghnad Saha discovered the ionization formula which was useful in classifying stars. This formula is now known as “Saha ionization formula”.

82. Choose the correct statements.

i) Amal Kumar Raychaudhuri solved an equation, Raychaudhuri equation in the field of gravitation.

ii) The Astrophysicist Jayant V Narlikar wrote books on astronomy and astrophysics.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

In the field of gravitation Amal Kumar Raychaudhuri solved an equation now known as “Raychaudhuri equation” which was a very important contribution. Another notable Indian Astrophysicist Jayant V Narlikar made pioneering contribution in the field of astrophysics and has written interesting books on astronomy and astrophysics.

83. Who founded the Inter University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics, India?

a) Homi Jahangir Bhabha

b) J.V. Narlikar

c) Jagadish Chandra Bose

d) C.V. Raman

Explanation

IUCAA (Inter University Centre for Astronomy and Astrophysics) is one of the important Indian research institutes where active research in astrophysics and gravitation are conducted. The institute was founded by Prof. J.V. Narlikar. Students are encouraged to read more about the recent developments in these fields.

84. In which year Albert Einstein theoretically predicted the Gravitational waves?

a) 1915

b) 1923

c) 1901

d) 1821

Explanation

The Nobel Prize in Physics was given for the detection of ‘Gravitational waves’ which was theoretically predicted by Albert Einstein in the year 1915.

85. Which of the following statements is true?

a) Tycho Brahe analyzed and deducted of the laws of the planetary motion.

b) Claudius Ptolemy, an American astronomer developed the heliocentric model.

c) Ptolemy’s model successfully explained the motion of Mars and Jupiter.

d) The Sun is at the center of the solar system in the heliocentric model.

Explanation

Ptolemy’s model successfully explained the motion of the Sun and the Moon up to a certain level, the motion of Mars and Jupiter could not be explained effectively. In the second century, Claudius Ptolemy, a famous Greco-Roman astronomer developed a theory to explain the motion of celestial objects like the Sun, the Moon, Mars, and Jupiter etc. This theory was called the geocentric model. Nicholas Copernicus (1473-1543) proposed a new model called the ‘Heliocentric model’ in which the Sun was considered to be at the center of the solar system. Tycho Brahe (1546-1601) spent his entire lifetime in recording the observations of the stellar and planetary positions with his naked eye.

86. State the mathematical form of the newton’s law of gravitation?

a) GM² / r³

b) G r² / M₁ M₂

c) – (GM₁M₂ /r²) r^{^}

d) GM₁M₂ r²

Explanation

In mathematical form, the Newton’s law of gravitation can be written as:

Newton’s law of gravitation states that a particle of mass M1 attracts any other particle of mass M2 in the universe with an attractive force. The strength of this force of attraction was found to be directly proportional to the product of their masses and is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

87. Which of the following is led by the constancy of angular momentum of all planets?

a) Newton’s third law

b) Heliocentric model

c) Kepler’s Second law

d) Gravitational constant

Explanation

The angular momentum of the Earth about the Sun is constant throughout the motion. It is true for all the planets. In fact, this constancy of angular momentum leads to the Kepler’s second law.

88. State the distance between the moon and earth based on Hipparchrus measurement?

a) 60 times the radius of Earth.

b) Double the distance between Earth and the Sun.

c) Time duration of sunlight to reach earth.

d) Distance between Sun and Moon.

Explanation

From the Hipparchrus measurement, the distance to the Moon is 60 times that of Earth radius. Rm = 60R.

89. In how many days moon orbits the earth?

a) Twice in 15 days.

b) Once in 20.7 days.

c) Once in 27.3days.

d) Twice in 27.3days.

Explanation

Moon orbits the Earth once in 27.3 days and by using the centripetal acceleration formula.

90. Which of the following is explained by the concept of gravitational field?

a) Field intensity due to a mass.

b) Non-contact interaction between two mass.

c) Earth orbiting around the Sun.

d) Force between Moon and the Earth.

Explanation

The non-contact interaction between two masses can now be explained using the concept of “Gravitational field”.

91. Which of these methods is used to find the gravitational field at any point for continuous distribution of total mass?

a) Integration

b) Point distribution

c) Differentiation

d) None of the above

Explanation

Instead of discrete masses, if continuous distribution of total masses is considered then the gravitational field at a point is calculated using the method of integration.

92. What is the value of the gravitational potential energy of a two mass system separated by a distance?

a) Either negative or positive

b) Always negative

c) Always maximum

d) Depends on the value of mass

Explanation

Gravitational potential energy of a system of two masses m1 and m2 separated by a distance r as the amount of work done to take the mass m2 from a distance r to infinity assuming m1 to be fixed in its position. The gravitational potential energy is always negative because when two masses come together slowly from infinity, work is done by the system.

93. State the value of gravitational potential energy on the surface of the earth?

a) mgh

b) 0

c) ∞

d) mv²

Explanation

The gravitational potential energy stored in the particle of mass m at a height h from the surface of the Earth is U=mgh. On the surface of the Earth, U = 0, since h is zero.

94. At which points the acceleration due to gravity decreases in earth?

a) In upward direction from earth surface

b) On the surface of earth

c) Towards downward from the surface of earth

d) Both a and c

Explanation

Acceleration due to gravity is maximum on the surface of the Earth but decreases when we go either upward or downward.

95. Choose the incorrect statements.

i) Satellites revolve around the Earth as like the planets revolve around the Sun.

ii) Kepler’s laws are not applicable to the man-made satellites.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both I and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Satellites revolve around the Earth just like the planets revolve around the Sun. Kepler’s laws are applicable to man-made satellites also.

11th Science Lesson 6 Questions in English

6] Heat And Thermodynamics

1. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Temperature and heat play very important role in everyday life
2. Life on Earth is possible because the Sun maintains its temperature
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Temperature and heat play very important role in everyday life. All species can function properly only if its body is maintained at a particular temperature. In fact, life on Earth is possible because the Sun maintains its temperature.

2. ______ is a branch of physics which explains the phenomena of temperature, heat

1. Kinematics
2. Thermodynamics
3. Acoustics
4. Sonography

Explanation

Understanding the meaning of temperature and heat are very crucial to understand the nature. Thermodynamics is a branch of physics which explains the phenomena of temperature, heat etc.

3. In thermodynamics, heat and temperature are two_____ parameters

1. Same and closely related
2. Different and closely related
3. Different and unrelated
4. Same and unrelated

Explanation

The concepts presented in this chapter will help us to understand the terms ‘hot’ and ‘cold’ and also differentiate heat from temperature. In thermodynamics, heat and temperature are two different but closely related parameters.

4. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Energy flows spontaneously from lower temperature object to higher temperature object
2. This flow of energy is called heat
3. Due to flow of heat sometimes the temperature of the body will increase or sometimes it may not increase.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

When an object at higher temperature is placed in contact with another object at lower temperature, there will be a spontaneous flow of energy from the object at higher temperature to the one at lower temperature. This energy is called heat. This process of energy transfer from higher temperature object to lower temperature object is called heating. Due to flow of heat sometimes the temperature of the body will increase or sometimes it may not increase.

5. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. People often talk ‘this water has more heat or less heat’.
2. There is a misconception that heat is a quantity of energy
3. When we use the word ‘heat’, it is the energy in transit but not energy stored in the body.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

There is a misconception that heat is a quantity of energy. People often talk ‘this water has more heat or less heat’. These words are meaningless. Heat is not a quantity. Heat is an energy in transit which flows from higher temperature object to lower temperature object. Once the heating process is stopped, we cannot use the word heat. When we use the word ‘heat’, it is the energy in transit but not energy stored in the body.

6. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. When you rub your hands against each other the temperature of the hands increases.
2. The temperature of the hands increases due to this work.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

When you rub your hands against each other the temperature of the hands increases. You have done some work on your hands by rubbing. The temperature of the hands increases due to this work. Now if you place your hands on the chin, the temperature of the chin increases. This is because the hands are at higher temperature than the chin.

7. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. By doing work on the system, the temperature in the system will increase and sometimes may not
2. Work is a quantity
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

By doing work on the system, the temperature in the system will increase and sometimes may not. Like heat, work is also not a quantity and through the work energy is transferred to the system. So, we cannot use the word ‘the object contains more work’ or ‘less work’.

8. For the transfer of energy from one body to another body through the process of work, they should

be at______ temperatures

1. Same
2. Different
3. Slightly equal
4. None

Explanation

Either the system can transfer energy to the surrounding by doing work on surrounding or the surrounding may transfer energy to the system by doing work on the system. For the transfer of energy from one body to another body through the process of work, they need not be at different temperatures.

9. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Temperature is the degree of hotness or coolness of a body
2. The temperature will determine the direction of heat flow when two bodies are in thermal contact
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Temperature is the degree of hotness or coolness of a body. Hotter the body higher is its temperature. The temperature will determine the direction of heat flow when two bodies are in thermal contact.

10. The SI unit of temperature is_____

1. K
2. °F
3. ˚C
4. All the above

Explanation

The SI unit of temperature is kelvin (K). In our day to day applications, Celsius (˚C) and Fahrenheit (°F) scales are used. Temperature is measured with a thermometer.

11. Which of the following temperature conversion is correct?

1. Celsius to Kelvin K=°C + 273.15
2. Celsius to Fahrenheit °C = (°F − 32) ÷ 1.8
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

12. According to Boyle’s law_______

1. Pressure of the gas is inversely proportional to the volume
2. Volume of the gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature
3. Volume of gas is inversely proportional to absolute temperature
4. Pressure of the gas is directly proportional to the volume

Explanation

When the gas is kept at constant temperature, the pressure of the gas is inversely proportional to the volume. P α 1/ V. It was discovered by Robert Boyle (1627-1691) and is known as Boyle’s law.

13. According to Charles’ law_____

1. Pressure of the gas is inversely proportional to the volume
2. Volume of the gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature
3. Volume of gas is inversely proportional to absolute temperature
4. Pressure of the gas is directly proportional to the volume

Explanation

When the gas is kept at constant pressure, the volume of the gas is directly proportional to absolute temperature. V α T. It was discovered by Jacques Charles (1743-1823) and is known as Charles’ law.

14. Which of the following is ideal gas law?

1. PV = N k T
2. PV = N T
3. PV/ T = N k
4. PV = N k/ T

Explanation

By combining Boyle’s law, Charles’ law equations we have ideal gas law. So the ideal gas law can be stated as follows:

PV = N k T

15. Boltzmann constant is equal to_________

1. 1.381 × 10⁻²³ JK⁻¹
2. 1.381 × 10⁻²³ JK
3. 1.608 × 10¹⁸ JK
4. 1.608 × 10^-18 JK^-1

Explanation

Ideal gas equation:

PV = N k T

Here k is the Boltzmann constant (1.381×10⁻²³ JK⁻¹) and it is found to be a universal constant.

16. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Atom is the practical unit to express the amount of gas
2. One mole of any substance is the amount of that substance which contains Avogadro number (N_A) of particles
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Mole is the practical unit to express the amount of gas. One mole of any substance is the amount of that substance which contains Avogadro number (N_A) of particles (such as atoms or molecules).

17. The Avogadro number is defined as the number of carbon atoms contained in exactly ___g of ¹²C

1. 13
2. 12
3. 24
4. 18

Explanation

The Avogadro’s number NA is defined as the number of carbon atoms contained in exactly 12 g of ¹²C. One mole of any substance is the amount of that substance which contains Avogadro number (NA) of particles (such as atoms or molecules).

18. Avogadro number is equal to_____

1. 6.023 ×10²³ mol
2. 6.023 ×10²³mol^–1
3. 5.023 ×10²³mol^–1
4. 4.023 ×10²³mol^–1

Explanation

Suppose if a gas contains μ mole of particles then the total number of particles can be written as

N = μ N_A

where N_A is Avogadro number (6.023 ×10²³mol^–1)

19. Universal gas constant is equal to_____

1. 6.023 ×10²³ mol
2. 8.314 J /mol. K
3. 7.314 J /mol. K
4. 6.314 J /mol. K

Explanation

PV = μ N A k T. Here N A k=R called universal gas constant and its value is 8.314 J /mol. K. So, the ideal gas law can be written for μ mole of gas as

PV = μ R T

20. Which equation relates the pressure, volume and temperature of thermodynamic system at

equilibrium?

1. Boyle’s equation
2. Charles’ equation
3. Ideal gas equation
4. None

Explanation

PV = μ R T

This is called the equation of state for an ideal gas. It relates the pressure, volume and temperature of thermodynamic system at equilibrium.

21. A student comes to school by a bicycle whose tire is filled with air at a pressure 240 kPa at 27°C.

She travels 8 km to reach the school and the temperature of the bicycle tire increases to 39°C.

What is the change in pressure in the tire when the student reaches school?

1. 270 Pa
2. 249.6 Pa
3. 230.6 Pa
4. 210.1 Pa

Explanation

22. When a person breathes, his lungs can hold up to 5.5 Litre of air at body temperature 37°C and

atmospheric pressure (1 atm =101 kPa). This Air contains 21% oxygen. Calculate the number of

oxygen molecules in the lungs.

1. 2.7× 10²²
2. 3.7× 10²¹
3. 1.7× 10²²
4. 2.7× 10²¹

Explanation

23. Calculate the volume of one mole of any gas at STP and at room temperature (300K) with the

same pressure 1 atm.

1. 22.4 × 10^–3 m³
2. 22.4 × 10^–3 m²
3. 12.4 × 10^–3 m³
4. 22.4 × 10^–3 m^-3

Explanation

24. 1 Litre (L) =______

1. 10^–3m³
2. 10³m³
3. 10^–3m^-3
4. 10³m^-3

Explanation

25. _____% of Oxygen present in air

1. 20
2. 21
3. 19
4. 18

Explanation

Air is the mixture of about 20% oxygen, 79% nitrogen and remaining one percent are argon, hydrogen, helium, and xenon. The molar mass of air is 29 g mol^–1.

26. _____ is defined as amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of the given body

from T to T + ∆T

1. Heat capacity
2. Radiation
3. Specific heat capacity
4. Sublimation

Explanation

We can define ‘heat capacity’ as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of the given body from T to T + ∆T. Specific heat capacity of a substance is defined as the amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of 1kg of a substance by 1 Kelvin or 1°C

27. The SI unit for specific heat capacity is______

1. J kg ^–1 K^–1
2. J kg ^–1 K
3. kg K^–1
4. J kg K–1

Explanation

The SI unit for specific heat capacity is J kg ^–1 K^–1. Heat capacity and specific heat capacity are always positive quantities.

28. Match the specific heat capacity with respective material

1. Air 1. 130
2. Lead 2. 4186
3. Human body 3. 1005
4. Water 4. 3470
5. 2, 1, 3, 4
6. 3, 1, 4, 2
7. 3, 4, 1, 2
8. 3, 2, 1, 4

Explanation

29. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The term heat capacity or specific heat capacity does not mean that object contains a certain amount of heat
2. Heat is energy transfer from the object at higher temperature to the object at lower temperature
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The term heat capacity or specific heat capacity does not mean that object contains a certain amount of heat. Heat is energy transfer from the object at higher temperature to the object at lower temperature. The correct usage is ‘internal energy capacity’. But for historical reason the term ‘heat capacity’ or ‘specific heat capacity’ are retained.

30. The SI unit for molar specific heat capacity is_____

1. J mol
2. J mol^–1 K^–1
3. J mol^–1
4. J mol K^–1

Explanation

The SI unit for molar specific heat capacity is J mol^–1 K^–1. It is also a positive quantity. When we study properties of gases, it is more practical to use molar specific heat capacity.

31. Thermal expansion is the tendency of matter to change in___ due to change in temperature

1. Volume
2. Shape
3. Area
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Thermal expansion is the tendency of matter to change in shape, area, and volume due to a change in temperature.

32. Which of the following will expand when heated?

1. Solid
2. Liquid
3. Gas
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

All three states of matter (solid, liquid and gas) expand when heated. When a solid is heated, its atoms vibrate with higher amplitude about their fixed points.

33. Which of the following expands more?

1. Solid
2. Liquid
3. Gas
4. All the above

Explanation

Liquids, have less intermolecular forces than solids and hence they expand more than solids. This is the principle behind the mercury thermometers. In the case of gas molecules, the intermolecular forces are almost negligible and hence they expand much more than solids.

34. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The increase in dimension of a body due to the increase in its temperature is called thermal expansion
2. The expansion in length is called area expansion
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The increase in dimension of a body due to the increase in its temperature is called thermal expansion. The expansion in length is called linear expansion. Similarly, the expansion in area is termed as area expansion.

35. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. When the lid of a glass bottle is tight, keep the lid near the hot water which makes it easier to open.
2. When the hot boiled egg is dropped in cold water, the egg shell can be removed easily.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

When the lid of a glass bottle is tight, keep the lid near the hot water which makes it easier to open. It is because the lid has higher thermal expansion than glass. When the hot boiled egg is dropped in cold water, the egg shell can be removed easily. It is because of the different thermal expansions of the shell and egg.

36. Eiffel tower is made up of iron and its height is roughly 300 m. During winter season (January) in France the temperature is 2°C and in hot summer its average temperature 25°C. Calculate the

change in height of Eiffel tower between summer and winter.

1. 89 mm
2. 69 mm
3. 39 mm
4. 29 mm

Explanation

The linear thermal expansion coefficient for iron α = 10 ×10−6 per °C

37. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Liquids expand on heating and contract on cooling at moderate temperatures.
2. water exhibits an anomalous behaviour
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Liquids expand on heating and contract on cooling at moderate temperatures. But water exhibits an anomalous behaviour.

38. Water contracts on heating between___ ^o C and __ ^o C

1. 4, 10
2. 0, 4
3. 2, 5
4. 3, 12

Explanation

Water contracts on heating between 0˚C and 4˚C. The volume of the given amount of water decreases as it is cooled from room temperature, until it reaches 4˚C.

39. Water has maximum density at_____ ^o C

1. 0
2. 2
3. 10
4. 4

Explanation

Below 4˚C the volume increases and so the density decreases. This means that the water has a maximum density at 4˚C. This behaviour of water is called anomalous expansion of water.

40. Match the following

1. Melting 1. gas to liquid
2. Sublimation 2. solid to liquid
3. Condensation 3. solid to gas
4. Freezing 4. liquid to solid
5. 2, 1, 3, 4
6. 4, 1, 2, 3
7. 2, 3, 1, 4
8. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

All matter exists normally in three states as solids, liquids or gases. Matter can be changed from one state to another either by heating or cooling.

1. Melting (solid to liquid) 2. Evaporation (liquid to gas) 3. Sublimation (solid to gas) 4. Freezing / Solidification (liquid to solid) 5. Condensation (gas to liquid)

41. Boiling point of water____ ⁰ C

1. 99
2. 100
3. 103
4. 90

Explanation

While boiling a pot of water, the temperature of the water increases until it reaches 100 ˚C which is the boiling point of water, and then the temperature remains constant until all the water changes from liquid to gas.

42. ____of a substance is defined as the amount of heat energy required to change the state of a unit

mass of the material

1. Specific heat capacity
2. Latent heat capacity
3. Thermal resistance
4. Specific heat

Explanation

Latent heat capacity of a substance is defined as the amount of heat energy required to change the state of a unit mass of the material.

43. The SI unit for Latent heat capacity is_____

1. J mol
2. J mol^-1
3. J kg^-1
4. J K^-1

Explanation

The temperature of water does not increase above its boiling point. This is the concept of latent heat capacity. The SI unit for Latent heat capacity is J kg^–1.

44. Match the following

1. Latent heat for a solid – liquid state change 1. latent heat of sublimation
2. Latent heat for a liquid – gas state change 2. latent heat of fusion
3. Latent heat for a solid – gas state change 3. latent heat of vaporization
4. 2, 1, 3
5. 2, 3, 1
6. 1, 3, 2
7. 3, 1, 2

Explanation

• The latent heat for a solid – liquid state change is called the latent heat of fusion (Lf) • The latent heat for a liquid – gas state change is called the latent heat of vaporization (Lv) • The latent heat for a solid – gas state change is called the latent heat of sublimation (Ls).

45. The triple point of water is at_____ K

1. 273.1
2. 289.2
3. 223.1
4. 289.3

Explanation

Triple point of a substance is the temperature and pressure at which the three phases (gas, liquid and solid) of that substance coexist in thermodynamic equilibrium. The triple point of water is at 273.1 K and a partial vapour pressure of 611.657 Pascal.

46. _____ means the measurement of the amount of heat released or absorbed by thermodynamic

system during the heating process.

1. Calorimetry
2. Manometry
3. Nemometry
4. Calsometry

Explanation

Calorimetry means the measurement of the amount of heat released or absorbed by thermodynamic system during the heating process. When a body at higher temperature is brought in contact with another body at lower temperature, the heat lost by the hot body is equal to the heat gained by the cold body.

47. Heat gained or lost is measured with a______

1. Thermometer
2. Pulse-oximeter
3. Calorimeter
4. Nanometre

Explanation

Heat gained or lost is measured with a calorimeter. Usually, the calorimeter is an insulated container of water.

48. If 5 L of water at 50°C is mixed with 4L of water at 30°C, what will be the final temperature of

water? Take the specific heat capacity of water as 4184 J kg^-1 K^-1.

1. 100 ^o C
2. 40 ^o C
3. 30 ^o C
4. 70 ^o C

Explanation

49. Final equilibrium temperature of mixing of gas or liquid depends on_____

1. Mass of the substance
2. Specific heat capacity
3. Temperature
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

It is important to note that the final equilibrium temperature of mixing of gas or liquid depends on mass of the substances, their specific heat capacities and their temperatures. Only if we mix the same substances at equal amount, the final temperature will be an average of the individual temperatures.

50. How many modes of heat transfer are there?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 1
4. 4

Explanation

As we have seen already heat is a energy in transit which is transferred from one body to another body due to temperature difference. There are three modes of heat transfer: Conduction, Convection and Radiation.

51. ____ is the process of direct transfer of heat through matter due to temperature difference

1. Radiation
2. Conduction
3. Convection
4. All the above

Explanation

Conduction is the process of direct transfer of heat through matter due to temperature difference. When two objects are in direct contact with one another, heat will be transferred from the hotter object to the colder one. The objects which allow heat to travel easily through them are called conductors.

52. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Thermal conductivity is the ability to conduct heat.
2. The quantity of heat transferred through a unit length of a material in a direction normal to unit surface area due to a unit temperature difference under steady state conditions
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Thermal conductivity is the ability to conduct heat. The quantity of heat transferred through a unit length of a material in a direction normal to unit surface area due to a unit temperature difference under steady state conditions is known as thermal conductivity of a material.

53. The SI unit of thermal conductivity is______

1. J s^-1 m^-1
2. J s-1 m K^-1
3. J s m K^-1
4. J s^-1 m^-1 K^-1

Explanation

In steady state, the rate of flow of heat Q is proportional to the temperature difference ΔT and the area of cross section A and is inversely proportional to the length L. The SI unit of thermal conductivity is J s^-1 m^-1 K^-1 or W m^-1 K^-1.

54. Match the thermal conductivity of the material

1. Silver 1. 2
2. Copper 2. 2300
3. Diamond 3. 380
4. Ice 4. 420
5. 3, 1, 2, 4
6. 4, 3, 2, 1
7. 2, 1, 4, 3
8. 4, 2, 3, 1

Explanation

55. Match the following

1. Water 1. 0.042
2. Air 2. 0.56
3. Helium 3. 0.023
4. Cork 4. 0.152
5. 2, 1, 3, 4
6. 2, 3, 4, 1
7. 2, 1, 4, 3
8. 3, 2, 1, 4

Explanation

56. Which of the following have high thermal conductivity?

1. Silver
2. Nickel
3. Aluminium
4. Both a and c

Explanation

Thermal conductivity depends on the nature of the material. For example, silver and aluminium have high thermal conductivities. So, they are used to make cooking vessels.

57. Convection is the process in which heat transfer is by actual movement of molecules in___

1. Solid
2. Liquid
3. Gas
4. Fluid

Explanation

Convection is the process in which heat transfer is by actual movement of molecules in fluids such as liquids and gases. In convection, molecules move freely from one place to another. It happens naturally or forcefully.

58. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. During the day, sun rays warm up the land more quickly than sea water
2. It is because water has less specific heat capacity than land
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

During the day, sun rays warm up the land more quickly than sea water. It is because land has less specific heat capacity than water. As a result, the air above the land becomes less dense and rises.

59. The cooler air above the sea flows to land and it is called____

1. Land breeze
2. Sea breeze
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

During the day, sun rays warm up the land more quickly than sea water. It is because land has less specific heat capacity than water. As a result the air above the land becomes less dense and rises. At the same time the cooler air above the sea flows to land and it is called ‘sea breeze’.

60. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. During the night time the land gets cooled faster than sea due to specific heat.
2. The air molecules above sea are warmer than air molecules above the land
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

During the night time the land gets cooled faster than sea due to the same reason (specific heat). The air molecules above sea are warmer than air molecules above the land. So, air molecules above the sea are replaced by cooler air molecules from the land. It is called ‘land breeze’

61. Water at the bottom of the pot receives_____

1. Less heat
2. More heat
3. Medium heat
4. None

Explanation

Boiling water in a cooking pot is an example of convection. Water at the bottom of the pot receives more heat.

62. Due to heating, the water_____ and the density of water increases at the bottom

1. Expands, increases
2. Contracts, increases
3. Expands, decreases
4. Contracts, decreases

Explanation

Boiling water in a cooking pot is an example of convection. Water at the bottom of the pot receives more heat. Due to heating, the water expands and the density of water decreases at the bottom. Due to this decrease in density, molecules rise to the top.

63. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. When we keep our hands near the hot stove we feel the heat even though our hands are not touching the hot stove.
2. Heat transferred from the hot stove to our hands is in the form of radiation
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

When we keep our hands near the hot stove we feel the heat even though our hands are not touching the hot stove. Here heat transferred from the hot stove to our hands is in the form of radiation. We receive energy from the sun in the form of radiations.

64. Radiation is a form of energy transfer from one body to another by_______

1. Radio waves
2. Electromagnetic waves
3. Ultrasonic waves
4. Infrasonic waves

Explanation

The conduction or convection requires medium to transfer the heat. Radiation is a form of energy transfer from one body to another by electromagnetic waves.

65. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The parameter temperature is generally thought to be associated with matter
2. The visible radiation coming from the Sun is at the temperature of 570 K
3. Earth re emits the radiation in the infrared range into space which is at a temperature of around 300K.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The parameter temperature is generally thought to be associated with matter (solid, liquid and gas). But radiation is also considered as a thermodynamic system which has well defined temperature and pressure. The visible radiation coming from the Sun is at the temperature of 5700 K and the Earth re emits the radiation in the infrared range into space which is at a temperature of around 300K.

66. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Newton’s law of cooling states that the rate of loss of heat of a body is directly proportional to the difference in the temperature between that body and its surroundings
2. Newton’s law of cooling states that the rate of loss of heat of a body is indirectly proportional to the difference in the temperature between that body and its surroundings
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Newton’s law of cooling states that the rate of loss of heat of a body is directly proportional to the difference in the temperature between that body and its surroundings

67. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Every object emits heat radiations at all finite temperatures (except 0 K) as well as it absorbs radiations from the surroundings
2. If you touch someone, they might feel your skin as either hot or cold is an example
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Every object emits heat radiations at all finite temperatures (except 0 K) as well as it absorbs radiations from the surroundings. For example, if you touch someone, they might feel your skin as either hot or cold.

68. A body at high temperature_____ to the surroundings

1. Radiates more heat
2. Absorbs more heat
3. Radiates less heat
4. Absorbs less heat

Explanation

A body at high temperature radiates more heat to the surroundings than it receives from it. Similarly, a body at a lower temperature receives more heat from the surroundings than it loses to it.

69. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Prevost applied the idea of ‘thermal equilibrium’ to radiation
2. He suggested that all bodies radiate energy but hot bodies radiate more heat than the cooler bodies.
3. Only at absolute zero temperature a body will stop emitting
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

Prevost applied the idea of ‘thermal equilibrium’ to radiation. He suggested that all bodies radiate energy but hot bodies radiate more heat than the cooler bodies. At one point of time the rate of exchange of heat from both the bodies will become the same. Now the bodies are said to be in ‘thermal equilibrium’. Only at absolute zero temperature a body will stop emitting. Therefore, Prevost theory states that all bodies emit thermal radiation at all temperatures above absolute zero irrespective of the nature of the surroundings.

70. Which equation about Stefan Boltzmann law is correct?

1. E ∝ T⁴
2. E ∝ T³
3. E ∝ T⁶
4. E ∝ T²

Explanation

Stefan Boltzmann law states that, the total amount of heat radiated per second per unit area of a black body is directly proportional to the fourth power of its absolute temperature.

71. E = e σ T4, e in the equation is_____

1. Emissivity
2. Energy
3. Electron
4. Emergence

Explanation

72. The wavelengths of radiations depend on the object’s______

1. Temperature
2. Absolute temperature
3. Mass
4. Gravitation

Explanation

In the universe every object emits radiation. The wavelengths of these radiations depend on the object’s absolute temperature. These radiations have different wavelengths and all the emitted wavelengths will not have equal intensity.

73. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Wien’s law states that, the wavelength of maximum intensity of emission of a black body radiation is directly proportional to the absolute temperature of the black body
2. Wien’s law states that, the wavelength of maximum intensity of emission of a black body radiation is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature of the black body
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Wien’s law states that, the wavelength of maximum intensity of emission of a black body radiation is inversely proportional to the absolute temperature of the black body

74. Wien constant value is____

1. 2.898× 10^-7 m K
2. 2.898× 10^-2 m K
3. 2.898× 10^-5 m K
4. 2.898× 10^-3 m K

Explanation

Where, b is known as Wien’s constant. Its value is 2.898× 10^-3 m K It implies that if temperature of the body increases, maximal intensity wavelength (λ m) shifts towards lower wavelength (higher frequency) of electromagnetic spectrum.

75. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The Sun is approximately taken as a black body.
2. It is the wavelength at which maximum intensity is 508nm
3. Since the Sun’s temperature is around 5700K, the spectrum of radiations emitted by Sun lie

between 400 nm to 700 nm which is the visible part of the spectrum

1. 1, 2
2. 1, 3
3. 2, 3
4. All the above

Explanation

The Sun is approximately taken as a black body. Since any object above 0 K will emit radiation, Sun also emits radiation. Its surface temperature is about 5700 K. It is the wavelength at which maximum intensity is 508nm. Since the Sun’s temperature is around 5700K, the spectrum of radiations emitted by Sun lie between 400 nm to 700 nm which is the visible part of the spectrum.

76. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The humans evolved under the Sun by receiving its radiations.
2. Suppose if humans had evolved in a planet near the star Sirius (9940K), then they would have had the ability to see the Ultraviolet rays
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The humans evolved under the Sun by receiving its radiations. The human eye is sensitive only in the visible not in infrared or X-ray ranges in the spectrum. Suppose if humans had evolved in a planet near the star Sirius (9940K), then they would have had the ability to see the Ultraviolet rays.

77. _____ branch of physics deals with laws governing the process of conversion of work into heat

and conversion of heat into work

1. Kinematics
2. Thermodynamics
3. Sonography
4. Kinetics

Explanation

Thermodynamics is a branch of physics which describes the laws governing the process of conversion of work into heat and conversion of heat into work.

78. Who among the following formulated laws of thermodynamics?

1. Boyle
2. Charles
3. Kelvin
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The laws of thermodynamics are formulated over three centuries of experimental works of Boyle, Charles, Bernoulli, Joule, Clausius, Kelvin, Carnot and Helmholtz. In our day to day life, the functioning of everything around us and even our body is governed by the laws of thermodynamics.

79. Which of the following parameters can be used to specify thermodynamics?

1. Volume
2. Temperature
3. Pressure
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

A thermodynamic system is a finite part of the universe. It is a collection of large number of particles (atoms and molecules) specified by certain parameters called pressure (P), Volume (V) and Temperature (T). The remaining part of the universe is called surrounding. Both are separated by a boundary.

80. Which of the following are thermodynamic system?

1. Bucket of water
2. Sea of water
3. Human body
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

81. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Open system can exchange both matter and energy with the environment
2. Isolated system can exchange neither energy nor matter with the environment
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Open system can exchange both matter and energy with the environment. Closed system exchange energy but not matter with the environment. Isolated system can exchange neither energy nor matter with the environment.

82. When a hot cup of coffee is kept in the room, heat flows from______

1. Coffee to air
2. Air to coffee
3. Wise-versa
4. None

Explanation

When a hot cup of coffee is kept in the room, heat flows from coffee to the surrounding air. After sometime the coffee reaches the same temperature as the surrounding air and there will be no heat flow from coffee to air or air to coffee. It implies that the coffee and surrounding air are in thermal equilibrium with each other.

83. Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium with each other if they are at____ temperature

1. Different
2. Same
3. Slightly different
4. None

Explanation

Two systems are said to be in thermal equilibrium with each other if they are at the same temperature, which will not change with time.

84. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. A system is said to be in mechanical equilibrium if no unbalanced force acts on the thermo dynamic system or on the surrounding by thermodynamic system
2. When some mass is placed on the piston where filled with gas, it will move downward due to downward gravitational force and after certain humps and jumps the piston will come to rest at a new position
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Consider a gas container with piston as shown in Figure 8.17. When some mass is placed on the piston, it will move downward due to downward gravitational force and after certain humps and jumps the piston will come to rest at a new position. When the downward gravitational force given by the piston is balanced by the upward force exerted by the gas, the system is said to be in mechanical equilibrium. A system is said to be in mechanical equilibrium if no unbalanced force acts on the thermo dynamic system or on the surrounding by thermodynamic system.

85. If two systems are set to be in thermodynamic equilibrium, then the systems are at____

Equilibrium

1. Thermal
2. Mechanical
3. Chemical
4. All the above

Explanation

If two systems are set to be in thermodynamic equilibrium, then the systems are at thermal, mechanical and chemical equilibrium with each other. In a state of thermo-dynamic equilibrium the macroscopic variables such as pressure, volume and temperature will have fixed values and do not change with time.

86. In mechanics, which of the following are used to explain the state of any moving object?

1. Velocity
2. Mass
3. Momentum
4. Acceleration
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 1, 3, 4
7. 2, 3, 4
8. 1, 2, 4

Explanation

In mechanics velocity, momentum and acceleration are used to explain the state of any moving object. If there is no net chemical reaction between two thermodynamic systems in contact with each other then it is said to be in chemical equilibrium.

87. Which of the following are thermodynamic variables?

1. Pressure
2. Volume
3. Internal energy
4. All the above

Explanation

In thermodynamics, the state of a thermodynamic system is represented by a set of variables called thermodynamic variables. Examples: Pressure, temperature, volume and internal energy, etc.

88. Which of the following are process variables in thermodynamics?

1. Work
2. Pressure
3. Heat
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The values of these variables completely describe the equilibrium state of a thermodynamic system. Heat and work are not state variables rather they are process variables.

89. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Extensive variable depends on the size or mass of the system
2. Temperature and pressure are examples of extensive variable
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Extensive variable depends on the size or mass of the system. Example: Volume, total mass, entropy, internal energy, heat capacity etc.

90. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Intensive variables depend on the size or mass of the system.
2. Example are Temperature, pressure, specific heat capacity, density etc.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Intensive variables do not depend on the size or mass of the system. Example: Temperature, pressure, specific heat capacity, density etc.

91. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The equation which connects the state variables in a specific manner is called equation of state
2. A thermodynamic equilibrium is completely specified by pressure, volume, temperature state variables by the equation of state
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The equation which connects the state variables in a specific manner is called equation of state. A thermodynamic equilibrium is completely specified by pressure, volume, temperature state variables by the equation of state. If the system is not in thermodynamic equilibrium, then these equations cannot specify the state of the system.

92. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. An ideal gas obeys the equation PV = NkT at thermodynamic equilibrium.
2. Since all four macroscopic variables (P, V, T and N) are connected by this equation, we cannot change one variable alone
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

An ideal gas obeys the equation PV = NkT at thermodynamic equilibrium. Since all four macroscopic variables (P, V, T and N) are connected by this equation, we cannot change one variable alone. For example, if we push the piston of a gas container, the volume of the gas will decrease but pressure will increase or if heat is supplied to the gas, its temperature will increase, pressure and volume of the gas may also increase.

93. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. There is another example of equation of state called van der Waals equation.
2. The air molecules in the room truly obey van der Waals equation of state.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

There is another example of equation of state called van der Waals equation. Real gases obey this equation at thermodynamic equilibrium. The air molecules in the room truly obey van der Waals equation of state. But at room temperature with low density we can approximate it into an ideal gas.

94. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. The zeroth law of thermodynamics states thermal equilibrium between systems
2. It states that if two systems, A and B, are in thermal equilibrium with a third system, C, then A and B are in thermal equilibrium with each other
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The zeroth law of thermodynamics states that if two systems, A and B, are in thermal equilibrium with a third system, C, then A and B are in thermal equilibrium with each other.

95.____ is the property which determines whether the system is in thermal equilibrium with other

systems or not.

1. Temperature
2. Pressure
3. Volume
4. None

Explanation

Temperature is the property which determines whether the system is in thermal equilibrium with other systems or not. Zeroth law enables us to determine the temperature.

96. ______ principle is used in finding the body temperature

1. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
2. Newtons 1^st law
3. Newtons 3^rd law
4. None

Explanation

Zeroth law enables us to determine the temperature. For example, when a thermometer is kept in contact with a human body, it reaches thermal equilibrium with the body. At this condition, the temperature of the thermometer will be same as the human body. This principle is used in finding the body temperature.

97. The internal energy of a thermodynamic system is_______

1. Kinetic energy alone
2. Potential energy of all the molecules
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

The internal energy of a thermodynamic system is the sum of kinetic and potential energies of all the molecules of the system with respect to the centre of mass of the system.

98. The energy due to molecular interaction is called_______

1. Internal potential energy
2. Internal kinetic energy
3. External potential energy
4. External kinetic energy

Explanation

The energy due to molecular interaction is called internal potential energy (EP). Example: Bond energy.

99. Which of the following are included in internal kinetic energy?

1. Rotational motion
2. Translational motion
3. Vibrational motion
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The energy due to molecular motion including translational, rotational and vibrational motion is called internal kinetic energy (E_K).

100. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Internal energy is a state variable
2. It depends only on the initial state of the thermodynamic system
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Internal energy is a state variable. It depends only on the initial and final states of the thermodynamic system. For example, if the temperature of water is raised from 30°C to 40°C either by heating or by stirring, the final internal energy depends only on the final temperature 40°C and not the way it is arrived at.

101. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. It is very important to note that the internal energy of a thermodynamic system is associated with only the kinetic energy of the individual molecule
2. The bulk kinetic energy of the entire system or gravitational potential energy of the system should not be mistaken as a part of internal energy
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

It is very important to note that the internal energy of a thermodynamic system is associated with only the kinetic energy of the individual molecule due to its random motion and the potential energy of molecules which depends on their chemical nature. The bulk kinetic energy of the entire system or gravitational potential energy of the system should not be mistaken as a part of internal energy.

102. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. It is to be noted that heat does not always increases the internal energy
2. We can see that in ideal gases during isothermal process the internal energy will increase
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

It is to be noted that heat does not always increases the internal energy. Later we shall see that in ideal gases during isothermal process the internal energy will not increase even though heat flows in to the system.

103. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The temperature of an object can be increased by heating it or by doing some work on it.
2. Due to the turning of wheel inside water, frictional force comes in between the water and the paddle wheel.
3. Friction will increase the heat
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The temperature of an object can be increased by heating it or by doing some work on it. In the eighteenth century, James Prescott Joule showed that mechanical energy can be converted into internal energy and vice versa. In his experiment, two masses were attached with a rope and a paddle wheel as shown in Figure 8.19. When these masses fall through a distance h due to gravity, both the masses lose potential energy equal to 2mgh. When the masses fall, the paddle wheel turns. Due to the turning of wheel inside water, frictional force comes in between the water and the paddle wheel. This causes a rise in temperature of the water.

104. 1 Cal =_____

1. 4.186 J
2. 5.12 J
3. 3.26 J
4. 2.33 J

Explanation

In fact, Joule was able to show that the mechanical work has the same effect as giving heat. He found that to raise 1 g of an object by 1°C, 4.186 J of energy is required. In earlier days the heat was measured in calorie. 1 Cal = 4.186 J

105. A student had a breakfast of 200 food calories. He thinks of burning this energy by drawing water from the well and watering the trees in his school. Depth of the well is about 25 m. The pot

can hold 25L of water and each tree requires one pot of water. How many trees can he water?

1. 6250 J
2. 6650 J
3. 3350 J
4. 2235 J

Explanation

106. The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of______

1. Law of conservation of mass
2. Law of conservation of weight
3. Law of conservation of Energy
4. Law of conservation of pressure

Explanation

The first law of thermodynamics is a statement of the law of conservation of energy. In Newtonian mechanics conservation of energy involves kinetic and potential energies of bulk objects.

107. Match the following

1. Heat flows into the system 1. W is positive
2. Heat flows out of the system 2. W is negative
3. Work done on the system 3. Internal energy increases
4. Work done by the system 4. Internal energy decreases
5. 2, 1, 4, 3
6. 3, 4, 2, 1
7. 3, 1, 2, 4
8. 2, 1, 3, 4

Explanation

108. 1^st law of thermodynamics is applicable to____

1. Solid
2. Liquid
3. Gas
4. Universal

Explanation

Even though we often explain first law of thermodynamics using gases, this law is universal and applies to liquids and solids also.

109. A person does 30 kJ work on 2 kg of water by stirring using a paddle wheel. While stirring, around 5 kcal of heat is released from water through its container to the surface and surroundings by thermal conduction and radiation. What is the change in internal energy of the system?

1. 9080 J
2. 8090 J
3. 1010 J
4. 1000 J

Explanation

110. Jogging every day is good for health. Assume that when you jog a work of 500 kJ is done and

230 kJ of heat is given off. What is the change in internal energy of your body?

1. – 730 kJ
2. – 630 kJ
3. – 530 kJ
4. – 430 kJ

Explanation

111. A gas expands from volume 1m³ to 2m³ at constant atmospheric pressure. Calculate the work

done by the gas. (kJ)

1. 101
2. 120
3. 230
4. 111

Explanation

112. Which of the following has two specific heat capacity?

1. Solid
2. Liquid
3. Gas
4. All the above

Explanation

Specific heat capacity of a given system plays a very important role in determining the structure and molecular nature of the system. Unlike solids and liquids, gases have two specific heats: specific heat capacity at constant pressure (s_p) and specific heat capacity at constant volume (s_v).

113. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one kg of a substance by 1 K or 1°C by keeping the pressure constant is called specific heat capacity at constant pressure
2. When the heat energy is supplied to the gas, it contracts to keep the pressure constant
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The amount of heat energy required to raise the temperature of one kg of a substance by 1 K or 1°C by keeping the pressure constant is called specific heat capacity of at constant pressure. When the heat energy is supplied to the gas, it expands to keep the pressure constant.

114. What work does the heat energy do when gas is heated under constant pressure?

1. Expansion of gas
2. Increase external energy of gas
3. Increase internal energy of gas
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

In this process of heating gas under constant pressure, a part of the heat energy is used for doing work (expansion) and the remaining part is used to increase the internal energy of the gas.

115. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one mole of a substance by 1K or 1°C at

constant volume is called_____ at constant pressure

1. Molar heat capacity
2. Specific heat capacity
3. Molar Specific heat capacity
4. None

Explanation

Sometimes it is useful to calculate the molar heat capacities Cp and C_v. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of one mole of a substance by 1K or 1°C at constant volume is called molar specific heat capacity at constant volume (C_v). If pressure is kept constant, it is called molar specific heat capacity at constant pressure (C_p).

116. Which of the following statement about Meyer’s relation is correct?

1. It implies that the molar specific heat capacity of an ideal gas at constant pressure is greater than molar specific heat capacity at constant volume.
2. It implies that the molar specific heat capacity of an ideal gas at constant pressure is lesser than molar specific heat capacity at constant volume.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Meyer’s relation implies that the molar specific heat capacity of an ideal gas at constant pressure is greater than molar specific heat capacity at constant volume.

117. Which of the following is constant is Isothermal process?

1. Temperature
2. Pressure
3. Volume
4. All the above

Explanation

Isothermal process is a process in which the temperature remains constant but the pressure and volume of a thermodynamic system will change.

118. All biological processes occur at constant body temperature of____ ^o C

1. 30
2. 27
3. 37
4. 35

Explanation

When water is heated, at the boiling point, even when heat flows to water, the temperature will not increase unless the water completely evaporates. Similarly, at the freezing point, when the ice melts to water, the temperature of ice will not increase even when heat is supplied to ice. All biological processes occur at constant body temperature (37°C).

119. To calculate the work done in an isothermal process, we assume that the process is_____

1. Dynamic
2. Static
3. Quasi Static
4. None

Explanation

To calculate the work done in an isothermal process, we assume that the process is quasi-static. If it is not quasi-static, we cannot substitute P = µRT/V in equation.

120. A 0.5 mole of gas at temperature 300 K expands isothermally from initial volume of 2 L to 6 L. What is the work done by the gas?

1. 3. 39 kJ
2. 1.369 kJ
3. 1.639 kJ
4. 2.23 kJ

Explanation

121. A 0.5 mole of gas at temperature 300 K expands isothermally from an initial volume of 2 L to 6

L What is the final pressure of the gas? (The value of gas constant, R = 8.31 J mol^-1 K^-1)

1. 210 k Pa
2. 207.75 k Pa
3. 220 k Pa
4. 120 k Pa

Explanation

122. In which process no heat flows into or out of the system?

1. Adiabatic process
2. Abiastalic process
3. Isothermal process
4. Isomatic process

Explanation

Adiabatic process is a process in which no heat flows into or out of the system (Q=0). Where Q value will be Zero in the system.

123. Which of the following may change in adiabatic process?

1. Volume
2. Pressure
3. Temperature
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

In an Adiabatic process, the gas can expand by spending its internal energy or gas can be compressed through some external work. So, the pressure, volume and temperature of the system may change in an adiabatic process.

124. For an adiabatic process, the first law becomes_____

1. ΔU = 0
2. ΔU = −W
3. ΔU = W
4. ΔU = ΔV

Explanation

For an adiabatic process, the first law becomes ΔU = −W. This implies that the work is done by the gas at the expense of internal energy or work is done on the system which increases its internal energy.

125. When the warm air rises from the surface of the Earth, it_____

1. Expands
2. Contracts
3. Adiabatically expands
4. Adiabatically Contracts

Explanation

When the warm air rises from the surface of the Earth, it adiabatically expands. As a result, the water vapor cools and condenses into water droplets forming a cloud.

126. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. When the piston is compressed so quickly that there is no time to exchange heat to the surrounding, the temperature of the gas increases rapidly
2. This principle is used in the petrol engine
3. The air-gasoline mixer is compressed so quickly (adiabatic compression) that the temperature increases enormously, which is enough to produce a spark
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

When the piston is compressed so quickly that there is no time to exchange heat to the surrounding, the temperature of the gas increases rapidly. This is shown in the figure. This principle is used in the diesel engine. The air-gasoline mixer is compressed so quickly (adiabatic compression) that the temperature increases enormously, which is enough to produce a spark.

127. Which of the following is constant in Isobaric process?

1. Temperature
2. Pressure
3. Internal energy
4. Volume

Explanation

Isobaric process is a thermodynamic process that occurs at constant pressure. Even though pressure is constant in this process, temperature, volume and internal energy are not constant.

128. Most of the cooking processes in our kitchen are_____ process

1. Isothermal
2. Isobaric
3. Adiabatic
4. None

Explanation

Most of the cooking processes in our kitchen are isobaric processes. When the food is cooked in an open vessel, the pressure above the food is always at atmospheric pressure.

129. Which of the following is constant in Isochoric process?

1. Temperature
2. Pressure
3. Internal energy
4. Volume

Explanation

Isochoric process is a thermodynamic process in which the volume of the system is kept constant. But pressure, temperature and internal energy continue to be variables.

130. How many processes does petrol engine undergo?

1. 3
2. 5
3. 4
4. 2

Explanation

In automobiles the petrol engine undergoes four processes. First the piston is adiabatically compressed to some volume as shown. In the second process, the volume of the air-fuel mixture is kept constant and heat is being added. As a result, the temperature and pressure are increased. This is an isochoric process. For a third stroke there will be an adiabatic expansion, and fourth stroke again isochoric process by keeping the piston immoveable.

131. 500 g of water is heated from 30°C to 60°C. Ignoring the slight expansion of water, calculate the

change in internal energy of the water? (specific heat of water 4184 J/kg.K).

1. 62.76 kJ
2. 162.76 kJ
3. 262.76 kJ
4. 362.76 kJ

Explanation

132. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. When a hot object is in contact with a cold object, heat always flows from the hot object to cold object
2. Heat does not flow in reverse direction
3. In nature the direction of heat flow is always from higher temperature to lower temperature.
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

When a hot object is in contact with a cold object, heat always flows from the hot object to cold object but not in the reverse direction. According to first law, it is possible for the energy to flow from hot object to cold object or from cold object to hot object. But in nature the direction of heat flow is always from higher temperature to lower temperature.

133. When brakes are applied, work done against friction is converted into_____

1. Motion
2. Heat
3. Pressure
4. Cold

Explanation

When brakes are applied, a car stops due to friction and the work done against friction is converted into heat. But this heat is not reconverted to the kinetic energy of the car. So the first law is not sufficient to explain many of natural phenomena.

134. Which of the following are the conditions for reversible process?

1. The process should proceed at an extremely slow rate
2. The system should remain in mechanical, thermal and chemical equilibrium state at all the times with the surroundings, during the process.
3. No dissipative forces such as friction, viscosity, electrical resistance should be present
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

A quasi–static isothermal expansion of gas, slow compression and expansion of a spring.

Conditions for reversible process:

1. The process should proceed at an extremely slow rate.

2. The system should remain in mechanical, thermal and chemical equilibrium state at all the times with the surroundings, during the process.

3. No dissipative forces such as friction, viscosity, electrical resistance should be present.

135. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. All-natural processes are irreversible.
2. Irreversible process can be plotted in a PV diagram
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

All-natural processes are irreversible. Irreversible process cannot be plotted in a PV diagram, because these processes cannot have unique values of pressure, temperature at every stage of the process.

136. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. In the modern technological world, the role of automobile engines plays a vital role in for transportation.
2. In motor bikes and cars there are engines which take in petrol or diesel as input, and do work by rotating wheels
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

In the modern technological world, the role of automobile engines plays a vital role in for transportation. In motor bikes and cars there are engines which take in petrol or diesel as input, and do work by rotating wheels.

137. Most of these automobile engines have efficiency not greater than____ %

1. 30
2. 50
3. 40
4. 90

Explanation

Most of these automobile engines have efficiency not greater than 40%. The second law of thermodynamics puts a fundamental restriction on efficiency of engines. Therefore, understanding heat engines is very important.

138. ______ is defined as a thermodynamic system which has very large heat capacity

1. Water tank
2. Reservoir
3. Hot water in tumbler
4. All the above

Explanation

Reservoir is defined as a thermodynamic system which has very large heat capacity. By taking in heat from reservoir or giving heat to reservoir, the reservoir’s temperature does not change.

139. How many parts are there in heat engine?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 2
4. 5

Explanation

Heat engine is a device which takes heat as input and converts this heat in to work by undergoing a cyclic process. A heat engine has three parts: (a) Hot reservoir (b) Working substance (c) Cold reservoir.

140. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The heat engine works in a cyclic process.
2. After a cyclic process it returns to the same state
3. The change in the internal energy of the heat engine is infinity
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 3
6. 2, 3
7. All the above

Explanation

The heat engine works in a cyclic process. After a cyclic process it returns to the same state. Since the heat engine returns to the same state after it ejects heat, the change in the internal energy of the heat engine is zero

141. Which of the following statement about Kelvin Planck statement is correct?

1. It is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in a cycle, whose sole effect is to convert the heat completely into work
2. This implies that no heat engine in the universe can have 100% efficiency.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Kelvin-Planck statement:

It is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in a cycle, whose sole effect is to convert the heat completely into work. This implies that no heat engine in the universe can have 100% efficiency.

142. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. According to first law of thermodynamics, in an isothermal process the given heat is completely converted into work
2. For non-cyclic process like an isothermal expansion, the heat can be completely converted into work.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

143. During a cyclic process, a heat engine absorbs 500 J of heat from a hot reservoir, does work and

ejects an amount of heat 300 J into the surroundings (cold reservoir). Calculate the efficiency of

the heat engine?

1. 0.4
2. 0.6
3. 0.9
4. 0.7

Explanation

144. Who proved that a certain reversible engine operated in cycle between hot and cold reservoir can have maximum efficiency?

1. James Carnot
2. James Princep
3. James Krikup
4. James Cameron

Explanation

In the year 1824 a young French engineer Sadi Carnot proved that a certain reversible engine operated in cycle between hot and cold reservoir can have maximum efficiency. This engine is called Carnot engine.

145. A steam engine boiler is maintained at 250°C and water is converted into steam. This steam is

used to do work and heat is ejected to the surrounding air at temperature 300K. Calculate the

maximum efficiency it can have?

1. 0.3
2. 0.23
3. 0.43
4. 0.65

Explanation

146. There are two Carnot engines A and B operating in two different temperature regions. For Engine A the temperatures of the two reservoirs are 150°C and 100°C. For engine B the temperatures of the reservoirs are 350°C and 300°C. What is engine A efficiency?

1. 0.11
2. 0.43
3. 0.23
4. 0.34

Explanation

147. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Diesel engines used in cars and petrol engines used in our motor bikes are all real heat engines
2. The efficiency of diesel engines has maximum up to 44% and the efficiency of petrol engines are maximum up to 30%.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Diesel engines used in cars and petrol engines used in our motor bikes are all real heat engines. The efficiency of diesel engines has maximum up to 44% and the efficiency of petrol engines are maximum up to 30%. Since these engines are not ideal heat engines (Carnot engine), their efficiency is limited by the second law of thermodynamics.

148. _____ is also called ‘measure of disorder’.

1. Entropy
2. Enthalpy
3. Endom
4. None

Explanation

Entropy is also called ‘measure of disorder’. All- natural process occurs such that the disorder should always increases.

149. A refrigerator has COP of 3. How much work must be supplied to the refrigerator in order to

remove 200 J of heat from its interion?

1. 66.67 J
2. 66.67 kJ
3. 56.67 J
4. 56. 67 kJ

Explanation

150. Top of the atmosphere is at___ °C and bottom of the atmosphere is at__ °C

1. -19, 14
2. 19, 14
3. 19, -14
4. -19, -14

Explanation

The presence of atmosphere in the earth plays very important role in human lives. Top of the atmosphere is at -19°C and bottom of the atmosphere is at +14°C. The increase in 33°C from top to bottom is due to some gases present in the atmosphere. These gases are called Greenhouse gases and this effect is called Greenhouse effect.

151. Which of the following are green-house gases?

1. Ne
2. He
3. CO₂
4. All the above

Explanation

The greenhouse gases are mainly CO₂, water vapour, Ne, He, NO₂, CH4, Xe, Kr, ozone and NH₃. Except CO₂ and water vapor, all others are present only in very small amount in the atmosphere.

152. CO2 and other gases in the atmosphere trap____ radiation, keeping the earth warm.

1. UV
2. IR
3. X- ray
4. All the above

Explanation

11th Science Lesson 7 Questions in English

7] Environmental Chemistry

1. Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for the development of new chemicals based on Green chemistry in 2005?

a) Yuves Chauvin

b) Robert H.Grubbs

c) R. Schrock

d) All the above

Explanation

The Nobel Prize in chemistry 2005 was awarded jointly to Yves Chauvin, Robert H. Grubbs and Richard R. Schrock for the development of new chemicals based on Green chemistry.

2. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Yves Chauvin explained the types of metal compound catalysts in reactions in the year 1971.

ii) Richard Schrock was one of the people to produce efficient metal compound catalysts for metathesis.

iii) Robert Grubbs developed better catalysts that are stable in air.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

In 1971 Yves Chauvin explained the types of metal compound that act as catalysts in the reactions. Richard Schrock was the first to produce efficient metal compound catalysts for metathesis in 1990. Two years later Robert Grubbs developed better catalysts, stable in air that was highlighted in many applications.

3. Which of the following are the main objectives of the environmental chemistry?

a) Deals with the study of chemicals and processes occurring in the environment by human activities.

b) Deals with sources, causes and methods of Pollution.

c) Deals with all types of pollution like air, water and soil.

d) All the above

Explanation

Environmental chemistry is a branch of chemistry which deals with the study of chemicals and chemical processes occurring in the environment by direct human activities. It also deals with sources, causes and methods of controlling air, water and soil pollution.

4. Assertion (A): All the substances causes pollution of environment are called as pollutants.

Reasoning(R): The Pollutants may be solid, liquids or gaseous substances.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Environmental pollution is usually caused by the addition of waste products of human activity to the environment. The substances which cause pollution of environment are called pollutants. The pollutants may be solids, liquids or gaseous substances present in significant concentration in the environment.

5. Which of the following is not a bio-degradable pollutant?

a) Plant wastes

b) Nuclear wastes

c) Animal wastes

d) Biological wastes

Explanation

Bio-degradable pollutants: The pollutants which can be easily decomposed by the natural biological processes are called bio-degradable pollutants. Examples: plant wastes, animal wastes etc.

6. Choose the incorrect statements.

i) Non bio-degradable pollutants cannot be decomposed by the natural biological process.

ii) In low concentration non bio-degradable pollutants are not harmful to living organisms.

iii) Metal wastes, DDT, plastics and nuclear wastes are some of the Non bio-degradable pollutants.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Non bio-degradable pollutants: The pollutants which cannot be decomposed by the natural biological processes are called non bio-degradable pollutants. Examples: metal wastes (mainly Hg and Pb), D.D.T, plastics, nuclear wastes etc., these pollutants are harmful to living organisms even in low concentration. As they are not degraded naturally, it is difficult to eliminate them from our environment.

7. Which of the following is not included in the mixture of air?

a) Nitrogen

b) Argon

c) Water vapor

d) Helium

Explanation

Earth’s atmosphere is a layer of gases retained by the earth’s gravity. It contains roughly 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.93% argon, 0.04% carbon dioxide, trace amounts of other gases and little amount of water vapor. This mixture is commonly known as air.

8. Which of this region is also known as ozonosphere?

a) Hydrosphere

b) Stratosphere

c) Mesosphere

d) Thermosphere

9. Identify the Incorrect match.

A. Stratosphere i) O₃

B. Thermosphere ii) NO⁺

C. Mesosphere iii) e^–

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

10. Which of the region is located between 85-100 km from the earth’s surface?

a) Ozonosphere

b) Thermosphere

c) Mesosphere

d) Ionosphere

Explanation

Regions of atmosphere

11. Which of this layer has about 80% mass of the atmosphere?

a) Troposphere

b) Stratosphere

c) Mesosphere

d) Exosphere

Explanation

Troposphere: The lowest layer of the atmosphere is called the troposphere and it extends from 0 – 10 km from the earth surface. About 80% of the mass of the atmosphere is in this layer.

12. Which of the following is not a category of troposphere?

a) Hydrosphere

b) Mesosphere

c) Lithosphere

d) Biosphere

Explanation

This troposphere is further divided as Hydrosphere, Lithosphere and Biosphere.

13. Which of this living organism are included in the biosphere of the Earth?

a) Lithosphere only

b) Hydrosphere only

c) Atmosphere only

d) All the above

Explanation

Biosphere: It includes the lithosphere hydrosphere and atmosphere integrating the living organism present in the lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.

14. Assertion (A): The Earth is called as a blue planet as 75% of earth’s surface is covered by water.

Reasoning(R): Hydrosphere only includes the fresh water sources of the Earth.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Hydrosphere: Hydrosphere includes all types of water sources like oceans, seas, rivers, lakes, streams, underground water, polar icecaps, clouds etc. It covers about 75% of the earth’s surface. Hence the earth is called as a blue planet.

15. In ____ an explosion at the Union Carbide pesticide plant released a cloud of toxic gas _____ into the air.

a) 1972, Ethyl alcohol

b) 1984, Methyl isocyanate

c) 1966, Benzene

d) 1989, Methane

Explanation

The world’s worst chemical disaster happened in the Indian city of Bhopal in the early morning hours of December 3, 1984. An explosion at the Union Carbide pesticide plant released a cloud of toxic gas (methyl isocyanate) CH3NCO into the air.

16. Which of this pollution is also studied as atmospheric pollution?

a) Lithospheric pollution

b) Hydrosphere pollution

c) Tropospheric pollution

d) Exospheric pollution

Explanation

Atmospheric pollution is generally studied as tropospheric pollution. Different types of atmospheric pollutions are Air pollution, Water pollution and Soil pollution.

17. Choose the incorrect statements.

i) Air pollution is caused by any undesirable change in air which adversely affects the living organisms.

ii) Air pollution is not limited to any of the regions of the atmosphere.

iii) Air pollution is due to the excessive discharge of undesirable foreign matters in the atmosphere.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Air pollution: Any undesirable change in air which adversely affects living organisms is called air pollution. Air pollution is limited to troposphere and stratosphere. Air pollution is mainly due to the excessive discharge of undesirable foreign matter in to the atmospheric air.

18. Which of the following is not a gaseous air pollutant?

a) Oxides of nitrogen

b) Oxides of metals

c) Oxides of carbon

d) Hydrocarbons

Explanation

Air pollutants may exist in two major forms namely, gases and particulates. Oxides of sulphur, oxides of nitrogen, oxides of carbon, and hydrocarbons are the gaseous air pollutants.

19. What are the harmful effects of the sulphur dioxide?

a) Eye irritation

b) Asthma

c) Bronchitis

d) All the above

Explanation

Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide are produced by burning sulphur containing fossil fuels and roasting Sulphide ores. Sulphur dioxide is a poisonous gas to both animals and plants. Sulphur dioxide causes eye irritation, coughing and respiratory diseases like asthma, bronchitis, etc.

20. Assertion (A): Sulphur trioxide combines with water vapor and forms H₂SO₄ and comes down as Acid rain.

Reasoning(R): Sulphur dioxide is oxidized into SO₃ in the presence of particulate matter in the polluted air.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Sulphur dioxide is oxidized into more harmful sulphur trioxide in the presence of particulate matter present in polluted air .SO₃ combines with atmospheric water vapor to form H₂SO₄ which comes down in the form of acid rain.

21. Which of the following is not true about the effects of nitrogen oxide?

a) The oxides of nitrogen are converted into nitric acid and form the acid rain.

b) The oxides of nitrogen form reddish brown haze in heavy traffic.

c) Nitrogen dioxide does not affect the plants.

d) Nitrogen oxide is a respiratory irritant and causes asthma and lung injury.

Explanation

The oxides of nitrogen are converted into nitric acid which comes down in the form of acid rain. They also form reddish brown haze in heavy traffic. Nitrogen dioxide potentially damages plant leaves and retards photosynthesis. NO2 is a respiratory irritant and it can cause asthma and lung injury. Nitrogen dioxide is also harmful to various textile fibres and metals.

22. Which of these produces the carbon monoxide?

a) Incomplete combustion of coal

b) Automobile exhaust

c) Incomplete combustion of firewood

d) All the above

Explanation

Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas produced as a result of incomplete combustion of coal or firewood. It is released into the air mainly by automobile exhaust.

23. Which of these are the effects of carbon monoxide in blood circulation?

a) Cardiac arrest

b) Dizziness

c) Loss of consciousness

d) All the above

Explanation

Carbon monoxide binds with hemoglobin Unit and forms carboxy hemoglobin which impairs normal oxygen transport by blood and hence the oxygen carrying capacity of blood is reduced. This oxygen deficiency results in headache, dizziness, tension, Loss of consciousness, blurring of eye sight and cardiac arrest.

24. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere mainly by the process of respiration.

ii) Green plants can convert CO₂ gas in the atmosphere into carbohydrate and oxygen through a process called photosynthesis.

iii) The decreased CO₂ level in the atmosphere is responsible for global warming. It causes headache and nausea.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere mainly by the process of respiration, burning of fossil fuels, forest fire, decomposition of limestone in cement industry etc. Green plants can convert CO2 gas in the atmosphere into carbohydrate and oxygen through a process called photosynthesis. The increased CO2 level in the atmosphere is responsible for global warming. It causes headache and nausea.

25. Choose the correct statements.

i) Hydrocarbons are the compounds composed of carbon with any gas or metal compounds.

ii) Hydrocarbons are the potential cancer causing agents.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

The compounds composed of carbon and hydrogen only are called hydrocarbons. They are mainly produced naturally (marsh gas) and also by incomplete combustion of automobile fuel. They are potential cancer causing (carcinogenic) agents. For example, poly nuclear aromatic hydrocarbons (PAH) are carcinogenic they cause irritation in eyes and mucous membranes.

26. Who coined the term the Greenhouse Effect?

a) Jean Baptiste

b) Richard Schrock

c) Albert Einstein

d) Robert Grubbs

Explanation

In 1987, Jean Baptiste Fourier a French mathematician and scientist coined the term “Greenhouse Effect” for trapping of heat in the atmosphere by certain gases.

27. Which of these used to trap the heat in the atmosphere?

a) CFC

b) CH₄

c) CO₂

d) All the above

Explanation

The earth’s atmosphere allows most of the visible light from the Sun to pass through and reach Earth’s surface. As Earth’s surface is heated by sunlight, it radiates part of this energy back toward space as longer wavelengths (IR). Some of the heat is trapped by CH4, CO2, CFCs and water vapor present in the atmosphere. They absorb IR radiation and effectively block a large portion of earth’s emitted radiation. The radiation thus absorbed is partly reemitted to earth’s surface. Therefore, the earth’s surface gets heated up by a phenomenon called greenhouse effect.

28. Assertion (A): Global warming is the process of heating up the earth through the greenhouse effect.

Reasoning(R): The Carbon dioxide layer in the atmosphere reflects the infrared radiations and heat up the earth’s surface.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Thus Greenhouse effect may be defined as the heating up of the earth surface due to trapping of infrared radiations reflected by earth’s surface by CO₂ layer in the atmosphere”. The heating up of earth through the greenhouse effect is called global warming.

29. What will be the average surface temperature of the Earth without the greenhouse effect?

a) 0°F

b) 273°C

c) 1000°F

d) -10°C

Explanation

Without the heating caused by the greenhouse effect, Earth’s average surface temperature would be only about −18 °C (0 °F).

30. What is the pH value of the normal rain water?

a) 5.6

b) 50.2

c) 6.5

d) 6.6

Explanation

Rain water normally has a pH of 5.6 due to dissolution of atmospheric CO2 into it.

31. Which of these drops the pH of the rain water?

a) Sulphur Oxide

b) Hydrogen Sulphide

c) Nitrogen Oxide

d) Both a and c

Explanation

Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere may be absorbed by droplets of water that make up clouds and get chemically converted into Sulphuric acid and nitric acid respectively. As a result, pH of rain water drops below the level 5.6, hence it is called acid rain.

32. Which of these react with the oxides of sulphur and nitrogen to produce acid rain?

a) Oxygen

b) Carbon dioxide

c) Hydrogen

d) Helium

Explanation

Acid rain is a by-product of a variety of sulphur and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere. Burning of fossil fuels (coal and oil) in power stations, furnaces and petrol, diesel in motor engines produce sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides. The main contributors of acid rain are SO₂ and NO₂. They are converted into Sulphuric acid and nitric acid respectively by the reaction with oxygen and water.

33. Which of these is referred as stone leprosy?

a) Respiratory ailments in humans.

b) Acid rain effects in aquatic ecosystem.

c) Acid rain attacks on marbles.

d) Toxic effects of acid rain in water pipes.

Explanation

Acid rain causes extensive damage to buildings and structural materials of marbles. This attack on marble is termed as Stone leprosy.

CaCO₃ + H₂SO4→ CaSO4 + H₂O +CO₂↑

34. Choose the correct statements.

i) Particulate pollutants are large solid, gas and liquid particles.

ii) Dust, smoke and aerosols are some of the particulate pollutants.

iii) Most of the particulate pollutants are not hazardous.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Particulate pollutants are small solid particles and liquid droplets suspended in air. Many of particulate pollutants are hazardous. Examples: dust, pollen, smoke, soot and liquid droplets (aerosols) etc. Combustion of high ash fossil fuels creates fly ash and finishing of metals throws metallic particles into the atmosphere.

35. In which of these ways the particulate pollutants are generated?

a) Volcanic eruption

b) Dust blows

c) Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels

d) All the above

Explanation

The dust, pollen, smoke, soot and liquid droplets (aerosols) etc. are some examples of particulate pollutants. They are blown into the atmosphere by volcanic eruption, blowing of dust; incomplete combustion of fossil fuels induces soot.

36. Which of these are not viable particulates?

a) Bacteria

b) Soot

c) Moulds

d) Algae

Explanation

Viable particulates: The viable particulates are the small size living organisms such as bacteria, fungi, moulds, algae, etc. which are dispersed in air. Some of the fungi cause allergy in human beings and diseases in plants.

37. What are the functions of the non-viable particles?

a) Transportation of viable particulates.

b) Increase the size of viable particulates.

c) Creating new types of diseases in plants.

d) Reduce the number of viable particulates.

Explanation

Non-viable particulates: The non- viable particulates are small solid particles and liquid droplets suspended in air. They help in the transportation of viable particles.

38. How many types of nonviable particulates are classified?

a) 5

b) 7

c) 4

d) 2

Explanation

There are four types of nonviable particulates in the atmosphere. They are classified according to their nature and size.

39. Which of this combustion produce the particles or mixtures?

a) Metals

b) Organic matters

c) Biodegradable products

d) Inorganic matters

Explanation

The Particles (or) mixture of solid and liquid particles are formed by combustion of organic matter. For example, cigarette smoke, oil smoke, smokes from burning of fossil fuel , garbage and dry leaves.

40. Which of the following is not a dust form?

a) Sand blast

b) Cement factories dust

c) Fly ash

d) Pesticides spray

Explanation

Dust: Dust composed of fine solid particles produced during crushing and grinding of solid materials. For example, sand from sand blasting, saw dust from wood works, cement dust from cement factories and fly ash from power generating units.

41. Which of these forms create the mists?

a) Fine solid particles by grinding of solid materials.

b) Saw dust from wood works.

c) Spray liquids and condensation of vapors in air.

d) None of the above

Explanation

Mists: They are formed by particles of spray liquids and condensation of vapors in air. For example, Sulphuric acid mist, herbicides and insecticides sprays can form mists.

42. Which of this condensation of vapors creates fumes?

a) Sublimation

b) Distillation

c) Calcination

d) All the above

Explanation

Fumes: Fumes are obtained by condensation of vapors released during sublimation, distillation, boiling and calcination and by several other chemical reactions. For example, organic solvents, metals and metallic oxides form fume particles.

43. Which pollutants are responsible causes of pneumoconiosis?

a) Dust

b) Mist

c) Fumes

d) All the above

Explanation

Dust, mist, fumes, etc., are air borne particles which are dangerous for human health. Particulate pollutants bigger than 5 microns are likely to settle in the nasal passage whereas particles of about 10 micron enter the lungs easily and cause scaring or fibrosis of lung lining. They irritate the lungs and causes cancer and asthma. This disease is also called pneumoconiosis. Coal miners may suffer from black lung disease. Textile workers may suffer from white lung disease.

44. Which of this process removes the particulates from the air?

a) Electrostatic precipitators

b) Gravity settling chambers

c) Wet scrubbers

d) All the above

Explanation

The particulates from air can be removed by using electrostatic precipitators, gravity settling chambers, and wet scrubbers or by cyclone collectors. These techniques are based on washing away or settling of the particulates.

45. What is the main component of smog?

a) Smoke and fog

b) Metals and oxides

c) Hydrocarbons

d) Inorganic matters

Explanation

Smog is a combination of smoke and fog which forms droplets that remain suspended in the air. Smog is a chemical mixture of gases that forms a brownish yellow haze over urban cities.

46. Which of these causes the classical smog?

a) Photo chemical oxidants

b) Coal smoke

c) Saw dust

d) All the above

Explanation

There are two types of smog. One is Classical smog caused by coal smoke and fog second one is photo chemical smog caused by photo chemical oxidants.

47. In which year the London smog was first observed?

a) 1952

b) 1973

c) 1942

d) 1969

Explanation

Classical smog or London smog: Classical smog was first observed in London in December 1952 and hence it is also known as London Smog.

48. Which of the following is not true regarding the London smog?

a) It consists of smoke and fog and occurs in cool humid climates.

b) Its chemical composition is the mixture of SO₂, SO₃ and humidity.

c) It generally starts in midnight and becomes worse in early mornings.

d) It is also known as reducing smog.

Explanation

London smog consists of coal smoke and fog. It occurs in cool humid climate. This atmospheric smog found in many large cities. The chemical composition is the mixture of SO2, SO3 and humidity. It generally occurs in the morning and becomes worse when the sun rises. This is mainly due to the induced oxidation of SO2 to SO3, which reacts with water yielding sulphuric acid aerosol. Chemically it is reducing in nature because of high concentration of SO2 and so it is also called as reducing smog.

49. What are the effects of classical smog?

a) Acid rain

b) Poor visibility in traffics

c) Bronchial irritation

d) All the above

Explanation

Effects of classical smog: Smog is primarily responsible for acid rain. Smog results in poor visibility and it affects air and road transport. It also causes bronchial irritation.

50. Which type of smog is formed with the presence of sunlight?

a) Photo chemical smog

b) Classical fog

c) Mists

d) Reducing smog

Explanation

Photo chemical smog or Los Angel Smog: Photo Chemical smog was first observed in Los Angeles in 1950. It occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. This type of smog is formed by the combination of smoke, dust and fog with air pollutants like oxides of nitrogen and hydrocarbons in the presence of sunlight. It forms when the sun shines and becomes worse in the afternoon.

51. Which of these results in the high oxidizing nature of the photo chemical smog?

a) NO₄ and O

b) NO and O

c) NO₂ and O₃

d) NO and O₂

Explanation

Chemically the photo chemical smog is oxidizing in nature because of high concentration of oxidizing agents NO₂ and O₃, so it is also called as oxidizing smog.

52. Which of these results in the reaction of un-burnt hydrocarbons with strong oxidizing agents?

a) Formaldehyde

b) Acrolein

c) Peroxy acetyl nitrate

d) All the above

Explanation

NO and O3 are strong oxidizing agent and can react with un burnt hydrocarbons in polluted air to form formaldehyde, Acrolein and peroxy acetyl nitrate (PAN).

53. What are the main components of Los Angeles smog?

a) Nitrogen oxide

b) Oxidized Hydrocarbon

c) Ozone

d) All the above

Explanation

The three main components of photo chemical smog are nitrogen oxide, ozone and oxidized hydro carbon like formaldehyde(HCHO), Acrolein (CH2=CH-CHO),peroxy acetyl nitrate (PAN).

54. Which of the following is not an direct effect of the photo chemical smog?

a) Irritation to skin, eye and throat.

b) Bronzing and glazing of young leaves.

c) Acid rain.

d) Corrosion in metal stones and painted surfaces.

Explanation

Photochemical smog causes irritation to eyes, skin and lungs, increase in chances of asthma. High concentrations of ozone and NO can cause nose and throat irritation, chest pain, uncomfortable in breathing etc. PAN is toxic to plants, attacks younger leaves and cause bronzing and glazing of their surfaces. It causes corrosion of metals stones, building materials and painted surfaces.

55. Which of this suppression will reduce the formation of photochemical smog?

a) Ozone

b) Hydrocarbons

c) Nitrogen oxides

d) Both b and c

Explanation

The formation of photochemical smog can be suppressed by preventing the release of nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons into the atmosphere from the motor vehicles by using catalytic convertors in engines.

56. Which of these trees are used to metabolize the effects of nitrogen oxides?

a) Pinus

b) Pyrus

c) Juniparus

d) All the above

Explanation

Plantation of certain trees like Pinus, Pyrus, Querus Vitus and juniparus can metabolize nitrogen oxide.

57. Which of these layers acts as a shield for UV radiations at high altitudes??

a) CO₂

b) O₃

c) NO

d) O₂

Explanation

At high altitudes to the atmosphere consists of a layer of ozone (O3) which acts as an umbrella or shield for harmful UV radiations. It protects us from harmful effect such as skin cancer. UV radiation can convert molecular oxygen into ozone.

58. Which gas is thermodynamically unstable and decomposes into molecular oxygen?

a) Carbon dioxide

b) Helium

c) Ozone

d) Nitrogen

Explanation

Ozone gas is thermodynamically unstable and readily decomposes to molecular oxygen.

59. Which gases are most responsible for the depletion of the ozone layer?

a) Nitric Acid

b) CFC

c) ODS

d) All the above

Explanation

In recent years, a gradual depletion of this protective ozone layer has been reported. Nitric oxide and CFC are found to be most responsible for depletion of ozone layer. Generally substances that cause depletion of ozone or make it thinner are called Ozone Depletion Substances abbreviated as ODS.

60. In which of these forms nitrogen oxides are introduced into the stratosphere?

a) Exhaust gas

b) Active gas

c) Zero temperature gas

d) Thermal equilibrium gas

Explanation

Nitrogen oxides introduced directly into the stratosphere by the supersonic jet aircraft engines in the form of exhaust gases. These oxides are also released by combustion of fossil fuels and nitrogen fertilizers.

61. What is the trade name of Chloro fluoro derivatives?

a) Meso

b) Zeros

c) Frenos

d) None of the above

Explanation

The Chloro fluoro derivatives of methane and ethane are referred by trade name Freons.

62. Which of the following is not a property of the Chloro fluoro carbon compounds?

a) Unstable

b) Non-toxic

c) Non-corrosive

d) Liquefiable

Explanation

The Chloro Fluoro Carbon compounds are stable, non-toxic, noncorrosive and non-inflammable, easily liquefiable and are used in refrigerators, air- conditioners and in the production of plastic foams.

63. The CFC breaks up into ______ free radical in the presence of ______.

a) Hydrogen, Humidity

b) Carbon, Water vapor

c) Chlorine, UV radiation

d) Sodium, IR radiation

Explanation

In the presence of UV radiation, CFC’s break up into chlorine free radical Chlorine radical is regenerated in the course of reaction. Due to this continuous attack of Cl˚ thinning of ozone layer takes place which leads to formation of ozone hole. It is estimated that for every reactive chlorine atom generated in the stratosphere 1, 00, 000 molecules of ozone are depleted.

64. Assertion (A): Any change in the equilibrium level of the ozone will adversely affect life in the biosphere

Reasoning(R): The regular natural process of formation and destruction of ozone never disturbs the equilibrium level of ozone in the stratosphere.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The formation and destruction of ozone is a regular natural process, which never disturbs the equilibrium level of ozone in the stratosphere. Any change in the equilibrium level of the ozone in the atmosphere will adversely affect life in the biosphere.

65. What are the negative impacts of ozone layer depletion?

a) More UV rays will reach earth surface.

b) Cause skin cancer and decreases immunity in human beings.

c) Affects the growth of phytoplankton as a result ocean food chain is disturbed.

d) All the above

Explanation

Depletion of ozone layer will allow more UV rays to reach the earth surface and layer would cause skin cancer and also decrease the immunity level in human beings. UV radiation affects plant proteins which lead to harmful mutation of cells. UV radiation affects the growth of phytoplankton; as a result ocean food chain is disturbed and even damages the fish productivity.

66. Which of the natural element is essential for life?

a) Air

b) Water

c) Land

d) Food

Explanation

Water is essential for life. Without water life would have been impossible. The slogan, ‘Save Water, Water will save you’ tell us the importance of water. Such slogans tell us to save water. Apart from saving water, maintaining its quality is also equally important.

67. Which of the following pollutant originates from both natural and human activities?

a) Water pollutant

b) Air pollutant

c) Land pollutant

d) Forest pollutant

Explanation

The water pollutants originate from both natural and human activities.

68. Assertion (A): Easily identified source of pollution is called as point source.

Reasoning(R): Non-point sources of water pollution are mining wastes, acid rain, agricultural runoff and construction sediments.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Easily identified source of place of pollution is called as point source. Example: municipal and industrial discharge pipes. Non-point source cannot be identified easily, example: agricultural runoff, mining wastes, acid rain, and storm-water drainage and construction sediments.

69. Match the pollutant and their sources.

A. Microorganisms i) Mining of uranium materials

B. Radioactive substances ii) Chemical fertilizers

C. Heat iii) Domestic sewage

D. Plant nutrients iv) Cooling purpose in Industries

a) ii, iv, i, iii

b) iv, ii, iii, i

c) iii, i, iv, ii

d) iv, i, iii, ii

70. Which of these pollutants is not related to agricultural acivities?

a) Plant nutrients

b) Radioactive substances

c) Pesticides

d) Sediments

Explanation

List of major water pollutants and their sources

71. Which of these microorganisms causes the microbiological diseases?

a) Bacteria

b) Viruses

c) Protozoa

d) All the above

Explanation

Microbiological (Pathogens) Disease causing microorganisms like bacteria, viruses and protozoa are most serious water pollutants. They come from domestic sewage and animal excreta. Fish and shellfish can become contaminated and people who eat them can become ill. Some serious diseases like polio and cholera are water borne diseases. Human excreta contain bacteria such as Escherichia coli and Streptococcus faecalis which cause gastrointestinal diseases.

72. Which of these organic excessive growth also causes the water pollution?.

a) Grass

b) Phytoplankton

c) Algae

d) Aquatic animals

Explanation

Organic matter such as leaves, grass, trash etc can also pollute water. Water pollution is caused by excessive phytoplankton growth within water.

73. Which of this process provides excess nutrients to the water bodies?

a) Eutrophication

b) Chlorination

c) Metamorphism

d) Hybridization

Explanation

Eutrophication is a process by which water bodies receive excess nutrients that stimulates excessive plant growth (algae other plant weeds). This enhanced plant growth in water bodies is called as algae bloom. The growth of algae in extreme abundance covers the water surface and reduces the oxygen concentration in water. Thus, bloom-infested water inhibits the growth of other living organisms in the water body. This process in which the nutrient rich water bodies support a dense plant population kills animal life by depriving it of oxygen and results in loss of biodiversity is known as eutrophication.

74. Choose the Incorrect statement about the BOD of drinking water.

i) The total amount of oxygen in milligrams consumed by microorganism in decomposing the waste for 5 days is called as BOD.

ii) The water for calculating BOD is at 20°C and the value is expressed in ppm.

iii) The BOD value of the clean water will be above 17 ppm whereas the contaminated water is below 5 ppm.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

The total amount of oxygen in milligrams consumed by microorganisms in decomposing the waste in one liters of water at 20°C for a period of 5 days is called biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) and its value is expressed in ppm. BOD is used as a measure of degree of water pollution. Clean water would have BOD value less than 5 ppm whereas highly polluted water has BOD value of 17 ppm or more.

75. Which of the following is used as an oxidizing agent in COD?

a) MN₂SO₄

b) K₂Cr₂O₇

c) H₂SO₄

d) HCL

Explanation

BOD measurement takes 5 days so another parameter called the Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) is measured. Chemical oxygen demand (COD) is defined as the amount of oxygen required by the organic matter in a sample of water for its oxidation by a strong oxidizing agent like K₂Cr₂O₇ in acid medium for a period of 2 hrs.

76. Which of this metal pollutant of drinking water causes kidney damage to humans?

a) Sodium

b) Cadmium

c) Tin

d) Copper

Explanation

Harmful effects of chemical water pollutants: Cadmium and mercury can cause kidney damage.. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) causes skin diseases and are carcinogenic in nature.

77. In which year the standard characteristics for the drinking water were prescribed by BIS?

a) 1962

b) 1975

c) 1991

d) 1980

Explanation

Nowadays most of us hesitate to use natural water directly for drinking, because biological, physical or chemical impurities from different sources mix with surface water or ground water. Institutions like WHO (World Health Organization) at world level and BIS (Bureau of Indian Standards) and ICMR (ICMR: Indian Council of Medical Research) at national level have prescribed standards for quality of drinking water. Standard characteristics prescribed for deciding the quality of drinking water by BIS, in 1991

78. What is the desirable pH limit of drinking water?

a) 6.5 to 8.5

b) 4.5 to 6.5

c) 5.5 to 7.5

d) 6 to 10.5

79. Which of the following is a biological characteristic of the drinking water?

a) Hardness

b) Bacteria

c) Coliforms

d) Dissolved solids

80. Identify the incorrect match of the physico-chemical charaectristics and its desirable limit.

A. Nitrate i) 45ppm

B. Fluroide ii) 1ppm

C. Chloride iii) 250ppm

D. Sulphate iv) 500ppm

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

Standard characteristics of drinking water

81. Which of the following statement is not true regarding the fluorides?

a) The fluoride ion deficiency in drinking water causes tooth decay.

b) Non-soluble fluorides are added to decrease the fluoride ion concentration up to 1 ppm.

c) The fluoride ion makes the enamel on teeth much harder.

d) Fluoride ion concentration above 2ppm causes brown mottling of teeth.

Explanation

Fluoride ion deficiency in drinking water causes tooth decay. Water soluble fluorides are added to increase the fluoride ion concentration up to 1 ppm. The Fluoride ions make the enamel on teeth much harder by converting hydroxyapatite, [3(Ca3(PO4)2.Ca(OH)2], the enamel on the surface of the teeth, into much harder fluorapatite, [3(Ca3(PO4)2.CaF2]. However, Fluoride ion concentration above 2 ppm causes brown mottling of teeth. Excess fluoride causes damage to bone and teeth.

82. Which of these human organs are affected by lead contamination above 50 ppb in drinking water?

a) Liver

b) Kidney

c) Reproductive systems

d) All the above

Explanation

Drinking water containing lead contamination above 50ppb can cause damage to liver, kidney and reproductive systems

83. What are the effects of excessive concentration of sulphate level in drinking water?

a) Laxative effect

b) Cancer

c) Harmless

d) Bronchitis

Explanation

Sulphate: Moderate level of sulphate is harmless. The excessive concentration (>500ppm) of sulphates in drinking water causes laxative effect.

84. Which of this ppm value of a drinking water will cause blue baby syndrome in children?

a) < 165 ppm

b) > 45 ppm

c) < 1000 ppm

d) >= 100 ppm

Explanation

Nitrate: Use of drinking water having concentration of nitrate higher than 45 ppm may causes methemoglobinemia (blue baby syndrome) disease in children.

85. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Most of the salts are soluble in water and includes cations like calcium, magnesium, sodium, potassium and iron.

ii) The anions included in water are carbonate, bicarbonate, chloride, sulphate, phosphate and nitrate.

iii) The Total dissolved solids concentration lower than 500 ppm in a drinking water causes irritation in stomach and intestine.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Total dissolved solids (TDS): Most of the salts are soluble in water. It includes cations like calcium, magnesium, sodium, potassium, iron and anions like carbonate, bicarbonate, chloride, sulphate, phosphate and nitrate. Use of drinking water having total dissolved solids concentration higher than 500 ppm causes possibilities of irritation in stomach and intestine.

86. Which of the following facts about the soil is not true?

a) Soil is a thick layer of organic materials that covers the earth’s rocky surface.

b) Soil constitutes the upper crust of the earth supporting the land, plants and animals.

c) Soil pollution is defined as the buildup of toxic compounds, radioactive materials and chemical salts.

d) Soil pollution affects the structure and fertility of soil, groundwater quality and food chain.

Explanation

Soil is a thin layer of organic and inorganic material that covers the earth’s rocky surface. Soil constitutes the upper crust of the earth, which supports land, plants and animals. Soil pollution is defined as the buildup of persistent toxic compounds, radioactive materials, chemical salts and disease causing agents in soils which have harmful effects on plant growth and animal health. Soil pollution affects the structure and fertility of soil, groundwater quality and food chain in biological ecosystem.

87. Choose the correct statements.

i) Plants obtain carbon, hydrogen and oxygen from air and water.

ii) Plants absorb the essential nutrients from the artificial fertilizers.

iii) The usage of phosphate fertilizers and NPK increase the yield of the soil.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Sources of soil pollution: Artificial fertilizers: Soil nutrients are useful for growth of plants. Plants obtains carbon, hydrogen and oxygen from air or water, whereas other essential nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorous, potassium, calcium, magnesium, sulphur are being absorbed from soil. To remove the deficiency of nutrients in soil, farmers add artificial fertilizers. Increased use of phosphate fertilizers or excess use of artificial fertilizers like NPK in soil, results in reduced yield in that soil.

88. Assertion (A): Pesticides are the chemicals used to kill or stop the growth of unwanted organisms.

Reasoning(R): Pesticides does not affect the human beings and animals.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Pesticides are the chemicals that are used to kill or stop the growth of unwanted organisms. But these pesticides can affect the health of human beings.

89. Which of the following is not an insecticide?

a) DDT

b) NPK

c) BHC

d) Aldrin

Explanation

Insecticides: Insecticides like DDT, BHC, Aldrin etc. can stay in soil for long period of time and are absorbed by soil. They contaminate root crops like carrot, radish, etc.

90. Which of these compounds are generally used as a fungicide?

a) Mercury

b) Gold

c) Hydrogen

d) Argon

Explanation

Fungicide: Organic mercury compounds are used as most common fungicide. They dissociate in soil to produce mercury which is highly toxic.

91. Choose the incorrect statements.

i) Herbicides are used to control unwanted plants known as weed killers.

ii) Sodium chlorate and Sodium arsenate are known herbicides.

iii) Herbicides are not toxic to animals and mammals.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Herbicides: Herbicides are the chemical compounds used to control unwanted plants. They are otherwise known as weed killers. Example: sodium chlorate (NaClO3) and sodium arsenate (Na3AsO3). Most of the herbicides are toxic to mammals.

92. Which of these human activities causes the major soil pollution?

a) Agriculture

b) Construction works

c) Industrial activities

d) All the above

Explanation

Industrial activities have been the biggest contributor to the soil pollution especially the mining and manufacturing activities.

93. Which of these chemicals are not involved in the industrial toxic wastes?

a) Cyanides

b) Silver

c) Copper

d) Zinc

Explanation

Large number of toxic wastes is released from industries. Industrial wastes include cyanides, chromates, acids, alkalis, and metals like mercury, copper, zinc, cadmium and lead etc. These industrial wastes in the soil surface lie for a long time and make it unsuitable for use.

94. Which of these are the waste management techniques?

a) Recycling

b) Growing more trees

c) Vehicle emission control

d) All the above

Explanation

Waste management: Environmental pollution can be controlled by proper disposal of wastes. Recycling: a large amount of disposed waste material can be reused by recycling the waste, thus it reduces the land fill and converts waste into useful forms. Substitution of less toxic solvents for highly toxic ones used in certain industrial processes. Use of fuels with lower sulphur content (e.g., washed coal) Growing more trees. Control measures in vehicle emissions are adequate.

95. What is the primary focus of Green chemistry?

a) Plant trees and save the Environment.

b) Recycle the hazardous substances.

c) Produce eco-friendly compounds.

d) Organic compounds for industrial usage

Explanation

Green chemistry is a chemical philosophy encouraging the design of products and processes that reduce or eliminate the use and generation of hazardous substances. For this, scientists are trying to develop methods to produce eco-friendly compounds.

96. Which of these are used to dehydrogenation of ethyl benzene?

a) Fe₂O₃

b) MnSo₄

c) CH₆

d) CH₃COOH

Explanation

Traditional route: This method involves two steps. Carcinogenic benzene reacts with ethylene to form ethyl benzene. Then ethyl benzene on dehydrogenation using Fe₂O₃/ Al₂O₃ gives styrene. Greener route: To avoid carcinogenic benzene, greener route is to start with cheaper and environmentally safer xylenes.

97. Choose the incorrect statements.

i) Tetrachloroethylene used in dry cleaning of clothes pollutes the ground water.

ii) Liquefied CO₂ with suitable detergent is not harmful to the ground water.

iii) HO₂ is used for bleaching clothes for better results and utilizes less water.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Dry cleaning of clothes: Solvents like tetrachloroethylene used in dry cleaning of clothes, pollute the ground water and are carcinogenic. In the place of tetrachloroethylene, liquefied CO₂ with suitable detergent is an alternate solvent used. Liquefied CO₂ is not harmful to the ground water. Now days H₂O₂ used for bleaching clothes in laundry, gives better results and utilizes less water.

98. What is used in the conventional method of paper bleaching?

a) Sulphide

b) Iodine

c) Chlorine

d) Magnesium

Explanation

Bleaching of paper: The Conventional method of bleaching was done with chlorine. Nowadays H₂O₂ can be used for bleaching paper in presence of catalyst.

99. Which of these products is prepared by one step oxidation of ethene?

a) Acetaldehyde

b) Ether

c) Benzene

d) Isopropyl alcohol

Explanation

Synthesis of chemicals: Acetaldehyde is now commercially prepared by one step oxidation of ethene in the presence of ionic catalyst in aqueous medium with 90% yield.

100. Which of the following is an alternate for the petrol in automobiles?

a) Ethanol

b) Hydrogen

c) Methanol

d) Hydrocarbons

Explanation

Instead of petrol, methanol is used as a fuel in automobiles..

101. How many categories of pollutants are classified?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 2

Explanation

Environmental pollution is the effect of undesirable changes in the surrounding that have harmful effects on living things. Pollutants are generally classified as rapidly degradable (e.g. discarded vegetables) slowly degradable (e.g. Agriculture waste) and non-bio degradable pollutants (e.g. DDT, plastic materials).

102. Which of this pollution greatly affects the biosphere of the earth?

a) Stratosphere

b) Hydrosphere

c) Mesosphere

d) Exosphere

Explanation

Atmospheric pollutions include tropospheric and stratospheric pollution. Troposphere and stratosphere greatly affect the biosphere of the earth due to which the study of pollutions in these regions is most important.

103. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Troposphere is the highest region of atmosphere.

ii) Gaseous pollutants SO, NO, CO, O₃ hydrocarbons pollute the troposphere.

iii) The Particulate pollutants that pollute troposphere are dust, mist, fumes and smog.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Troposphere is the lowest region of atmosphere in which man, animal and plants exist. Gaseous pollutants like SOx, NOx, CO, CO₂, O₃ hydrocarbons and particulate pollutants like dust, mist, fumes, smog cause pollutions in troposphere.

104. Assertion (A): Acid rain results in the human activities that emit sulphur oxides and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere.

Reasoning(R): If the PH value of rain water is lower than 5.6 then it is called as Acid rain.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Acid rain: When the PH of rain water becomes lower than 5.6 it is called acid rain. Acid rain is a byproduct of various human activities that emit sulphur oxides and nitrogen oxides in atmosphere. It damages buildings, statues and other monuments.

105. Which of the following is not included in the greenhouse gas?

a) O₂

b) N₂

c) CH₄

d) CFC

Explanation

The process of warming up of earth is known as greenhouse effect or global warming. CO₂, CH₄, O₃, CFC, N₂ and water vapor present in atmosphere act as a greenhouse gases.

106. Which of this greenhouse gas has the lowest heat retaining capacity?

a) CFC

b) N₂O

c) CO₂

d) CH₄

Explanation

Heat retaining capacity of greenhouse gases are called Global Warming Potential (GWP).The GWP based sequence of greenhouse gases is as CFC>N₂O>CH₄>CO₂.

107. Which of these humus cover is termed as soil?

a) Lithosphere

b) Troposphere

c) Exosphere

d) Mesosphere

Explanation

Lithosphere with humus cover is known as soil. The topsoil provides water and all nutrients required by plants for their growth.

108. Which of the following does not results in soil pollution?

a) Industrial waste

b) Organic wastes

c) Artificial fertilizers

d) Pesticides

Explanation

Industrial waste, artificial fertilizers and pesticides result in soil pollution.

109. Which of these methods are used for solid waste management?

a) Segregation

b) Dumping

c) Incineration

d) All the above

Explanation

The strategies for controlling environmental pollution are called can be waste management. Waste management involves reduction and proper disposal of waste. Wastes are produced in three forms, solid, liquid and gas. Solid waste can be disposed by segregation, dumping, incineration and composting.

110. Which of the following is majorly included in the earth’s atmosphere layer?

a) Nitrogen

b) Carbon dioxide

c) Hydrogen

d) Oxygen

Explanation

Earth’s atmosphere is a layer of gases retained by the earth’s gravity. It contains roughly 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.93% argon, 0.04% carbon dioxide.

111. Which of these is not included in the lithosphere?

a) Mountains

b) Glaciers

c) Soil

d) Rocks

Explanation

Lithosphere includes soil, rocks and mountains which are solid components of earth.

112. How many types of major pollution are categorized?

a) 5

b) 10

c) 4

d) 3

Explanation

Different types of atmospheric pollutions are Air pollution, Water pollution and Soil pollution.

113. To which of these regions air pollution is limited?

a) Ionosphere

b) Mesosphere

c) Stratosphere

d) Exosphere

Explanation

Air pollution is limited to troposphere and stratosphere.

114. Choose the correct statements about oxides of sulphur.

i) Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide are produced by burning fossil fuels and roasted sulphides ores.

ii) Sulphur dioxide is not harmful to plants.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide are produced by burning sulphur containing fossil fuels and roasting Sulphide ores. Sulphur dioxide is a poisonous gas to both animals and plants.

115. Which of the following process produces the oxides of nitrogen?

a) Oxidation of nitrogen in air.

b) Burning fossil fuels

c) High temperature combustion

d) Both a and c

Explanation

Oxides of nitrogen are produced during high temperature combustion processes, oxidation of nitrogen in air and from the combustion of fuels coal, diesel, petrol.

116. Which process release the carbon dioxide into the atmosphere?

a) Burning fossils fuels

b) Decomposition of limestone

c) Respiration process

d) All the above

Explanation

Carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere mainly by the process of respiration, burning of fossil fuels, forest fire, decomposition of limestone in cement industry.

117. Which natural process produces hydrocarbons?

a) Respiration

b) Marsh gas

c) Photosynthesis

d) Combustion

Explanation

The compounds composed of carbon and hydrogen only are called hydrocarbons. They are mainly produced naturally (marsh gas) and also by incomplete combustion of automobile fuel.

118. In which form earth surface radiates part of sun light energy to space?

a) Invisible light

b) Smoke

c) Longer wavelengths

d) Water vapor

Explanation

The earth’s atmosphere allows most of the visible light from the Sun to pass through and reach Earth’s surface. As Earth’s surface is heated by sunlight, it radiates part of this energy back toward space as longer wavelengths (IR).

119. Assertion (A): The Greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon.

Reasoning(R): Continuous emission of gases intensifies the greenhouses gases in the atmosphere.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Although the greenhouse effect is a naturally occurring phenomenon, it is intensified by the continuous emission of greenhouse gases into the atmosphere.

120. What are the impacts of increase in global temperature?

a) Melting of polar ice caps.

b) Flooding of low lying areas.

c) Increase of infectious diseases.

d) All the above

Explanation

During the past 100 years the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increased by roughly 30 percent and the amount of methane more than doubled. If these trends continue, the average global temperature will increase which can lead to melting of polar ice caps and flooding of low lying areas. This will increase incidence of infectious diseases like dengue, malaria.

121. Assertion (A): The pH of rain water drops below the level of 5.6 and results in acid rain.

Reasoning(R): Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere are chemically converted into sulphuric and nitric acid.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Oxides of sulphur and nitrogen in the atmosphere may be absorbed by droplets of water that make up clouds and get chemically converted into Sulphuric acid and nitric acid respectively. As a result, pH of rain water drops below the level 5.6, hence it is called acid rain.

122. Which of these produces the sulphur and nitrogen oxides?

a) Incomplete combustion of automobile fuels.

b) Petrol, diesel in motor engines.

c) Greenhouse effect

d) Marsh gas

Explanation

Acid rain is a by-product of a variety of sulphur and nitrogen oxides in the atmosphere. Burning of fossil fuels (coal and oil) in power stations, furnaces and petrol, diesel in motor engines produce sulphur dioxide and nitrogen oxides.

123. What are the negative impacts of acid rain?

a) Affects plants, animal life in aquatic ecosystem.

b) Dissolves and removes the nutrients needed for plants.

c) Respiratory ailments in humans and animals.

d) All the above

Explanation

Acid rain affects plants and animal life in aquatic ecosystem. It is harmful for agriculture, trees and plants as it dissolves and removes the nutrients needed for their growth. It corrodes water pipes resulting in the leaching of heavy metals such as iron, lead and copper into drinking water which has toxic effects. It causes respiratory ailment in humans and animals.

124. Which of these are composed of fine solid particles?

a) Smoke

b) Dust

c) Vapors

d) Fog

Explanation

Smoke particulate consists of solid particles (or) mixture of solid and liquid particles formed by combustion of organic matter. Condensation of vapors released during sublimation, distillation, boiling and calcination spray liquids and condensation of vapors. Dust composed of fine solid particles produced during crushing and grinding of solid materials.

125. Which measure of particles can enter the human lungs easily?

a) 10 micron

b) 50 micron

c) 5 micron

d) 0.1 micron

Explanation

Particulate pollutants bigger than 5 microns are likely to settle in the nasal passage whereas particles of about 10 micron enter the lungs easily and cause scaring or fibrosis of lung lining. They irritate the lungs and causes cancer and asthma. This disease is also called pneumoconiosis.

126. Who are all affected by the white lung disease?

a) Coal miners

b) Nuclear reactors

c) Textile workers

d) Pesticide producers

Explanation

Coal miners may suffer from black lung disease. Textile workers may suffer from white lung disease.

127. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the effects of particulates?

a) Lead particulates affect children’s brain and interferes maturation of RCB.

b) Corrodes water pipes resulting in the leaching of heavy metals.

c) Particulates increase fog and rain in the clouds.

d) Particulates deposit on plants affect photosynthesis.

Explanation

Lead particulates affect children’s brain, interferes maturation of RBCs and even cause cancer. Particulates in the atmosphere reduce visibility by scattering and absorption of sunlight. It is dangerous for aircraft and motor vehicles. Particulates provide nuclei for cloud formation and increase fog and rain. Particulates deposit on plant leaves and hinder the intake of CO2 from the air and affect photosynthesis.

128. Which of the following is not found in the smog?

a) Non-volatile inorganic compounds

b) Oxides of nitrogen

c) Acidic aerosols

d) Ground level ozone

Explanation

Smog mainly consists of ground level ozone, oxides of nitrogen, volatile organic compounds, SO2, acidic aerosols and gases, and particulate matter.

129. Choose the correct statements about the photo chemical smog?

i) Photo chemical smog was first observed in the year 2000.

ii) Combination of smoke, dust and fog with air pollutants forms the photochemical fog.

iii) Photo chemical smog forms when the sun sets and becomes worse in the sun rise.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Photo chemical smog or Los Angel Smog: Photo Chemical smog was first observed in Los Angeles in 1950. It occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate. This type of smog is formed by the combination of smoke, dust and fog with air pollutants like oxides of nitrogen and hydrocarbons in the presence of sunlight. It forms when the sun shines and becomes worse in the afternoon.

130. In which region the loss of ozone molecules is known as depletion of stratospheric ozone?

a) Above Ionosphere

b) Upper atmosphere

c) Between Troposphere and surface of earth

d) Lower atmosphere

Explanation

The loss of ozone molecules in the upper atmosphere is termed as depletion of stratospheric ozone.

131. Which of this process converts the inert nitrous oxides in the stratosphere?

a) Electro chemical

b) Photo chemical

c) Thermocouple

d) Combustion

Explanation

Inert nitrous oxide in the stratosphere is photo chemically converted into more reactive nitric oxide. Oxides of nitrogen catalyze the decomposition of ozone and are themselves regenerated.

132. Choose the correct statements about CFC.

i) Supersonic aircrafts and jumbo jets exhaust CFC in the upper stratosphere.

ii) CFC passes from stratosphere to upper atmosphere.

iii) CFC stays only for a shorter period in the stratosphere.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

CFC’s are the exhaust of supersonic air crafts and jumbo jets flying

in the upper atmosphere. They slowly pass from troposphere to stratosphere. They stay for very longer period of 50 -100 years.

133. Assertion (A): ‘Save water, Water will save you’ shows the importance of water.

Reasoning(R): Maintaining the quality of water is equally important to save water.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The slogan, Save Water, Water will save you’ tell us the importance of water. Such slogans tell us to save water. Apart from saving water, maintaining its quality is also equally important.

134. How many sources of water pollution are classified?

a) 5

b) 2

c) 4

d) 3

Explanation

The source of water pollution is classified as Point and Non-point source.

135. Which of the following decompose the organic wastes in water?

a)Fish

b) Aquatic Plants

c) Microorganisms

d) All the above

Explanation

Microorganisms present in water decompose this organic matter and consume dissolved oxygen in water.

136. Which of these processes is called as algae bloom?

a) Enhanced plant growth in water bodies.

b) High level of toxins in water bodies.

c) Increased growth rate of aquatic life.

d) Sudden color change of the water bodies.

Explanation

Eutrophication is a process by which water bodies receive excess nutrients that stimulates excessive plant growth (algae other plant weeds). This enhanced plant growth in water bodies is called as algae bloom.

137. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Metals, toxic pesticides are poisonous to fish and other aquatic life.

ii) Detergents and oil floats can be easily removed from the water bodies and it is harmless.

iii) Acids from mine drainage and salts from various sources contaminate the water sources.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

A whole variety of chemicals from industries, such as metals and solvents are poisonous to fish and other aquatic life. Some toxic pesticides can accumulate in fish and shell fish and poison the people who eat them. Detergents and oils float and spoil the water bodies.Acids from mine drainage and salts from various sources can also contaminate water sources.

138. Which of these human organs are affected by the lead poisoning in water?

a) Liver

b) Brain

c) Nervous system

d) All the above

Explanation

Lead poisoning in water can lead to the severe damage of kidneys, liver, brain etc. it also affects central nervous system.

139. Which of the following is an alternate for chlorinated hydrocarbon pesticides?

a) Sulphur

b) Neem

c) Animal wastes

d) All the above

Explanation

Neem based pesticides have been synthesized, which are safer than the chlorinated hydrocarbons. Every individual has an important role for preventing pollution and improving our environment

140. What is termed as the Global warming potential?

a) Heat retaining capacity of greenhouse gases.

b) Polluting factor of toxic gases.

c) Exceeding limit of toxins in the atmosphere.

d) Harmful chemical reactions in the atmosphere.

Explanation

Heat retaining capacity of greenhouse gases are called Global Warming Potential (GWP).

11th Science Lesson 8 Questions in English

8] Chemical Bonding

1. In which year the Linus Carl Pauling was awarded Nobel Prize for his research?

a) 1982

b) 1954

c) 1948

d) 1970

Explanation

Linus Carl Pauling was an American chemist, biochemist, peace activist, author and educator. In addition to his contribution to chemistry and he also worked with many biologists. He received the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1954 for his research into the nature of the chemical bond and its application to the elucidation of the structure of complex substances.

2. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Hydrogen and Oxygen are monoatomic and the inert gases are diatomic.

ii) Sodium combines with chlorine and forms sodium chloride that readily dissolves in water.

iii) Carbon combines with chlorine to form carbon tetrachloride that is insoluble in water.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Diamond is very hard while its allotrope graphite is very soft. Gases like hydrogen and oxygen are diatomic while the inert gases are monoatomic. Carbon combines with chlorine to form carbon tetrachloride, which is a liquid and insoluble (immiscible) in water. Sodium combines with chlorine atom to form sodium chloride, a hard and brittle compound that readily dissolves in water.

3. Which of these attractive forces hold the atoms together in a chemical bond?

a) Electron forces

b) Static forces

c) Interatomic forces

d) Wander Walsh forces

Explanation

The interatomic attractive forces which hold the constituent atoms/ions together in a molecule are called chemical bonds.

4. Who provided the logical explanation for the chemical bonding?

a) Kossel and Lewis

b) Heitler and London

c) F. Hund and Robert. S. Mulliken

d) Linus Pauling

Explanation

A logical explanation for chemical bonding was provided by Kossel and Lewis in 1916.

5. Which of these facts is not true based on the Kossel and Lewis approach on chemical bonding?

a) The inertness of the noble gases is the basis for the chemical bonding.

b) Noble gas has little or no tendency to combine with other atoms.

c) Noble gases are not stable due to their completely filled outer shell electronic configuration.

d) Elements attain the completely filled configurations by losing, gaining or sharing on or more electrons.

Explanation

The Kossel and Lewis approach to chemical bonding is based on the inertness of the noble gases which have little or no tendency to combine with other atoms. They proposed that the noble gases are stable due to their completely filled outer shell electronic configuration. Elements other than noble gases, try to attain the completely filled electronic configurations by losing, gaining or sharing one or more electrons from their outer shell.

6. Which of these was introduced by G.N. Lewis?

a) Chemical bonding

b) Lewis dot structure

c) Diatomic nitrogen

d) Valence electrons

Explanation

G. N. Lewis proposed that the attainment of stable electronic configuration in molecules such as diatomic nitrogen, oxygen is achieved by mutual sharing of the electrons. He introduced a simple scheme to represent the chemical bond and the electrons present in the outer shell of an atom, called Lewis dot structure.

7. Which of the following is represented by the small dots in the Lewis dot scheme?

a) Valence electrons

b) Number of protons

c) Atomic number

d) Number of electrons

Explanation

In the Lewis dot scheme, the valence electrons (outer shell electrons) of an element are represented as small dots around the symbol of the element. The first four valence electrons are denoted as single dots around the four sides of the atomic symbol and then the fifth onwards, the electrons are denoted as pairs.

8. Which of these has two electrons in the valence shell?

a) Nitrogen

b) Oxygen

c) Hydrogen

d) Helium

Explanation

Only exception to this is helium which has only two electrons in its valence shell which is represented as a pair of dots (duet).

9. Which of the following is based on the Kossel-Lewis idea of chemical bonding?

a) Gravitational concept

b) Octet rule

c) Relativity theory

d) Electro static theory

Explanation

The idea of Kossel – Lewis approach to chemical bond lead to the octet rule which states that the atoms transfer or share electrons so that all atoms involved in chemical bonding obtain 8 electrons in their outer shell (valence shell)”.

10. Based on which of these the chemical bonds are classified?

a) Materials involved in the bonding.

b) Number of atoms present in the bonds.

c) Nature of interaction between the bonded atoms.

d) All the above

Explanation

The chemical bonds can be classified based on the nature of the interaction between the bonded atoms. Two major types of chemical bonds are covalent bonds and ionic bonds. Generally metals react with non-metals to form ionic compounds and the covalent bonds are present in the compounds formed by non-metals.

11. Define Covalent bond.

a) Mutual sharing of one or more pairs of electrons between two combining atoms.

b) Two atoms share just one pair of electron.

c) Metals reacting with non-metals to form covalent bonds.

d) External sharing of one electron between two atoms.

Explanation

In the case of oxygen molecule, both the oxygen atoms share two electron pairs between them and in nitrogen molecule three electron pairs are shared between two nitrogen atoms. This type of mutual sharing of one or more pairs of electrons between two combining atoms results in the formation of a chemical bond called a covalent bond.

12. Which of these molecules has a single covalent bond?

a) Helium molecule

b) Hydrogen molecule

c) Oxygen molecule

d) Nitrogen molecule

Explanation

If two atoms share just one pair of electron a single covalent bond is formed as in the case of hydrogen molecule. If two or three electron pairs are shared between the two combining atoms, then the covalent bond is called a double bond or a triple bond, respectively.

13. Which of these are denoted by pair of dots on the individual atoms in the Lewis structure?

a) Shared pair of valence electrons

b) Total number of shared electrons

c) Unshared electrons

d) Atomic value of individual atom

Explanation

Lewis structure (Lewis dot structure) is a pictorial representation of covalent bonding between the combining atoms. In this structure the shared valence electrons are represented as a pair of dots between the combining atoms and the unshared electrons of the atoms are represented as a pair of dots (lone pair) on the respective individual atoms.

14. What is the skeletal structure of the water?

a) O 2 H

b) H H O

c) H O H

d) 2 H O

Explanation

Draw the skeletal structure of the molecule. In general, the less electronegative atom is placed at the center. Hydrogen and fluorine atoms should be placed at the terminal positions. For water, the skeletal structure is

15. In which of these cases the number of negative charges is added to the number of valence electrons?

a) Anion

b) Polyatomic gas

c) Cation

d) Positive ions

Explanation

Calculate the total number of valence electrons of all the atoms in the molecule. In case of polyatomic ions the charge on ion should also be considered during the calculation of the total number of valence electrons. In case of anions the number of negative charges should be added to the number of valence electrons. For positive ions the total number of positive charges should be subtracted from the total number of valence electrons.

16. How many valence electrons will account for a single bond in the Lewis structure?

a) 1

b) 4

c) 2

d) 6

Explanation

Draw a single bond between the atoms in the skeletal structure of the molecule. Each bond will account for two valence electrons (a bond pair). For water, we can draw two bonds accounting for four valence electrons as follows.

17. Assertion (A): The Valence electrons are distributed after the bond formation as pairs by the octet rule.

Reasoning(R): Most electronegative atoms are distributed the lone pairs first then followed by other atoms.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Distribute the remaining valence electrons as pairs (lone pair), giving octet (only duet for hydrogen) to the atoms in the molecule. The distribution of lone pairs starts with the most electronegative atoms followed by other atoms.

18. What is used for satisfying the octet rule in the atoms?

a) Lone pairs

b) Valence electrons

c) Shared electrons

d) All the above

Explanation

Verify whether all the atoms satisfy the octet rule (for hydrogen duet). If not, use the lone pairs of electrons to form additional bond to satisfy the octet rule. In case of water, oxygen has octet and the hydrogen have duets, hence there is no need for shifting the lone pairs.

19. State the correct Lewis structure for Sulphur trioxide.

a)

b)

c)

d)

Explanation

The Lewis dot structures for some molecules

20. Which of the following is not a guideline for representing the Lewis structure?

a) A structure with all formal charges are zero is preferred over the one with charges.

b) A structure with small formal charges is preferred over the higher formal charges.

c) A structure with lone pairs are preferred than the duet pairs of atoms.

d) A structure in which negative formal charges are placed on the most electronegative atom is preferred.

Explanation

After calculating the formal charges, the best representation of Lewis structure can be selected by using following guidelines. A structure in which all formal charges are zero preferred over the one with charges. A structure with small formal charges is preferred over the one with higher formal charges. A structure in which negative formal charges are placed on the most electronegative atom is preferred.

21. Which of the following is not an exception for the octet rule categorization?

a) Molecules containing even electrons.

b) Molecules with electron deficient central atoms.

c) Molecules containing odd electrons.

d) Molecules with expanded valence shells.

Explanation

The octet rule is useful for writing Lewis structures for molecules with second period element as central atoms. In some molecules, the central atoms have less than eight electrons around them while some others have more than eight electrons. Exception to the octet rule can be categorized into following three types. Molecules with electron deficient central atoms, Molecules containing odd electrons and Molecules with expanded valence shells.

22. Which of the following have more than eight electrons around the central atom?

a) SF₃

b) PCl₂

c) PCl₅

d) SF₂

Explanation

In molecules such as sulphur hexafluoride (SF₆), phosphorous penta chloride (PCl₅) the central atom has more than eight valence electrons around them. Here the central atom can accommodate additional electron pairs by using outer vacant d orbitals. In SF6 the central atom sulphur is surrounded by six bonding pair of electrons or twelve electrons.

23. Choose the correct statements.

i) The combining atoms attain the nearest inert gas configuration when the electronegativity difference is small.

ii) The complete transfer of electrons between the atoms leads to the formation of a cation and an anion.

iii) The Anion and cation are held together by the electrostatic attractive force known as covalent bond.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

When the electronegativity difference between the two combining atoms is large, the least electronegative atom completely transfers one or more of its valence electrons to the other combining atom so that both atoms can attain the nearest inert gas electronic configuration. The complete transfer of electron leads to the formation of a cation and an anion. Both these ions are held together by the electrostatic attractive force which is known as ionic bond.

24. In which of these bonds combining atoms donates a pair of electrons and share them commonly?

a) Special ionic bond

b) Shared ionic bond

c) Co-ordinate covalent bond

d) Combined covalent bond

Explanation

In certain bond formation, one of the combining atoms donates a pair of electrons i.e. two electrons which are necessary for the covalent bond formation and these electrons are shared by both the combining atoms. These types of bonds are called coordinate covalent bond or coordinate bond. The combining atom which donates the pair of electron is called a donor atom and the other atom an acceptor atom. This bond is denoted by an arrow starting from the donor atom pointing towards the acceptor atom.

25. What is defined as the bond length?

a) Distance between the valence bonds of combining atoms.

b) Distance between the nuclei of two covalent bond atoms.

c) Maximum distance between the nuclei and the valence bond.

d) Minimum distance shared between the covalent bond atoms.

Explanation

Bond length: The distance between the nuclei of the two covalently bonded atoms is called bond length. Consider a covalent molecule A-B. The bond length is given by the sum of the radii of the bonded atoms (rA + rB).

26. Which of the following are used to determine the bond length?

a) Spectroscopic Technique

b) X-ray diffraction Technique

c) Electron-diffraction Technique

d) All the above

Explanation

The length of a bond can be determined by spectroscopic, x-ray diffraction and electron-diffraction techniques.

27. Which of the following statement is not true regarding the bond length?

a) The size of the atom decides the length of the bond.

b) The number of valence electrons will decrease the bond length.

c) The number of bonds between the combining atoms also decides the bond length.

d) Greater the size of the atom the bond length will also be greater.

Explanation

The bond length depends on the size of the atom and the number of bonds (multiplicity) between the combining atoms. Greater the size of the atom greater will be the bond length. For example, carbon-carbon single bond length (1.54 Å) is longer than the carbon-nitrogen single bond length (1.43 Å).

28. Choose the correct statements.

i) Bond order is defined as the number of bonds formed between the two bonded atoms.

ii) The Bond order is equal to the number of shared pair of electrons between the two bonded atoms.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

The number of bonds formed between the two bonded atoms in a molecule is called the bond order. In Lewis theory, the bond order is equal to the number of shared pair of electrons between the two bonded atoms. For example in hydrogen molecules, there is only one shared pair of electrons and hence, the bond order is one. Similarly in H2O, HCl, Methane, etc the central atom forms single bonds with bond order of one.

29. Assertion (A): The fixed angle between two covalent bonds in a molecule is defined as Bond angle.

Reasoning(R): The Covalent bonds are directional in nature and oriented in specific directions in space.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Covalent bonds are directional in nature and are oriented in specific directions in space. This directional nature creates a fixed angle between two covalent bonds in a molecule and this angle is termed as bond angle.

30. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding the bond angle?

a) The Spectroscopic methods are used to determine the bond angle.

b) Bond angle is expressed in degrees.

c) Bond angle is used to determine the size of the atom.

d) The bond angle can give idea about the shape of the molecule.

Explanation

Bond angle is usually expressed in degrees. The bond angle can be determined by spectroscopic methods and it can give some idea about the shape of the molecule.

31. Which of these atoms define the bond angle for CH4?

a) C only

b) C, H only

c) H, O only

d) H only

Explanation

Bond angles for some common molecules

32. In which state the bond enthalpy is defined for the molecules?

a) Solid state

b) Liquid state

c) Gaseous state

d) All the above

Explanation

The bond enthalpy is defined as the minimum amount of energy required to break one mole of a particular bond in molecules in their gaseous state.

33. What is the unit of bond enthalpy?

a) k mol

b) kJ mol^-1

c) kJ

d) J mol^-2

Explanation

The unit of bond enthalpy is kJ mol^-1.

34. Which of the below statements are not true about the bond enthalpy?

a) Larger the value of bond enthalpy stronger the bond.

b) The bond energy value depends on the size of the atoms.

c) The number of bonds between the bonded atoms decides the bond angles.

d) Larger the size of atoms involved lesser the bond enthalpy.

Explanation

Larger the bond enthalpy, stronger will be the bond. The bond energy value depends on the size of the atoms and the number of bonds between the bonded atoms. Larger the size of the atom involved in the bond, lesser is the bond enthalpy.

35. Identify the Incorrect Match.

BOND TYPE BOND LENGTH

A. C-C i) 1.54

B. H-Cl ii) 1.27

C. H-H iii) 1.33

D. C-I iv) 2.13

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

Bond lengths and bond enthalpies of some common bonds.

36. Assertion (A): Resonance structures differ in the position of bonding and lone pair of electrons.

Reasoning(R): Resonance phenomenon occurs at some molecules which has more than one valid Lewis structures.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Resonance: When we write Lewis structures for a molecule, more than one valid Lewis structures are possible in certain cases. For example let us consider the Lewis structure of carbonate ion [CO3]2-.The skeletal structure of carbonate ion (The oxygen atoms are denoted as OA, OB & OC relative position of the atoms are same. They only differ in the position of bonding and lone pair of electrons. Such structures are called resonance structures (canonical structures) and this phenomenon is called resonance.

37. Choose the incorrect statements.

i) All the carbon-oxygen bonds in carbonate ion are equivalent.

ii) The actual structure of the molecules is said to be the resonance hybrid an average of ten resonance forms.

iii) A single Lewis structure is not enough to picture the resonance hybrid.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

It is evident from the experimental results that all carbon-oxygen bonds in carbonate ion are equivalent. The actual structure of the molecules is said to be the resonance hybrid, an average of these three resonance forms. It is important to note that carbonate ion does not change from one structure to another and vice versa. It is not possible to picture the resonance hybrid by drawing a single Lewis structure.

38. Choose the correct statements.

i) The energy of the resonance hybrid structures is higher than that of all possible canonical structures.

ii) The Resonance energy is the energy difference between the most stable canonical structures and the resonance hybrid structures.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

It is found that the energy of the resonance hybrid (structure 4) is lower than that of all possible canonical structures (Structure 1, 2 & 3). The difference in energy between most stable canonical structure and resonance hybrid is called resonance energy.

39. Assertion (A): In a covalent bond of two identical atoms both have equal tendency to attract the shared pair of electrons.

Reasoning(R): In a covalent bond of atoms having different electro negativities, the atom with higher electronegativity will have greater tendency to attract the shared pair of electrons.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

When a covalent bond is formed between two identical atoms (as in the case of H2, O2, Cl2 etc…) both atoms have equal tendency to attract the shared pair of electrons and hence the shared pair of electrons lies exactly in the middle of the nuclei of two atoms. However, in the case of covalent bond formed between atoms having different electro negativities, the atom with higher electronegativity will have greater tendency to attract the shared pair of electrons more towards itself than the other atom. As a result the cloud of shared electron pair gets distorted.

40. Define Dipole.

a) Difference between the electro negativities of all the connected atoms.

b) Maximum value between the shared pair of electrons.

c) A small, equal and opposite charges are separated by a small distance.

d) All the above

Explanation

The electro negativities of hydrogen and fluorine on Pauling’s scale are 2.1 and 4 respectively. It means that fluorine attracts the shared pair of electrons approximately twice as much as the hydrogen which leads to partial negative charge on fluorine and partial positive charge on hydrogen. Hence, the H-F bond is said to be polar covalent bond. Here, a very small, equal and opposite charges are separated by a small distance (91pm) and is referred to as a dipole.

41. What is the value of the dipole moment?

a) μ = q × 2d

b) μ = q d

c) μ = q / 2d

d) μ = q + d

Explanation

The polarity of a covalent bond can be measured in terms of dipole moment which is defined as μ = q × 2d Where μ is the dipole moment, q is the charge and 2d is the distance between the two charges.

42. Choose the correct statements.

i) The Value of dipole moment of a covalent bond is a vector.

ii) The dipole moment vector points from the positive charge to negative charge.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

The dipole moment is a vector and the direction of the dipole moment vector points from the negative charge to positive charge.

43. In which of these values the dipole moment is expressed?

a) Joule

b) Newton

c) Kilowatt

d) Debye

Explanation

The unit for dipole moment is columb meter (C m). It is usually expressed in Debye unit (D). The conversion factor is 1 Debye = 3.336 x 10^-30C m

44. Which of the following is not a polar molecule or a non-zero dipole moment?

a) HF

b) O₂

c) HCl

d) NO

Explanation

Diatomic molecules such as H₂, O₂, F₂ have zero dipole moment and are called non polar molecules and molecules such as HF, HCl, CO, NO have non zero dipole moments and are called polar molecules.

45. Assertion (A): Diatomic molecules have zero dipole moment and called as non-polar molecules.

Reasoning(R): All the polar bond molecules have a dipole moment value.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Molecules having polar bonds will not necessarily have a dipole moment. For example, the linear form of carbon dioxide has zero dipole moment, even though it has two polar bonds. In CO₂, the dipole moments of two polar bonds (CO) are equal in magnitude but have opposite direction. Hence, the net dipole moment of the CO₂ is, μ = μ1 + μ2 = μ1 + (-μ1) = 0

46. What is the dipole moment of the water?

a) 2.5D

b) 1 D

c) 1.85D

d) 11.5D

Explanation

Dipole moment in water is found to be 1.85D

47. Match the common molecules with its Dipole moment.

A. NH₃ i) 1.91

B. CHCl₃ ii) 1.85

C. HF iii) 1.04

D. H₂O iv) 1.47

a) ii, iii, iv, i

b) iv, iii, i, ii

c) ii, iv, i, iii

d) i, iv, iii, ii

Explanation

Dipole moments of common molecules

48. What is used to predict the percentage of the ionic character of the atoms?

a) Electronegativity difference

b) Number of bonded pairs

c) Total number of shared electrons

d) Number of protons

Explanation

The extent of ionic character in a covalent bond can be related to the electro negativity difference to the bonded atoms.

49. What is the electronegativity difference value that decides the ionic character of the atoms?

a) 0.7

b) 11.7

c) 1.7

d) 111.7

Explanation

In a typical polar molecule the electronegativity difference can be used to predict the percentage of ionic character as follows. If the electronegativity difference is equal to 1.7, then the bond A-B has 50% ionic character if it is greater than 1.7, then the bond A-B has more than 50% ionic character, and if it is lesser than 1.7, then the bond A-B has less than 50% ionic character.

50. Which of these characters of the ionic compounds can be explained by the Polarization?

a) Partial covalent character

b) Bond enthalpy

c) Bond energy

d) Number of bonds

Explanation

Like the partial ionic character in covalent compounds, ionic compounds show partial covalent character. For example, the ionic compound, lithium chloride shows covalent character and is soluble in organic solvents such as ethanol. The partial covalent character in ionic compounds can be explained on the basis of a phenomenon called polarization.

51. Choose the incorrect statements about the mechanism the polarization.

i) In an ionic compound the negative charged cation attracts the valence electrons of cation while attracting the nucleus.

ii) The distortion in the electron cloud of the anion drifts the density towards cation and shares the valence electrons.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

We know that in an ionic compound, there is an electrostatic attractive force between the cation and anion. The positively charged cation attracts the valence electrons of anion while repelling the nucleus. This causes a distortion in the electron cloud of the anion and its electron density drifts towards the cation, which results in some sharing of the valence electrons between these ions. Thus, a partial covalent character is developed between them. This phenomenon is called polarization.

52. Which is known as the polarisibility?

a) Total number of non-polarized atoms

b) Tendency of an anion to get polarized

c) Extent of polarization

d) Number of atoms polarized

Explanation

The ability of a cation to polarize an anion is called its polarizing ability and the tendency of an anion to get polarized is called its polarisibility. The extent of polarization in an ionic compound is given by the Fajans rules

53. Assertion (A): The Increase in charge on cation or in anion will increase the covalent character.

Reasoning(R): The Polarisibility is increased if the magnitude of negative charge on the anion is higher.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Fajans Rules: To show greater covalent character, both the cation and anion should have high charge on them. Higher the positive charge on the cation, greater will be the attraction on the electron cloud of the anion. Similarly higher the magnitude of negative charge on the anion, greater is its polarisibility. Hence, the increase in charge on cation or in anion increases the covalent character.

54. Which of these shows greater covalent character due to greater extent of polarization?

a) Smaller cation and larger anion

b) Equal cation and anion

c) Larger cation and smaller anion

d) Varying anion and cation

Explanation

The smaller cation and larger anion show greater covalent character due to the greater extent of polarization.

55. Which of these will be useful in predicting the shape of molecules?

a) Lewis theory alone

b) Number of combining atoms

c) Lewis theory with VSEPR theory

d) Number of cations and anion

Explanation

Lewis concept of structure of molecules deals with the relative position of atoms in the molecules and sharing of electron pairs between them. However, we cannot predict the shape of the molecule using Lewis concept. Lewis theory in combination with VSEPR theory will be useful in predicting the shape of molecules.

56. Which of these will depend on the number of valence shell electron pair of the molecules according to VSEPR theory?

a) Number of Lone pairs

b) Shape of molecules

c) Total number of bonded pairs

d) Number of valence electron

Explanation

Important principles of VSEPR Theory are as follows: The shape of the molecules depends on the number of valence shell electron pair around the central atom.

57. Choose the correct statements.

i) Various numbers of electron pairs are available in that bond pairs and lone pairs are one of them.

ii) Lone pairs are the valence electron pairs which are not involved in bonding.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

There are two types of electron pairs namely bond pairs and lone pairs. The bond pair of electrons are those shared between two atoms, while the lone pairs are the valence electron pairs that are not involved in bonding.

58. Which of this order denotes the repulsive interaction between the types of electron pairs as per VSEPR theory?

a) lp – lp > lp – bp > bp- bp

b) lp – lp < lp – bp < bp-bp

c) lp – lp > bp – bp > lp-bp

d) lp – lp < lp – bp > bp-bp

Explanation

Each pair of valence electrons around the central atom repels each other and hence, they are located as far away as possible in three dimensional spaces to minimize the repulsion between them. The repulsive interaction between the different types of electron pairs is in the following order. lp – lp > lp – bp > bp-bp where lp- lone pair; bp- bond pair.

59. Why the lone pairs have greater repulsive power in a molecule?

a) Lone pairs are localized on the central atom.

b) Lone pairs interact with only one nucleus.

c) Lone pairs occupy more space than bond pairs.

d) All the above

Explanation

The lone pair of electrons are localized only on the central atom and interacts with only one nucleus whereas the bond pairs are shared between two atoms and they interact with two nuclei. Because of this the lone pairs occupy more space and have greater repulsive power than the bond pairs in a molecule.

60. Which of the following has a v- shape or bent shape geometry?

a) CO₂

b) HCN

c) O₃

d) BF₃

61. Identify the incorrect Match

A. Trigonal planar i) HCHO

B. Tetrahedral ii) CS₂

C. Linear iii) BeCl₂

D. Bent shape iv) PbCl₂

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

Shapes of molecules predicted by VSEPR theory.

62. Which of these molecules has single lone pair?

a) AB₂L₂

b) AB₃L

c) AB₅

d) AB₃L₂

Explanation

63. Which of this molecule does not have a square pyramidal geometry?

a) BrF₅

b) XeOF₄

c) XeF₄

d) TeF^–₅

64. What is the molecular geometry shape of the molecule AB₇?

a) Pentagonal bi-pyramidal

b) Linear

c) Square planar

d) Octahedral

Explanation

65. Who gave the theoretical explanation for the covalent bond in hydrogen?

a) Linus Carl Pauling

b) Kossel and Lewis

c) Heitler and London

d) Pauling and Slater

Explanation

Heitler and London gave a theoretical treatment to explain the formation of covalent bond in hydrogen molecule on the basis of wave mechanics of electrons. It was further developed by Pauling and Slater.

66. Which of this statement is not a salient feature of VB theory?

a) Greater the overlap slows down the energy and the weakest bond is formed.

b) A covalent bond will be formed when half-filled orbitals of two atoms overlap.

c) Orbital overlap takes place in the direction that maximizes the overlap.

d) The strength of a covalent bond depends upon the extent of overlap of atomic orbitals.

Explanation

Salient features of VB Theory: When half-filled orbitals of two atoms overlap, a covalent bond will be formed between them. The resultant overlapping orbital is occupied by the two electrons with opposite spins. For example, when H2 is formed, the two 1s electrons of two hydrogen atoms get paired up and occupy the overlapped orbital. The strength of a covalent bond depends upon the extent of overlap of atomic orbitals. Greater the overlap, larger is the energy released and stronger will be the bond formed. Each atomic orbital has a specific direction (except s-orbital which is spherical) and hence orbital overlap takes place in the direction that maximizes overlap

67. By which of these the covalent bond is classified as sigma and pi bonds?

a) Extent of polarization

b) Nature of overlap

c) Direction of overlap

d) Strength of overlap

Explanation

When atoms combine to form a covalent molecule, the atomic orbitals of the combining atoms overlap to form a covalent bond. The bond pair of electrons will occupy the overlapped region of the orbitals. Depending upon the nature of overlap we can classify the covalent bonding between the two atoms as sigma (σ) and pi (π) bonds.

68. Which of these bonds are created by two atomic orbitals overlapping linearly along the axis?

a) Sigma bond

b) Head-on overlap

c) Axial overlap

d) All the above

Explanation

Sigma and Pi bonds: When two atomic orbitals overlap linearly along the axis, the resultant bond is called a sigma (σ) bond. This overlap is also called ‘head-on overlap’ or ‘axial overlap’.

69. Assertion (A): Overlap of s orbital and two p orbitals along the molecular axis results in sigma bond formation.

Reasoning(R): If the x-axis is considered as molecular axis the overlap will result in sigma bond.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Overlap involves an s orbital (s-s and s-p overlaps) will always result in a sigma bond as the s orbital is spherical. Overlap between two p orbitals along the molecular axis will also result in sigma bond formation. When we consider x-axis as molecular axis, the p_x–p_x overlap will result in σ-bond.

70. In which ways the two atomic orbitals overlap to form a pi bond?

a) Sideways

b) Perpendicular

c) Linearly

d) Parallel

Explanation

When two atomic orbitals overlap sideways, the resultant covalent bond is called a pi (π) bond. When we consider x-axis as molecular axis, the p_y – p_y and p_z – p_z overlaps will result in the formation of a π-bond.

71. Which of this molecule has a s-s overlap and a sigma covalent bond?

a) Helium

b) Hydrogen

c) Ozone

d) Hydrogen Sulphide

Explanation

Formation of hydrogen (H₂) Molecule: Electronic configuration of hydrogen atom is 1s1 during the formation of H₂ molecule, the 1s orbitals of two hydrogen atoms containing one unpaired electron with opposite spin overlap with each other along the inter-nuclear axis. This overlap is called s-s overlap. Such axial overlap results in the formation of a σ-covalent bond.

72. In which axis the sigma covalent bond is formed in a fluorine molecule?

a) x- axis

b) z- axis

c) y- axis

d) All the above

Explanation

Formation of fluorine molecule (F2): Valence shell electronic configuration of fluorine atom: 2s2 2px 2, 2py 2, 2pz 1. When the half-filled pz orbitals of two fluorine overlap along the z-axis, a σ-covalent bond is formed between them.

73. Assertion (A): Bonding in simple and complex molecules can be explained on the basis of overlap of the combining atoms.

Reasoning(R): The Polyatomic molecules cannot be explained on the basis of simple overlap of atomic orbitals.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is False but R is True.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Bonding in simple molecules such as hydrogen and fluorine can easily be explained on the basis of overlap of the respective atomic orbitals of the combining atoms. But the observed properties of polyatomic molecules such as methane, ammonia, beryllium chloride etc. cannot be explained on the basis of simple overlap of atomic orbitals. For example, it was experimentally proved that methane has a tetrahedral structure and the four C-H bonds are equivalent. This fact cannot be explained on the basis of overlap of atomic orbitals of hydrogen (1s) and the atomic orbitals of carbon with different energies (2s2 2px 2 2py 2pz).

74. Who introduced the concept of hybridization of atomic orbitals?

a) Linus Pauling

b) Lewis

c) Kossel

d) Robert Mulliken

Explanation

Linus Pauling proposed that the valence atomic orbitals in the molecules are different from those in isolated atom and he introduced the concept of hybridization.

75. Which of these denotes the hybridization or the hybridized orbitals?

a) Process of mixing atomic orbitals of same atom to form equal number of new orbitals with same energy.

b) Process of mixing various orbital atoms to form new orbitals with higher energy.

c) Process of mixing same orbital atoms to form unequal number of atoms.

d) Process of mixing various orbital atoms to create lower energy atoms of equal number.

Explanation

Hybridization is the process of mixing of atomic orbitals of the same atom with comparable energy to form equal number of new equivalent orbitals with same energy. The resultant orbitals are called hybridized orbitals and they possess maximum symmetry and definite orientation in space so as to minimize the force of repulsion between their electrons.

76. Which of these concepts of bonding is not explained by the Lewis concept and Valence bond theory?

a) Chemical bonding

b) Nature of paramagnetic molecules

c) Molecular structure

d) Electron pair bond formation

Explanation

Lewis concept and valence bond theory qualitatively explains the chemical bonding and molecular structure. Both approaches are inadequate to describe some of the observed properties of molecules. For example, these theories predict that oxygen is diamagnetic. However, it was observed that oxygen in liquid form was attracted towards the poles of strong magnet, indicating that oxygen is paramagnetic. As both these theories treated the bond formation in terms of electron pairs and hence they fail to explain the bonding nature of paramagnetic molecules.

77. Who explained the magnetic behavior of the molecules?

a) Heitler and London

b) Linus Carl Pauling

c) F. Hund and Robert Mulliken

d) G.N. Lewis

Explanation

F. Hund and Robert. S. Mulliken developed a bonding theory called molecular orbital theory which explains the magnetic behavior of molecules.

78. Assertion (A): The shape of the molecular orbitals does not depend upon the shapes of combining atomic orbitals.

Reasoning(R): The identity of the individual atomic orbitals is not changed while combining to form new orbitals.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The salient features of Molecular orbital Theory (MOT): When atoms combine to form molecules, their individual atomic orbitals lose their identity and forms new orbitals called molecular orbitals. The shapes of molecular orbitals depend upon the shapes of combining atomic orbitals.

79. Choose the correct statements.

i) The number of molecular orbitals formed and the number of combining atomic orbitals are not same.

ii) Half the number of formed molecular orbitals has lower energy and half of them will have high energy.

iii) The anti-bonding molecular orbitals have low energy and the bonding material is of high energy.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

The number of molecular orbitals formed is the same as the number of combining atomic orbitals. Half the number of molecular orbitals formed will have lower energy than the corresponding atomic orbital, while the remaining molecular orbitals will have higher energy. The molecular orbital with lower energy is called bonding molecular orbital and the one with higher energy is called anti-bonding molecular orbital. The bonding molecular orbitals are represented as σ (Sigma), π (pi), δ (delta) and the corresponding anti-bonding orbitals are denoted as σ*, π* and δ*.

80. Which of these principles are followed for filling of electrons in the molecular orbitals?

a) Pauli’s exception principle

b) Hund’s rule

c) Aufbau’s principle

d) All the above

Explanation

The electrons in a molecule are accommodated in the newly formed molecular orbitals. The filling of electrons in these orbitals follows Aufbau’s principle, Pauli’s exclusion principle and Hund’s rule as in the case of filling of electrons in atomic orbitals.

81. Which of these is inferred by the bond order value of a molecule?

a) Number of covalent bonds between the combining atoms.

b) Total number of electrons present in anti-bonding molecular orbitals.

c) Total number of covalent and ionic bonds of a molecule.

d) Number of linear combinations in a molecule.

Explanation

Bond order gives the number of covalent bonds between the two combining atoms. The bond order of a molecule can be calculated using the following equation,

Where, N_b = Total number of electrons present in the bonding molecular orbitals and N_a = Total number of electrons present in the anti-bonding molecular orbitals

82. What is the value of bond order for a molecule that doesn’t exist?

a) Unity

b) Zero

c) Infinity

d) Fractional value

Explanation

A bond order of zero value indicates that the molecule doesn’t exist.

83. Which is the most common method for calculating the wave functions of the molecular orbits?

a) Schrodinger equation

b) Electroscopic methods

c) X-ray diffraction

d) Linear combination of atomic orbitals

Explanation

The wave functions for the molecular orbitals can be obtained by solving Schrödinger wave equation for the molecule. Since solving the Schrödinger equation is too complex, approximation methods are used to obtain the wave function for molecular orbitals. The most common method is the linear combination of atomic orbitals (LCAO).

84. What is the anti-bonding molecular orbit value for the wave functions ψA and ψB?

a) ψA + ψB

b) ψA – ψB

c) ψA * ψB

d) ψA / ψB

Explanation

The atomic orbitals are represented by the wave function Ψ. Let us consider two atomic orbitals represented by the wave function ψA and ψB with comparable energy, combines to form two molecular orbitals. One is bonding molecular orbital (ψ bonding) and the other is anti-bonding molecular orbital (ψ anti-bonding). The wave functions for these two molecular orbitals can be obtained by the linear combination of the atomic orbitals ψA and ψB as below.

Ψ bonding = ψA + ψB ψ anti-bonding = ψA – ψB

The formation of bonding molecular orbital can be considered as the result of constructive interference of the atomic orbitals and the formation of anti-bonding molecular orbital can be the result of the destructive interference of the atomic orbitals.

85. Choose the Incorrect statements about the properties of metals.

i) The Metallic bond keeps the atoms of the metal so closely in a metallic crystal.

ii) The ionic bonds are formed between the atoms of different electro negativities.

iii) The Metallic bond is a covalent bond as the metals have sufficient number of valence electrons for mutual sharing.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Metals have some special properties of lustre, high density, high electrical and thermal conductivity, malleability and ductility, and high melting and boiling points. The forces that keep the atoms of the metal so closely in a metallic crystal constitute what is generally known as the metallic bond. The metallic bond is not just an electrovalent bond (ionic bond), as the latter is formed between atoms of different electro negativities. Similarly, the metallic bond is not a covalent bond as the metal atoms do not have sufficient number of valence electrons for mutual sharing with 8 or 12 neighboring metal atoms in a crystal.

86. Which of these forces between in the metal ions makes closely packed crystals?

a) Ion repulsion

b) Electrostatic attraction

c) Magnetic deflection

d) Thermal equilibrium

Explanation

The electrostatic attraction between the metal ions and the free electrons yields a three-dimensional close packed crystal with a large number of nearest metal ions. So, metals have high density. As the close packed structure contains many slip planes along which movement can occur during mechanical loading, the metal acquires ductility.

87. Why the metallic bonding has no directional properties?

a) Each metal ion is surrounded by electron cloud in all directions.

b) The electron clouds reflect the light.

c) Metals are closely packed crystals with large number of ions.

d) Electrons are free to move around the positive ions.

Explanation

As each metal ion is surrounded by electron cloud in all directions, the metallic bonding has no directional properties.

88. Which of the following is not a quality of metals?

a) High electrical conductivity

b) Metallic luster

c) Low boiling point and low thermal conductivity

d) High melting points

Explanation

As the electrons are free to move around the positive ions, the metals exhibit high electrical and thermal conductivity. The metallic luster is due to reflection of light by the electron cloud. As the metallic bond is strong enough, the metal atoms are reluctant to break apart into a liquid or gas, so the metals have high melting and boiling points.

89. Assertion (A): The atoms in a crystal overlap to form numerous bonding and anti-bonding molecular orbitals without any gap.

Reasoning(R): The bonding orbitals are completely filled with an electron pair and the anti-bonding molecules are empty.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The bonding in metal is better treated by Molecular orbital theory. As per this theory, the atomic orbitals of large number of atoms in a crystal overlap to form numerous bonding and anti-bonding molecular orbitals without any band gap. The bonding molecular orbitals are completely filled with an electron pair in each, and the anti-bonding molecular orbitals are empty.

90. Choose the correct statements.

i) Absence of band gap accounts for the low electrical conductivity of metals.

ii) High thermal conductivity in metals is due to thermal excitation of many electrons from valence to conductance band.

iii) The temperature increase in metals increases the electrical conductivity due to vigorous thermal motion of lattice ions.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Absence of band gap accounts for high electrical conductivity of metals. High thermal conductivity is due to thermal excitation of many electrons from the valence band to the conductance band. With an increase in temperature, the electrical conductivity decreases due to vigorous thermal motion of lattice ions that disrupts the uniform lattice structure, that is required for free motion of electrons within the crystal.

91. Assertion (A): Most of the metals absorb light of all wavelengths and black in color.

Reasoning(R): Absorption of light of all wavelengths is due to absence of band gap in metals.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Most metals are black except copper, silver and gold. It is due to absorption of light of all wavelengths. Absorption of light of all wavelengths is due to absence of band gap in metals.

92. If a molecule has no unpaired electrons hence it is ______.

a) Paramagnetic

b) Diamagnetic

c) Both a and b

d) None of the above

Explanation

Molecule has two unpaired electrons. Hence it is paramagnetic. Molecule has no unpaired electrons. Hence it is diamagnetic.

11th Science Lesson 9 Questions in English

9] Diversity of Living World

1. Earth was formed how many years ago?

1. 4.6 trillion years ago
2. 4.6 billion years ago
3. 4.6 million years ago
4. None of the above

Explanation

Earth was formed some 4.6 billion years ago. It is the life supporting planet with land forms like mountains, plateaus, glaciers, etc.

2. Life on earth exists within a complex structure called ____

1. Biosphere
2. Atmosphere
3. Hotspot
4. Crust

Explanation

Life on earth exists within a complex structure called biosphere. There exist many mysteries and wonders in the living world some are not visible but the activity of some captures the attention of all.

3. DNA molecule is not made up of which among the following?

1. Carbon
2. Nitrogen
3. Phosphorus
4. Zinc

Explanation

DNA molecule is essential for the regulation of life and is made up of carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen and phosphorus. Thus, non-living and living things exist together to make our planet unique.

4. According to whose survey made in 2011 the number of estimated species on earth is 8.7 million?

1. Cal ci ta
2. Mora et al
3. Heat pi ta
4. Sui cha ta

Explanation

According to a survey made by Mora et al., 2011 the number of estimated species on earth is 8.7 million. The living world includes microbes, plants, animals and human beings which possess unique and distinct characteristic feature.

5. Which among the following is not the attributes of living organisms?

1. Growth
2. Reproduction
3. Irritability
4. None of the above

Explanation

Attributes of living organisms are growth, nutrition, movement, reproduction, excretion, irritability, respiration and metabolism.

6. Which among the following statement is correct regarding growth

1. Growth is an intrinsic property of all living organisms through which they can increase cells both in number and mass. Unicellular and multicellular organisms grow by cell division. In plants, growth is indefinite and occurs throughout their life. In animals, growth is definite and occurs for some period.
2. Growth in non-living objects is intrinsic. Mountains, boulders and sand mounds grow by simple aggregation of material on the surface. Living cells grow by the addition of new potassium within the cells. Therefore, growth in living thing is extrinsic.
3. In unicellular organisms like Bacteria and Amoeba growth occurs by cell division and such cell division also leads to the growth of their population. Hence, growth and reproduction are mutually inclusive events.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Growth in non-living objects is extrinsic. Mountains, boulders and sand mounds grow by simple aggregation of material on the surface. Living cells grow by the addition of new protoplasm within the cells. Therefore, growth in living thing is intrinsic.

7. Which are unicellular, lack membrane bound nuclei and organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi bodies and so on?

1. Prokaryotes
2. Eukaryotes
3. Zygote
4. Homozygote

Explanation

Prokaryotes are unicellular, lack membrane bound nuclei and organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi bodies and so on (Example: Bacteria and Blue green algae).

8. In which a definite nucleus and membrane bound organelles are present?

1. Eukaryotes
2. Zygote
3. Homozygote
4. Lepidote

Explanation

In Eukaryotes a definite nucleus and membrane bound organelles are present. Eukaryotes may be unicellular (Amoeba) or multicellular (Oedogonium). All living organisms are made up of cells which may be prokaryotic or eukaryotic.

9. How many types of reproduction are there?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Explanation

Reproduction is one of the fundamental characteristic features of living organisms. It is the tendency of a living organism to perpetuate its own species. There are two types of reproduction namely asexual and sexual.

10. Match the following Asexual reproductive type with its organism

1. Conidia formation – 1. Spirogyra
2. Budding – 2. Yeast
3. Fragmentation – 3. Planaria
4. Regeneration – 4. Penicillium
5. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
8. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2

Explanation

Types of Asexual Reproduction (a) Conidia formation-Penicillium, (b) Budding-Yeast, (c) Fragmentation-Spirogyra, (d) Regeneration-Planaria.

11. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Asexual reproduction refers to the production of the progeny possessing features more or less similar to those of parents. The sexual reproduction brings out variation through recombination.
2. Asexual reproduction in living organisms occurs by the production of conidia (Aspergillus, Penicillium), budding (Hydra and Yeast), binary fission (Bacteria and Amoeba) fragmentation (Spirogyra), protonema (Mosses) and regeneration (Planaria). Exceptions are the sterile worker bees and mules.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

12. The sum of all the chemical reactions taking place in a cell of living organism is called ____?

1. Homeostasis
2. Metabolism
3. Movement
4. Irritability

Explanation

The sum of all the chemical reactions taking place in a cell of living organism is called metabolism.

13. Which among the following is not the type of metabolism?

1. Catabolism
2. Anabolism
3. Diabolism
4. None of the above

Explanation

Metabolism is broadly divided into anabolism and catabolism.

14. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Anabolism is breaking down process. Larger molecules break into smaller units. In anabolism the stored chemical energy is released and used. Example: Breaking down of glucose to CO₂ and water.
2. Catabolism is a building up process. Smaller molecules combine together to form larger molecule. In catabolism Chemical energy is formed and stored. Example: Synthesis of proteins from amino acids.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Anabolism is a building up process. Smaller molecules combine together to form larger molecule. In Anabolism Chemical energy is formed and stored. Example: Synthesis of proteins from amino acids

Catabolism is breaking down process. Larger molecules break into smaller units. In catabolism the stored chemical energy is released and used. Example: Breaking down of glucose to CO₂ and water.

15. Property of self-regulation and tendency to maintain a steady state within an external environment which is liable to change is called _____

1. Irritability
2. Homeostasis
3. Planaria
4. Excretion

Explanation

Property of self-regulation and tendency to maintain a steady state within an external environment which is liable to change is called Homeostasis. It is essential for the living organism to maintain internal condition to survive in the environment.

16. Which among the following statement is correct

1. All organisms are capable of sensing their environment and respond to various physical, chemical and biological stimuli. Animals sense their surroundings by sense organs. This is called Consciousness.
2. Plants also respond to the stimuli. Bending of plants towards sunlight, the closure of leaves in touch-me-not plant to touch are some examples for response to stimuli in plants. This type of response is called Irritability.
3. Movement, Nutrition, Respiration and Excretion are also considered as the property of living things. The levels of organization in living organism begin with atoms and end in Biosphere. Each level cannot exist in isolation instead they form levels of integration
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

17. The movement of cytoplasm is called ____

1. Zygosis
2. Coniosis
3. Cyclosis
4. Genesis

Explanation

The movement of cytoplasm is called cytoplasmic streaming or cyclosis.

18. Which among the following is not the virus?

1. EBOLA
2. AQUIFICAE
3. ZIKA
4. SARS

Explanation

EBOLA, ZIKA, AIDS, SARS, H1N1 are example of virus. The word virus is derived from Latin meaning ‘Poison’. Viruses are sub-microscopic, obligate intracellular parasites. They have nucleic acid core surrounded by protein coat. Aquificae is a bacterium.

19. The study of viruses is called ___

1. Virucidal
2. Virulency
3. Virology
4. Virusoid

Explanation

The study of viruses is called Virology. Viruses in their native state contain only a single type of nucleic acid which may be either DNA or RNA.

20. Which American Scientist obtained virus in crystallised form from infected tobacco juice in the year 1935?

1. W.M. Stanley
2. J.H. Northrop
3. Dmitri Ivanovsky
4. T.H. Morgan

Explanation

W.M. Stanley is American Scientist obtained virus in crystallised form from infected tobacco juice in the year 1935. He was jointly awarded “Nobel Prize” with Dr. J.H. Northrop for Chemistry in 1946.

21. Who among the following used and created vaccination for small pox in 1796?

1. F.W. Twort
2. Robert Gallo
3. Edward Jenner
4. Adolf Mayer

Explanation

Edward Jenner used and created vaccination for small pox in 1796.

22. Viruses infecting bacteria are called ____

1. Bacterially
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Bacteriophages
4. All the above

Explanation

Viruses infecting bacteria are called Bacteriophages. It literally means ‘eaters of bacteria’ (Gr: Phagein = to eat). Phages are abundant in soil, sewage water, fruits, vegetables, and milk.

23. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Structure of T₄ bacteriophage?

1. The T₄ phage is tadpole shaped and consists of head, collar, tail, base plate and fibres. The head is hexagonal which consists of about 2000 identical protein subunits. The long helical tail consists of an inner tubular core which is connected to the head by a collar. There is a base plate attached to the end of tail.
2. The base plate contains seven spikes and tail fibres. These fibres are used to attach the phage on the cell wall of bacterial host during replication. A dsDNA molecule of about 100 µm is tightly packed inside the head. The DNA is about 1000 times smaller than the phage itself.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The base plate contains seven spikes and tail fibres. These fibres are used to attach the phage on the cell wall of bacterial host during replication. A dsDNA molecule of about 100 µm is tightly packed inside the head. The DNA is about 1000 times smaller than the phage itself.

24. Which among the following is not the non-living characteristic of virus?

1. Can be crystallised
2. Absence of metabolism
3. Inactive outside the host
4. Show irritability

Explanation

The Non-living characters of viruses are 1. Can be crystallized, 2. Absence of metabolism, 3. Inactive outside the host, 4. Do not show functional autonomy and 5. Energy producing enzyme system is absent.

25. Who among the following demonstrated the infectious nature of Tobacco mosaic virus using sap of mosaic leaves in 1886?

1. Dimitry Ivanowsky
2. M.W. Beijirink
3. F.W. Twort
4. Adolf Mayer

Explanation

In 1886 Adolf Mayer demonstrated the infectious nature of Tobacco mosaic virus using sap of mosaic leaves.

26. Viruses are smaller than bacteria and their diameter range from ____

1. 0.2 to 20 nm
2. 20 to 300 nm
3. 200 to 2000 nm
4. 2000 to 4000 nm

Explanation

Viruses are ultramicroscopic particles. They are smaller than bacteria and their diameter range from 20 to 300 nm. (1nm = 10^-9 metres). Bacteriophage measures about 10-100 nm in size. The size of TMV is 300×20 nm.

27. Generally viruses are how many types based on shape and symmetry?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Explanation

Generally, viruses are of three types based on shape and symmetry. They are i. Cuboid symmetry, ii. Helical symmetry and iii. Complex or Atypical.

28. Who gave the virus classification in year 1971 based on mechanism of RNA production, the nature of the genome, RNA or DNA, the use of reverse transcriptase (RT)?

1. David Baltimore
2. Dimitry Ivanowsky
3. F.W. Twort
4. Robert Gallo

Explanation

Among various classifications proposed for viruses the classification given by David Baltimore in the year 1971 is given below. The classification is based on mechanism of RNA production, the nature of the genome (single stranded –ss or double stranded – ds), RNA or DNA, the use of reverse transcriptase (RT), ss RNA may be (+) sense or (–) antisense. Viruses are classified into seven classes.

29. Which among the following is not the example of cuboid symmetry virus?

1. Adenovirus
2. Herpes virus
3. Bacteria phage
4. None of the above

Explanation

Cuboid symmetry – Example: Adenovirus, Herpes virus.

30. Which among the following is not the example of Helical symmetry virus?

1. Influenza virus
2. Vaccinia virus
3. Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV)
4. None of the above

Explanation

Helical symmetry – Example: Influenza virus, Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV). Complex or Atypical – Example: Bacteriophage, Vaccinia virus.

31. Which among the following is not the living characteristic of virus?

1. Presence of nucleic acid and protein
2. Capable of mutation
3. Host –specific
4. None of the above

Explanation

Living characters of virus are 1. Presence of nucleic acid and protein, 2. Capable of mutation, 3. Ability to multiply within living cells, 4. Able to infect and cause diseases in living beings,5. Show irritability and 6. Host –specific.

32. Which among the following statement is correct?

1. Each virus possesses only one type of nucleic acid either DNA or RNA. The nucleic acid may be in a linear or circular form. Generally nucleic acid is present as a single unit but in wound tumour virus and in influenza virus it is found in segments.
2. Majority of animal and bacterial viruses are RNA viruses (HIV is the animal virus which possess DNA). Plant viruses generally contain DNA (Cauliflower Mosaic virus possess RNA). The nucleic acids may be single stranded or double stranded.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Majority of animal and bacterial viruses are DNA viruses (HIV is the animal virus which possess RNA). Plant viruses generally contain RNA (Cauliflower Mosaic virus possess DNA). The nucleic acids may be single stranded or double stranded.

33. The viruses possessing DNA are called ____

1. Ominiviruses
2. Dvireviruses
3. Coxiviruses
4. Deoxyviruses

Explanation

The viruses possessing DNA are called ‘Deoxyviruses’.

34. The viruses possessing RNA are called _____

1. Riboviruses
2. Retroviruses
3. Coxiviruses
4. Temperviruses

Explanation

The viruses possessing RNA are called ‘Riboviruses’.

35. On the basis of nature of nucleic acid viruses are classified into how many categories?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Explanation

On the basis of nature of nucleic acid viruses are classified into four Categories. They are Viruses with ssDNA (Parvo viruses), dsDNA (Bacteriophages), ssRNA (TMV)and dsRNA(Wound Tumour Virus).

36. Tobacco mosaic virus was discovered in 1892 by whom from the Tobacco plant?

1. Dimitry Ivanowsky
2. M.W. Beijirink
3. F.W. Twort
4. Adolf Mayer

Explanation

Tobacco mosaic virus was discovered in 1892 by Dimitry Ivanowsky from the Tobacco plant. Viruses infect healthy plants through vectors like aphids, locusts etc. The first visible symptom of TMV is discoloration of leaf colour along the veins and show typical yellow and green mottling which is the mosaic symptom. The downward curling and distortion of young apical leaves occurs, plant becomes stunted and yield is affected.

37. Which among the following statement is correct regarding structure of Tobacco Mosaic Virus?

1. Electron microscopic studies have revealed that TMV is a rod shaped helical virus measuring about 300x20nm with a molecular weight of 39×106 Daltons. The virion is made up of two constituents, a protein coat called capsid and a core called nucleic acid.
2. The protein coat is made up of approximately 140 identical protein subunits called miterwort which are present around a central single stranded DNA molecule. The genetic information necessary for the formation of a complete TMV particle is contained in its DNA.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The protein coat is made up of approximately 2130 identical protein subunits called capsomeres which are present around a central single stranded RNA molecule. The genetic information necessary for the formation of a complete TMV particle is contained in its RNA.

38. In Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) RNA consists of how many nucleotides?

1. 1800
2. 3700
3. 6500
4. 9800

Explanation

In Tobacco Mosaic Virus (TMV) RNA consists of 6,500 nucleotides.

39. Who among the following proved that viruses are smaller than bacteria?

1. Robert Gallo
2. Luc Montagnier
3. F.W. Twort
4. Dimitry Ivanowsky

Explanation

In 1892 Dimitry Ivanowsky proved that viruses are smaller than bacteria.

40. Which among the following is not the life cycle through which Phages multiply?

1. Lytic cycle
2. Lysogenic cycle
3. Lynchpin cycle
4. None of the above

Explanation

Phages multiply through two different types of life cycle. a. Lytic or Virulent cycle b. Lysogenic or Avirulent life cycle.

41. Which among the following is not the step involved in lytic cycle?

1. Adsorption
2. Penetration
3. Synthesis
4. Catalyst

Explanation

During lytic cycle of phage, disintegration of host bacterial cell occurs and the progeny virions are released (Figure 1.5a). The steps involved in the lytic cycle are as follows: (i) Adsorption, (ii) Penetration, (iii) Synthesis, (iv) Assembly and Maturation and (v) Release.

42. Which among the following statement is correct regarding adsorption process in lytic cycle?

1. Phage (T₄) particles interact with cell wall of host (E. coli). The phage tail makes contact between the two, and tail fibres recognize the specific receptor sites present on bacterial cell surface. The lipopolysaccharides of tail fibres act as receptor in phage.
2. The process involving the recognition of phage to bacterium is called sliding. Once the contact is established between tail fibres and bacterial cell, tail fibres bend to anchor the pins and base plate to the cell surface. This step is called surfacing.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The process involving the recognition of phage to bacterium is called landing. Once the contact is established between tail fibres and bacterial cell, tail fibres bend to anchor the pins and base plate to the cell surface. This step is called pinning.

43. Who among the following defined the infectious agent in tobacco leaves as ῾Contagium vivum fluidum’ in 1898?

1. Dimitry Ivanowsky
2. M.W. Beijirink
3. F.W. Twort
4. Adolf Mayer

Explanation

In 1898, M.W. Beijierink defined the infectious agent in tobacco leaves as ῾Contagium vivum fluidum’.

44. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding penetration process in lytic cycle?

1. The penetration process involves mechanical and enzymatic digestion of the cell wall of the host. At the recognition site phage digests certain cell wall structure by viral enzyme (lysozyme). After pinning the tail sheath contracts (using ATP) and appears shorter and thicker
2. After contraction of the base plate enlarges through which RNA is injected into the cell wall without using metabolic energy. The step involving injection of RNA particle alone into the bacterial cell is called Transfection. The empty protein coat leaving outside the cell is known as ‘Hall’.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

After contraction of the base plate enlarges through which DNA is injected into the cell wall without using metabolic energy. The step involving injection of DNA particle alone into the bacterial cell is called Transfection. The empty protein coat leaving outside the cell is known as ‘ghost’.

45. Who among the following identified Viral infection in Bacteria in 1915?

1. David Baltimore
2. d’Herelle
3. Robert Gallo
4. F.W. Twort

Explanation

In 1915 F.W.Twort identified Viral infection in Bacteria.

46. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding synthesis process in lytic cycle?

1. Synthesis step involves the degradation of bacterial chromosome, protein synthesis and DNA replication. The phage nucleic acid takes over the host biosynthetic machinery. Host DNA gets inactivated and breaks down.
2. Phage DNA suppresses the synthesis of bacterial protein and directs the metabolism of the cell to synthesis the proteins of the phage particles and simultaneously replication of Phage DNA also takes place.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Synthesis step involves the degradation of bacterial chromosome, protein synthesis and DNA replication. The phage nucleic acid takes over the host biosynthetic machinery. Host DNA gets inactivated and breaks down. Phage DNA suppresses the synthesis of bacterial protein and directs the metabolism of the cell to synthesis the proteins of the phage particles and simultaneously replication of Phage DNA also takes place.

47. The DNA of the phage and protein coat are synthesized separately and are assembled to form phage particles. The process of assembling the phage particles is known as ____

1. Contamination
2. Conjunction
3. Maturation
4. Release

Explanation

The DNA of the phage and protein coat are synthesized separately and are assembled to form phage particles. The process of assembling the phage particles is known as maturation. After 20 minutes of infection, about 300 new phages are assembled. The phage particle gets accumulated inside the host cell and are released by the lysis of host cell wall.

48. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Lysogenic Cycle

1. In the lysogenic cycle the phage DNA gets integrated into host RNA and gets multiplied along with nucleic acid of the host. More independent viral particle is formed. As soon as the phage injects its linear DNA into the host cell, it becomes rectangular and integrates into the bacterial chromosome by recombination.
2. The integrated phage DNA is now called prophage. The activity of the prophage gene is repressed by two repressor proteins which are synthesized by phage genes. This checks the synthesis of new phage within the host cell. However, each time the bacterial cell divides, the prophage multiplies along with the bacterial chromosome. On exposure to UV radiation and chemicals the excision of phage DNA may occur and results in lytic cycle.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

In the lysogenic cycle the phage DNA gets integrated into host DNA and gets multiplied along with nucleic acid of the host. No independent viral particle is formed. As soon as the phage injects its linear DNA into the host cell, it becomes circular and integrates into the bacterial chromosome by recombination.

49. Viruses infecting blue green algae are called _____

1. Cyanophages
2. Prions
3. Monera
4. Plantae

Explanation

Viruses infecting blue green algae are called Cyanophages.

50. Who coined the term ‘Bacteriophage’ in 1917?

1. Luc Montagnier
2. Robert Gallo
3. d’Herelle
4. David Baltimore

Explanation

In 1917 d’Herelle coined the term ‘Bacteriophage’.

51. Who among the following first reported cyanophages in 1963?

1. Luc Montagnier and Robert Gallo
2. Safferman and Morris
3. David Baltimore and Adolf Mayer
4. Edward Jenner and Carl Linnaeus

Explanation

Cyanophages are first reported by Safferman and Morris in the year 1963(Example LPP1 – Lyngbya, Plectonema and Phormidium).

52. The viruses attacking fungi are called ____

1. Herpesviruses
2. Hantaviruses
3. Parvoviruses
4. Mycoviruses

Explanation

Hollings (1962) reported viruses infecting cultivated Mushrooms and causing die back disease. The viruses attacking fungi are called Mycoviruses or Mycophages.

53. Which is an intact infective virus particle which is non-replicating outside a host cell?

1. Viroid
2. Virion
3. Virusoid
4. Prions

Explanation

Virion is an intact infective virus particle which is non-replicating outside a host cell.

54. Which among the following were discovered by J.W.Randles and Co-workers in 1981?

1. Viroid
2. Virion
3. Virusoids
4. Prions

Explanation

Virusoids were discovered by J.W.Randles and Co-workers in 1981.They are the small circular RNAs which are similar to viroids but they are always linked with larger molecules of the viral RNA.

55. Viroid is a circular molecule of ssRNA without a capsid and was discovered by whom in the year 1971?

1. T.O. Diener
2. Stanley B. Prusiner
3. Carl Linnaeus
4. R.H. Whittaker

Explanation

Viroid is a circular molecule of ssRNA without a capsid and was discovered by T.O. Diener in the year 1971. The RNA of viroid has low molecular weight. Viroids cause citrus exocortis and potato spindle tuber disease in plants.

56. Prions were discovered by whom in 1982?

1. Stanley B. Prusiner
2. Carl Linnaeus
3. R.H. Whittaker
4. Copeland

Explanation

Prions were discovered by Stanley B. Prusiner in the year 1982 and are proteinaceous infectious particles. They are the causative agents for about a dozen fatal degenerative disorders of the central nervous system of humans and other animals. For example, Creutzfeldt – Jakob Disease (CJD), Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) – commonly known as mad cow disease and scrapie disease of sheep.

57. Streaks on Tulip flowers are due to Tulip Breaking Virus which belong to what group?

1. Baculoviridae group
2. Potyviridae group
3. Secoviridae group
4. All the above

Explanation

Streaks on Tulip flowers are due to Tulip Breaking Virus which belong to Potyviridae group.

58. Virus of which group are commercially exploited as insecticides?

1. Baculoviridae group
2. Secoviridae group
3. gakoviridae group
4. All the above

Explanation

Viruses of Baculoviridae group are commercially exploited as insecticides. Cytoplasmic Polyhedrosis Granulo viruses and Entomopox viruses were employed as potential insecticides.

59. Which among the following is not example of disorder caused by Prions?

1. Creutzfeldt – Jakob Disease
2. Mad cow disease
3. Scrapie disease of sheep
4. none of the above

Explanation

Creutzfeldt – Jakob Disease (CJD), Bovine Spongiform Encephalopathy (BSE) – commonly known as mad cow disease and scrapie disease of sheep are the example of disorder caused by prions.

60. Who among the following discovered HIV (Human Immuno Deficiency Virus) in 1984?

1. Luc Montagnier and Robert Gallo
2. Safferman and Morris
3. David Baltimore and Adolf Mayer
4. Edward Jenner and Carl Linnaeus

Explanation

In 1984 Luc Montagnier and Robert Gallo discovered HIV (Human Immuno Deficiency Virus).

61. Who among the following is “Father of Botany”?

1. Carl Linnaeus
2. Copeland
3. Theophrastus
4. Aristotle

Explanation

Theophrastus, “Father of Botany” used the morphological characters to classify plants into trees, shrubs and herbs.

62. Who classified animals into two groups. i.e., Enaima (with red blood) and Anaima (without red blood)?

1. Socrates
2. Aristotle
3. Copeland
4. Plato

Explanation

Aristotle classified animals into two groups. i.e., Enaima (with red blood) and Anaima (without red blood).

63. Match the following system of classification with who proposed it

1. Two Kingdom – 1. Copeland
2. Three Kingdom – 2. R.H. Whittaker
3. Four Kingdom – 3. Ernst Haeckel
4. Five Kingdom – 4. Carl Linnaeus
5. 4 – 3 – 1 – 2
6. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
7. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
8. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

Explanation

Two kingdom – Carl Linnaeus; Three kingdom – Ernst Haeckel; Four Kingdom – Copeland; Five kingdom – R.H. Whittaker.

64. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Carl Linnaeus classified living world into two groups namely Plants and Animals based on morphological characters. His classification faced major setback because Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes were grouped together.
2. Similarly, fungi, heterotrophic organisms were placed along with the photosynthetic plants. In course of time, the development of tools compelled taxonomists to look for different areas like cytology, anatomy, embryology, molecular biology, phylogeny etc., for classifying organisms on earth. Thus, new dimensions to classifications were put forth from time to time.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

65. Which among the following was not included in Five kingdom classification proposed by R.H. Whittaker?

1. Protista
2. Baryta
3. Monera
4. Plantae

Explanation

R.H. Whittaker, an American taxonomist proposed five Kingdom classification in the year 1969. The Kingdoms include Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. The criteria adopted for the classification include cell structure, thallus organization, mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationship.

66. Which among the following is not the merits of Five Kingdom Classification?

1. The classification is based on the complexity of cell structure and organization of thallus.
2. It is based on the mode of nutrition and Separation of fungi from plants
3. It shows the phylogeny of the organisms
4. None of the above

67. Which among the following was not included in Five Kingdom Classification?

1. Fungi
2. Monera
3. Virus
4. Protista

Explanation

The Kingdom Monera and Protista accommodate both autotrophic and heterotrophic organisms, cell wall lacking and cell wall bearing organisms thus making these two groups more heterogeneous. Viruses were not included in the system.

68. Who among the following in the year 1990 introduced three domains of life?

1. Carl Woese
2. Thomas Cavalier Smith
3. Copeland
4. Ruggierio et al

Explanation

Carl Woese and co-workers in the year 1990 introduced three domains of life viz.,Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya based on the difference in rRNA nucleotide sequence, lipid structure of the cell membrane.

69. A revised six Kingdom classification for living world was proposed by whom in year 1998?

1. Ruggierio et al
2. Copeland
3. Thomas Cavalier Smith
4. Ernst Haeckel

Explanation

A revised six Kingdom classification for living world was proposed by Thomas Cavalier-Smith in the year 1998 and the Kingdom Monera is divided in to Archaebacteria and Eubacteria.

70. Who among the following in 2015 published a seven Kingdom classification which is a practical extension of Thomas Cavalier’s six Kingdom scheme?

1. Robert Koch
2. Christian Gram
3. Copeland
4. Ruggierio et al

Explanation

Ruggierio et al., 2015 published a seven Kingdom classification which is a practical extension of Thomas Cavalier’s six Kingdom scheme. According to this classification there are two Super Kingdoms. (Prokaryota and Eukaryota).

71. In seven kingdom classification, which among the following doesn’t come under Eukaryota?

1. Protozoa
2. Fungi
3. Eubacteria
4. Chromista

Explanation

Prokaryota includes two Kingdoms namely Archaebacteria and Eubacteria. Eukaryota includes the Protozoa, Chromista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.

72. Which among the following kingdom includes all algae whose chloroplasts contain chlorophyll a and c, as well as various colourless forms that are closely related to them?

1. Protozoa
2. Chromista
3. Fungi
4. Plantae

Explanation

A new Kingdom, the Chromista was erected and it included all algae whose chloroplasts contain chlorophyll a and c, as well as various colourless forms that are closely related to them. Diatoms, Brown algae, Cryptomonads and Oomycetes were placed under this Kingdom.

73. Which is caused by toxic bloom of Dinoflagellates like Gymnodinium breve and Gonyaulax tamarensis?

1. Blue tide
2. Red tide
3. Green tide
4. Yellow tide

Explanation

Red tide is caused by toxic bloom of Dinoflagellates like Gymnodinium breve and Gonyaulax tamarensis.

74. Which bacterium present in curd that turns milk into curd when added?

1. Lactobacillus lactis
2. Viridian streptococci
3. Eikenella cloacae
4. Acetobacter

Explanation

A little drop of curd turns the milk into curd after some time. The change is brought by Lactobacillus lactis, a bacterium present in the curd. The sourness is due to the formation of Lactic acid.

75. Typhoid is a bacterial disease caused which bacterium?

1. Salmonella typhi
2. Acetobacter typhi
3. Gardnerella typhi
4. Klebsiella typhi

Explanation

Typhoid is a bacterial disease caused by Salmonella typhi, a bacterium. So, we can consider this prokaryotic organism as friend and foe, due to their beneficial and harmful activities.

76. Which German physician and microbiologist is considered as the founder of modern bacteriology?

1. Robert Koch
2. Joshua Lederberg
3. Christian gram
4. C.G. Ehrenberg

Explanation

Robert Heinrich Hermann Koch was a German physician and microbiologist. Robert Koch is considered as the founder of modern bacteriology. The experimental evidence for the concept of infection was proved by him (Koch’s postulates). He was awarded Nobel prize in Medicine/Physiology in the year 1905.

77. Which among the following disease causal organism was not identified by Robert Koch?

1. Anthrax
2. Cholera
3. Tuberculosis
4. Small pox

Explanation

Robert Koch identified the causal organism for Anthrax, Cholera and Tuberculosis.

78. Who among the following coined the term Bacterium?

1. Joshua Lederberg
2. C.G. Ehrenberg
3. Christian gram
4. Fredrick Griffith

Explanation

In 1829 C.G. Ehrenberg coined the term Bacterium.

79. Bacteria were first discovered by which Dutch scientist in 1676?

1. Robert Hooke
2. Rudolf Virchow
3. Anton Van Leeuwenhoek
4. Matthias Jakob Schleiden

Explanation

Bacteria are prokaryotic, unicellular, ubiquitous, microscopic organisms. The study of Bacteria is called Bacteriology. Bacteria were first discovered by a Dutch scientist, Anton van Leeuwenhoek in 1676 and were called “animalcules”.

80. Which among the following characteristic features of Bacteria is incorrect

1. They are Prokaryotic organisms and lack nuclear membrane and membrane bound organelles.
2. The Genetic material is called nucleoid or genophore or incipient nucleus
3. The cell wall is made up of melanocyte and carbons
4. They reproduce vegetatively by Binary fission and endospore formation.

Explanation

The cell wall is made up of Polysaccharides and proteins. Most of them lack chlorophyll, hence they are heterotrophic (Vibrio cholerae) but some are autotrophic and possess Bacteriochlorophyll (Chromatium).

81. The bacterial cell reveals how many layers?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Explanation

The bacterial cell reveals three layers (i) Capsule/Glycocalyx (ii) Cell wall and (iii) Cytoplasm.

82. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Capsule/Glycocalyx layer of bacteria?

1. Some bacteria are surrounded by a gelatinous substance which is composed of polysaccharides or polypeptide or both. A thick layer of glycocalyx bound tightly to the cell wall is called capsule.
2. Capsule protects cell from desiccation and antibiotics. The sticky nature helps them to attach to substrates like plant root surfaces, Human teeth and tissues. It helps to retain the nutrients in bacterial cell.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

83. Which among the following is not caused by Helicobacter pylori, a Gram negative bacterium?

1. Duodenal
2. Dermatitis
3. Gastric ulcers
4. None of the above

Explanation

Duodenal and Gastric ulcers are caused by Helicobacter pylori, a Gram negative bacterium.

84. Bt toxin from which bacterium finds application in raising insect resistant crops (Bt Crops)?

1. Arthrobacter luteus
2. Beauveria bassiana
3. Micrococcus lylae
4. Bacillus thuringiensis

Explanation

Bt toxin from Bacillus thuringiensis finds application in raising insect resistant crops (Bt Crops).

85. Which among the following statement is correct regarding bacterial cell?

1. The bacterial cell wall is granular and is flexible. It provides protection and gives shape to the cell. The chemical composition of cell wall is rather simple and is made up of histone or peptidoglycan. One of the most abundant polypeptides called sine is present and it helps in the diffusion of solutes.
2. Cytoplasm is thick and semi-transparent. It contains ribosomes and other cell inclusions. Cytoplasmic inclusions like glycogen, poly-βhydroxybutyrate granules, sulphur granules and gas vesicles are present
3. The plasma membrane is made up of lipoprotein. It controls the entry and exit of small molecules and ions. The enzymes involved in the oxidation of metabolites (i.e., the respiratory chain) as well as the photosystems used in photosynthesis are present in the plasma membrane.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The bacterial cell wall is granular and is rigid. It provides protection and gives shape to the cell. The chemical composition of cell wall is rather complex and is made up of peptidoglycan or mucopeptide (N-acetyl glucosamine, N-acetyl muramic acid and peptide chain of 4 or 5 aminoacids). One of the most abundant polypeptide called porin is present and it helps in the diffusion of solutes.

86. In 1884 Christian Gram introduced which method?

1. Gram folio method
2. Gram staining method
3. Gram ribsome method
4. Gram calibre method

Explanation

In 1884 Christian Gram introduced Gram staining method.

87. Which among the following statement regarding Bacterial chromosome is correct?

1. The bacterial chromosome is a single circular DNA molecule, tightly coiled and is not enclosed in a membrane as in Eukaryotes. This genetic material is called Nucleoid or Genophore.
2. It is amazing to note that the DNA of E.coli which measures about 1nm long when uncoiled, contains all the genetic information of the organism. The DNA is bound to the histone proteins.
3. The single chromosome or the DNA molecule is circular and at one point it is attached to the plasma membrane and it is believed that this attachment may help in the separation of two chromosomes after DNA replication.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

It is amazing to note that the DNA of E.coli which measures about 1mm long when uncoiled, contains all the genetic information of the organism. The DNA is not bound to histone proteins.

88. Which among the following statement is correct regarding plasmid in bacterial cell

1. Plasmids are extra chromosomal double stranded, circular, self-replicating, autonomous elements. The size of a plasmid varies from 1 to 500 kb usually plasmids contribute to about 0.5 to 5.0% of the total DNA of bacteria.
2. They contain genes for fertility, antibiotic resistant and heavy metals. It also help in the production of bacteriocins and toxins which are not found in bacterial chromosome. The number of plasmids per cell varies.
3. Plasmids are classified into different types based on the function. Some of them are F (Fertility) factor, R (Resistance) plasmids, Col (Colicin) plasmids, Ri (Root inducing) plasmids and Ti (Tumour inducing) plasmids.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

89. Certain motile bacteria have numerous thin hair like projections of variable length emerge from the cell wall called _____

1. Polysomes
2. Polyribsomes
3. Flagella
4. Pili

Explanation

Certain motile bacteria have numerous thin hair like projections of variable length emerge from the cell wall called flagella. It is 20–30 μm in diameter and 15 μm in length. The flagella of Eukaryotic cells contain 9+2 microtubles but each flagellum in bacteria is made up of a single fibril. Flagella are used for locomotion. Based on the number and position of flagella there are different types of bacteria.

90. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Mesosomes are localized infoldings of plasma membrane produced into the cell in the form of vesicles, tubules and lamellae. They are clumped and folded together to maximize their surface area and helps in respiration and in binary fission.
2. The ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. The number of ribosomes per cell varies from 1000 to 5,000. The ribosomes are 70S type and consists of three subunits (65S, 50S and 30S). The ribosomes are held together by DNA and form polyribosomes or polysomes.
3. Pili or fimbriae are hair like appendages found on surface of cell wall of gram-negative bacteria (Example: Enterobacterium). The pili are 0.2 to 20 µm long with a diameter of about 0.025µm. In addition to normal pili there are special type of pili which help in conjugation called sex pili are also found.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. The number of ribosomes per cell varies from 10,000 to 15,000. The ribosomes are 70S type and consists of two subunits (50S and 30S). The ribosomes are held together by mRNA and form polyribosomes or polysomes.

91. Who published First edition of Bergey’s Manual in 1923?

1. Fredrick Griffith
2. Joshua Griffith
3. David H. Bergy
4. Robert Koch

Explanation

In 1923 David H. Bergy published First edition of Bergey’s Manual.

92. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Gram staining procedure?

1. The Gram staining method to differentiate bacteria was developed by Danish Physician Christian Gram in the year1884. It is a differential staining procedure and it classifies bacteria into two classes – Gram positive and Gram negative. The steps involved in Gram staining procedure.
2. The Gram-positive bacteria retain crystal red and appear dark brown whereas Gram negative type lose the crystal red and when counterstained by safranin appear yellow under a microscope. Most of the gram-positive cell wall contain considerable amount of teichoic acid and teichuronic acid. In addition, they may contain polysaccharide molecules.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The Gram-positive bacteria retain crystal violet and appear dark violet whereas Gram negative type loose the crystal violet and when counterstained by safranin appear red under a microscope. Most of the gram-positive cell wall contain considerable amount of teichoic acid and teichuronic acid. In addition, they may contain polysaccharide molecules.

93. Which among the following is not the component of gram-negative cell wall?

1. Lipoprotein
2. Outer membrane
3. Lipopolysaccharide
4. Histone

Explanation

The gram-negative cell wall contains three components that lie outside the peptidoglycan layer. 1. Lipoprotein 2. Outer membrane 3. Lipopolysaccharide. Thus, the different results in the gram stain are due to differences in the structure and composition of the cell wall.

94. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Two types of respiration are found in Bacteria. They are 1. Aerobic respiration 2. Anaerobic respiration. Anaerobic respiration bacteria do not use oxygen for growth and metabolism but obtain their energy from fermentation reactions. Example: Clostridium.
2. Aerobic respiration bacteria require oxygen as terminal acceptor and will not grow under anaerobic conditions. (i.e., in the absence of O2) Example: Streptococcus. Some Micrococcus species are obligate aerobes (i.e., they must have oxygen to survive).
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Two types of respiration are found in Bacteria. They are Aerobic respiration, Anaerobic respiration. Aerobic respiration bacteria require oxygen as terminal acceptor and will not grow under anaerobic conditions. (i.e. in the absence of O2) Example: Streptococcus.Obligate aerobes

Some Micrococcus species are obligate aerobes (i.e. they must have oxygen to survive).

Anaerobic respiration These bacteria do not use oxygen for growth and metabolism but obtain their energy from fermentation reactions.Example: Clostridium.

95. There are bacteria that can grow either using oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor or anaerobically using fermentation reaction to obtain energy. This respiration is called ____

1. Facultative anaerobes
2. Precipitative anaerobes
3. Phenomena anaerobes
4. Conjunction anaerobes

Explanation

There are bacteria that can grow either using oxygen as a terminal electron acceptor or anaerobically using fermentation reaction to obtain energy. This respiration is called facultative anaerobes. When a facultative anaerobe such as E. coli is present at a site of infection like an abdominal abscess, it can rapidly consume all available O2 and change to anaerobic metabolism producing an anaerobic environment and thus allow the anaerobic bacteria that are present to grow and cause disease. Example: Escherichia coli and Salmonella.

96. Who among the following discovered bacterial transformation in 1928?

1. Fredrick Griffith
2. Joshua Griffith
3. David H. Bergy
4. Robert Koch

Explanation

In 1928 Fredrick Griffith discovered Bacterial transformation.

97. Which among the following bacteria is not the example of facultative anaerobes?

1. Escherichia coli
2. Streptococcus
3. Salmonella
4. None of the above

Explanation

Examples of facultative anaerobes are Escherichia coli and Salmonella.

98. Bacteria which require CO2 for their growth are called as _____

1. Capnophilic bacteria
2. Caprification bacteria
3. Capercaillie bacteria
4. Capitularies bacteria

Explanation

Bacteria which require CO₂ for their growth are called as capnophilic bacteria. Example: Campylobacter.

99. Who among the following discovered plasmid in 1952?

1. Robert Koch
2. Joshua Lederberg
3. Alexander Fleming
4. E.J. Butler

Explanation

In 1952 Joshua Lederberg discovered Plasmid.

100. Which among the following is not the classification of bacteria on the basis of their mode of nutrition?

1. Autotrophs
2. Heterotrophs
3. Saprotrophs
4. None of above

Explanation

On the basis of their mode of nutrition bacteria are classified into two types namely autotrophs and heterotrophs.

101. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Bacteria which can synthesise their own food are called autotrophic bacteria. They may be further subdivided as Photoautotrophic bacteria and Chemoautotrophic bacteria. In Photoautotrophic bacteria use sunlight as their source of energy to synthesize food. They may be Photolithotrophs and Photo organotrophs.
2. In photolithotrophs the nitrogen donor is an inorganic substance. They are white and purple sulphur bacteria. In White sulphur bacteria the nitrogen donor is H₂S and possess pigment called Bacteriocanil. Example: Chlorobium.
3. Purple sulphur bacteria belong to this group the hydrogen donor is thiosulphate, Bacteriochlorophyll is present. Chlorophyll containing chlorosomes are present Example: Chromatium. Photoorganotrophs utilize organic acid or alcohol as hydrogen donor. Example: Purple non sulphur bacteria – Rhodospirillum.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

In photolithotrophs the hydrogen donor is an inorganic substance. They are green and purple sulphur bacteria. In Green sulphur bacteria the hydrogen donor is H2S and possess pigment called Bacterioviridin. Example: Chlorobium.

102. Which among the following is the example of Sulphur bacteria?

1. Hydrogenomonas
2. Ferrobacillus ferrooxidans
3. Thiobacillus thiooxidans
4. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter

Explanation

Chemolithotrophs type of bacteria oxidize inorganic compound to release energy. Sulphur bacteria – Thiobacillus thiooxidans.

103. Which among the following is not Chemoorganotrophs?

1. Methanococcu
2. Acetobacter
3. Lactobacillus
4. Nitrobacter

Explanation

Chemoorganotrophs type of bacteria oxidize organic compounds to release energy. Examples: 1. Methane bacteria – Methanococcus 2. Acetic acid bacteria – Acetobacter 3. Lactic acid bacteria – Lactobacillus

104. Which among the following is example of Iron bacteria?

1. Hydrogenomonas
2. Ferrobacillus ferrooxidans
3. Thiobacillus thiooxidans
4. Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter

Explanation

Examples of Chemolithotrophs are Iron bacteria – Ferrobacillus ferrooxidans; Hydrogen bacteria – Hydrogenomonas; Nitrifying bacteria – Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter.

105. Which among the following is not Heterotrophic Bacteria?

1. Mycobacterium
2. Bacillus mycoides
3. Rhizobium
4. None of the above

Explanation

Heterotrophic Bacteria are Parasites (Mycobacterium) Saprophytes (Bacillus mycoides) or Symbiotic (Rhizobium in root nodules of leguminous crops).

106. Which among the following is not the asexual reproduction method of bacteria?

1. Binary fission
2. Conidia
3. Conjugation
4. Endospore formation

Explanation

Bacteria reproduces asexually by binary fission, conidia and endospore formation. Among these, binary fission is the most common one.

107. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Binary fission: Under favourable conditions the cell divides into four daughter cells. The nuclear material divides first and it is followed by the formation of a simple median constriction which finally results in the separation of four cells.
2. Endospores: During unfavourable condition bacteria produce endospores. Endospores are produced in Bacillus megaterium, Bacillus sphaericus and Clostridium tetani. Endospores are thick-walled resting spores. During favourable condition, they germinate and form bacteria.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Binary fission: Under favourable conditions the cell divides into two daughter cells. The nuclear material divides first and it is followed by the formation of a simple median constriction which finally results in the separation of two cells.

108. In sexual reproduction gene recombination can occur in bacteria by how different methods?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Six

Explanation

Typical sexual reproduction involving the formation and fusion of gametes is absent in bacteria. However gene recombination can occur in bacteria by three different methods they are 1. Conjugation 2. Transformation 3. Transduction.

109. Who among the following demonstrated conjugation in E. coli. in the year 1946?

1. Mark S. Smolinski and Sydney Brenner
2. J. Lederberg and Edward L. Tatum
3. Fredrick Griffith and Norton Zinder
4. Sydney Brenner and Edward L. Tatum

Explanation

J. Lederberg and Edward L. Tatum demonstrated conjugation in E. coli. in the year 1946.

110. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. In this method of gene transfer the donor cell gets attached to the recipient cell with the help of pili. The pilus grows in size and forms the conjugation tube. The plasmid of donor cell which has the F+ (fertility factor) undergoes replication.
2. One pair of strands of DNA is transferred to the recipient cell through conjugation tube. The recipient completes the structure of quad stranded DNA by synthesizing the strand that complements the strand acquired from the donor.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Only one strand of DNA is transferred to the recipient cell through conjugation tube. The recipient completes the structure of double stranded DNA by synthesizing the strand that complements the strand acquired from the donor.

111. Match the following host plant with its disease?

1. Rice – 1. Angular leaf spot
2. Apple – 2. Bacterial blight
3. Carrot – 3. Ring rot
4. Cotton – 4. Fire blight
5. Potato – 5. Soft rot
6. 4 – 2 – 1 – 5 – 3
7. 3 – 1 – 5 – 2 – 4
8. 5 – 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
9. 2 – 4 – 5 – 1 – 3

Explanation

Rice – Bacterial blight (Xanthomonas oryzae); Apple – Fire blight (Erwinia amylovora); Carrot – Soft rot (Erwinia caratovora); Cotton – Angular leaf spot (Xanthomonas malvacearum); Potato – Ring rot (Clavibacter michiganensis subsp. Sepedonicus).

112. In 1928 which bacteriologist demonstrated transformation in Mice using Diplococcus pneumoniae?

1. J. Lederberg
2. Fredrik Griffith
3. Edward L. Tatum
4. Norton Zinder

Explanation

In 1928 the bacteriologist Frederick Griffith demonstrated transformation in Mice using Diplococcus pneumoniae.

113. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Transformation in sexual reproduction of bacteria?

1. Transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another is called transformation. Two strains of this bacterium are present. One strain produces smooth colonies and are virulent in nature (S-type). In addition another strain produce rough colonies and are avirulent (R-type).
2. When S-type of cells were injected into the mouse, the mouse died. When R-type of cells were injected, the mouse survived. He injected heat killed S-type cells into the mouse. The mouse did not die. When the mixture of heat killed S-type cells and R-type cells were injected into the mouse, the mouse died.
3. The avirulent rough strain of Diplococcus had been transformed into S-type cells. The hereditary material of heat killed S-type cells had transformed R-type cell into virulent smooth strains. Thus, the phenomenon of changing the character of one strain by transferring the DNA of another strain into the former is called Transformation.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

114. In 1952 who discovered Transduction in Salmonella typhimurum?

1. Brenner and Lederberg
2. Gunther Avery and Smolinski
3. Zinder and Lederberg
4. Oswald and Brenner

Explanation

Zinder and Lederberg (1952) discovered Transduction in Salmonella typhimurum. Phage mediated DNA transfer is called Transduction. Transduction is of two types (i) The ability of a bacteriophage to carry genetic material of any region of bacterial DNA is called generalised transduction and (ii) The ability of the bacteriophage to carry only a specific region of the bacterial DNA is called specialized or restricted transduction.

115. Which among the following animal disease is incorrectly matched with its pathogen(bacteria)?

1. Anthrax (sheep) – Bacillus anthracis
2. Brucellosis (Cattle) – Brucella abortus
3. Bovine tuberculosis (Cattle) – Mycobacterium bovis
4. Black leg (Cattle) – Treponema pallidum

Explanation

Black leg (Cattle) – Clostridium chauvoei.

116. Scab disease in potato is caused by which bacteria?

1. Xanthomonas scabies
2. Streptomyces scabies
3. Bacillus scabies
4. Streptomyces scabies

Explanation

Scab disease in potato is caused by Streptomyces scabies.

117. Which among the following is not the Nitrogen fixation bacteria?

1. Escherichia
2. Azotobacter
3. Clostridium
4. Rhizobium

Explanation

Nitrogen fixation bacteria are 1. Azotobacter 2. Clostridium 3. Rhizobium.

118. Which synthesize PHB (Poly-β-hydroxyl butyrate) a microbial plastic which is biodegradable?

1. Ralstonia
2. Clostridium
3. Mycoides
4. Clostridium

Explanation

Bacteria forms Biofilms and leads to dental caries and Urinary tract infection (UTI). Ralstonia synthesize PHB (Poly-β-hydroxyl butyrate) a microbial plastic which is biodegradable.

119. Which among the following are primitive prokaryotes and are adapted to thrive in extreme environments like hot springs, high salinity, low pH and so on?

1. Archaebacteria
2. Cyanobacteria
3. Salmonella
4. Mycobacterium

Explanation

Archaebacteria are primitive prokaryotes and are adapted to thrive in extreme environments like hot springs, high salinity, low pH and so on. They are mostly chemoautotrophs. The unique feature of this group is the presence of lipids like glycerol & isopropyl ethers in their cell membrane. Due to the unique chemical composition the cell membrane show resistance against cell wall antibiotics and lytic agents. Example: Methanobacterium, Halobacterium, Thermoplasma.

120. Match the following disease along with its pathogen(Bacteria)

1. Plague – 1. Treponema pallidum
2. Food poisoning – 2. Mycobacterium leprae
3. Syphilis – 3. Yersinia pestis
4. Leprosy – 4. Clostridium botulinum
5. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
6. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
7. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
8. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

Explanation

1. Cholera – Vibrio cholerae, 2. Typhoid – Salmonella typhi, 3. Tuberculosis – Mycobacterium tuberculosis, 4. Leprosy – Mycobacterium leprae, 5. Pneumonia – Diplococcus pneumoniae, 6. Plague – Yersinia pestis, 7. Diphtheria – Corynebacterium diptheriae, 8. Tetanus – Clostridium tetani, 9. Food poisoning – Clostridium botulinum and 10. Syphilis – Treponema pallidum.

121. Intracellular chains of 40-50 magnetite (Fe₃O₄) particles are found in which bacterium?

1. Aquaspirillum magnetotacticum
2. Clostridium magnetotacticum
3. Lactobacillus magnetotacticum
4. Bacillus magnetotacticum

Explanation

Intracellular chains of 40-50 magnetite (Fe3O4) particles are found in bacterium Aquaspirillum magnetotacticum. and it help the bacterium to locate nutrient rich sediments. This is known as Magnetosomes.

122. Which among the following bacterium is not used to prepare probiotic yoghurt and tooth paste?

1. Lactobacillus
2. Bifidobacterium
3. Xanthomonas
4. None of the above

Explanation

Probiotic milk products and tooth paste are available in the market. Lactobacillus and Bifidobacterium are used to prepare probiotic yoghurt and tooth paste.

123. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Cyanobacteria (Blue Green Algae)

1. Stromatolites are deposits formed when colonies of cyanobacteria bind with magnesium sulphate. They have a geological age of 1.2 million years. Their abundance in the fossil record indicates that cyanobacteria helped in raising the level of free carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
2. Cyanobacteria are popularly called as ‘Blue green algae’ or ‘Cyanophyceae’. They are photosynthetic, prokaryotic organisms. According to evolutionary record Cyanobacteria are primitive forms and are found in different habitats. Most of them are fresh water and few are marine (Trichodesmium and Dermacarpa) Trichodesmium erythraeum a cyanobacterium imparts red colour to Red sea.
3. Species of Nostoc, Anabaena lead an endophytic life in the coralloid root of Cycas, leaves of aquatic fern Azolla by establishing a symbiotic association and fix atmospheric nitrogen. Members like Gloeocapsa, Nostoc, Scytonema are found as phycobionts in lichen thalli.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Stromatolites are deposits formed when colonies of cyanobacteria bind with calcium carbonate. They have a geological age of 2.7 billion years. Their abundance in the fossil record indicates that cyanobacteria helped in raising the level of free oxygen in the atmosphere.

124. Which among the following bacteria does not convert ammonium salts into nitrites and nitrates?

1. Nitrobacter
2. Nitrosomonas
3. Nitroparaffin
4. None of the above

Explanation

Nitrobacter and Nitrosomonas are the bacteria convert ammonium salts into nitrites and nitrates (Nitrification).

125. Which among the following bacteria convert complex proteins in the dead bodies of plants and animals into ammonia which is later converted into ammonium salt?

1. Bacillus licheniformis
2. Bacillus mycoides
3. Bacillus polymyxa
4. All the above

Explanation

Bacillus ramosus and Bacillus mycoides are bacteria that convert complex proteins in the dead bodies of plants and animals into ammonia which is later converted into ammonium salt.

126. Match the following antibiotics with its respective bacteria?

1. Aureomycin – 1. Bacillus licheniformis
2. Chloromycetin – 2. Streptomyces aureofaciens
3. Bacitracin – 3. Streptomyces venezuelae
4. Polymyxin – 4. Bacillus polymyxa
5. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
6. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1
7. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
8. 3 – 4 – 2 – 1

Explanation

1. Streptomycin – Streptomyces griseus 2. Aureomycin – Streptomyces aureofaciens 3. Chloromycetin – Streptomyces venezuelae 4. Bacitracin – Bacillus licheniformis 5. Polymyxin – Bacillus polymyxa.

127. Which among the following statement is correct regarding cyanobacteria?

1. The members of cyanobacteria are prokaryotes and lack motile reproductive structures. The thallus is unicellular in Chroococcus, Colonial in Gloeocapsa and filamentous trichome in Nostoc. Gliding movement is noticed in some species (Oscillatoria). The protoplasm is differentiated into central region called centroplasm and peripheral region bearing chromatophore called chromoplasm.
2. The photosynthetic pigments include c-phyocyanin and c-phycoerythrin along with myxoxanthin and myxoxanthophyll. The reserve food material is Cyanophycean starch. In some forms a large colourless cell is found in the terminal or intercalary position called Heterocysts. They are involved in nitrogen fixation. They reproduce only through vegetative methods and produce Akinetes, Hormogonia, fission and endospores.
3. The presence of mucilage around the thallus is characteristic feature of this group. Therefore, this group is also called Myxophyceae. Sexual reproduction is absent. Microcystis aeruginosa, Anabaena flos-aquae cause water blooms and release toxins and affect the aquatic organism.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

128. Which is a superbug genetically engineered which breakdown hydrocarbons?

1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2. Pseudomonas putida
3. Thermus aquaticus
4. Methylophilus methylotrophus

Explanation

Pseudomonas putida is a superbug genetically engineered which breakdown hydrocarbons.

129. Which among the following is a portion of filament get detached and reproduce by cell division in cyanobacteria?

1. Pruteen
2. Hormogonia
3. Akinetes
4. All the above

Explanation

Hormogonia is a portion of filament get detached and reproduce by cell division and Akinetes is thick wall dormant cell formed from vegetative cell.

130. A prokaryote take a joy ride in which among the following animal?

1. Elephant
2. Dolphin
3. Polar bear
4. Jaguar

Explanation

A prokaryote takes a joy ride on polar bear (Aphanocapsa montana – a cyanobacterium grow on the fur of polar bear). Most of cyanobacterium fix atmospheric nitrogen and are used as biofertilizers (Example: Nostoc, Anabaena). Spirulina is rich in protein hence it is used as single cell protein.

131. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Mycoplasma or Mollicutes

1. The Mycoplasma are very small (0.1–0.5µm), pleomorphic gram-negative microorganisms. They are first isolated by Nocard and coworkers in the year 1898 from pleural fluid of cattle affected with bovine pleuropneumonia. They lack cell wall and appear like “Fried Egg” in culture.
2. The DNA contains high Guanine and Cytosine content than true bacteria. They cause disease in virus and plants. Little leaf of brinjal, witches’ broom of legumes phyllody of cloves, sandal spike are some plant diseases caused by mycoplasma. Pleuropneumonia is caused by virus host Mycoplasma mycoides.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The DNA contains low Guanine and Cytosine content than true bacteria. They cause disease in animals and plants. Little leaf of brinjal, witches’ broom of legumes phyllody of cloves, sandal spike are some plant diseases caused by mycoplasma. Pleuropneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma mycoides.

132. Which is a single cell protein derived from Methylophilus methylotrophus?

1. Heterocyst
2. Pruteen
3. Thermus
4. Copid

Explanation

“Pruteen” is a single cell protein derived from Methylophilus methylotrophus.

133. Due e to their mycelia like growth actinomycetes are also called ____

1. Skey fungi
2. Lice fungi
3. Ray fungi
4. Stew fungi

Explanation

Actinomycetes are also called ‘Ray fungi’ due to their mycelia like growth.

134. Which bacteria cause crown gall disease in plants but its inherent tumour inducing principle helps to carry the desired gene into the plant through Genetic engineering?

1. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
2. Thermus aquaticus
3. Methanobacterium
4. Acetobacter aceti

Explanation

Agrobacterium tumefaciens cause crown gall disease in plants but its inherent tumour inducing principle helps to carry the desired gene into the plant through Genetic engineering.

135. Which among the following statement is correct regarding actinomycetes?

1. Actinomycetes are anaerobic or facultative anaerobic microorganisms and are Gram positive. They do not produce an aerial mycelium. Their DNA contains high guanine and cytosine content (Example: Streptomyces).
2. Frankia is a symbiotic actinobacterium which produces root nodules and fixes oxygen in non – leguminous plants such as Alnus and Casuarina. They produce unicellular sporangium. Actinomyces bovis grows in nasal cavities and cause lumpy nose.
3. Streptomyces is a mycelial forming Actinobacteria which lives in soil, they impart “earthy odour” to soil after rain which is due to the presence of Geosmin (volatile organic compound). Some important antibiotics namely, Streptomycin, Chloramphenicol, and Tetracycline are produced from this genus.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Frankia is a symbiotic actinobacterium which produces root nodules and fixes nitrogen in non – leguminous plants such as Alnus and Casuarina. They produce multicellular sporangium. Actinomyces bovis grows in oral cavities and cause lumpy jaw.

136. Which is a thermophilic gram-negative bacterium which produces Taq Polymerase a key enzyme for Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)?

1. Erwinia amylovora
2. Xanthomonas oryzae
3. Streptomyces scabies
4. Thermus aquaticus

Explanation

Thermus aquaticus is a thermophilic gram-negative bacterium which produces Taq Polymerase a key enzyme for Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR).

137. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. Gram positive Bacteria cell wall is thick layered with (0.015 µm-0.02µm) rigid due to presence of Peptidoglycans. It has Peptidoglycans-80% Polysaccharide-20% Teichoic acid present. Outer membrane and Periplasmic space are absent. Lipid and lipoproteins are Low. Lipopolysaccharides are Absent. Highly Susceptibility to penicillin.
2. Gram negative Bacteria cell wall is thich layered with (0.75µm–0.120µm) rigid due to presence of lipoprotein-polysaccharide mixture. It has Peptidoglycans-3 to 12% rest is polysaccharides and lipoproteins. Teichoic acid absent. Outer membrane and Periplasmic space are absent. Lipid and lipoproteins are high. Lipopolysaccharides are present. high susceptible to penicillin.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Gram negative Bacteria cell wall is thin layered with (0.0075µm–0.012µm) elastic due to presence of lipoprotein-polysaccharide mixture. It has Peptidoglycans-3 to 12% rest is polysaccharides and lipoproteins. Teichoic acid absent. Outer membrane and Periplasmic space are present. Lipid and lipoproteins are high. Lipopolysaccharides are present. Low susceptible to penicillin.

138. Which among the following bacteria is employed in biogas production?

1. Clostridiumbacterium
2. Nitrobacter
3. Streptomyces griseus
4. Methanobacterium

Explanation

Methanobacterium is employed in biogas production.

139. Which is an extremophilic bacterium grows in high salinity and is exploited for the production β carotene?

1. Halobacterium
2. Azotobacter
3. Clostridium
4. All the above

Explanation

Halobacterium, an extremophilic bacterium grows in high salinity. It is exploited for the production β carotene.

140. Who discovered penicillin in the year 1928 is a serendipity in the world of medicine?

1. Howard Florey
2. Alexander Fleming
3. Louis Pasteur
4. Robert Koch

Explanation

Discovery of Penicillin in the year 1928 is a serendipity in the world of medicine. The History of World War II recorded the use of Penicillin in the form of yellow powder to save lives of soldiers. For this discovery – The wonderful antibiotic he shared Nobel Prize in Medicine in the year 1945 along with Ernest Boris chain and Sir Howard Walter Florey.

141. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Fungi?

1. Ubiquitous
2. Prokaryotic
3. Achlorophyllous heterotrophic
4. Exist in unicellular or multicellular

Explanation

The word ‘fungus’ is derived from Latin meaning ‘mushroom’. Fungi are ubiquitous, eukaryotic, achlorophyllous heterotrophic organisms. They exist in unicellular or multicellular forms.

142. The study of fungi is called ____

1. Mycology
2. Semiology
3. Karyology
4. Ethology

Explanation

The study of fungi is called mycology. (Gr. mykes – mushroom: logos – study).

143. Who among the following is considered as founder of Mycology?

1. Fontana
2. C.H. Blackley
3. P.A. Micheli
4. A.F. Blakeslee

Explanation

P.A. Micheli is considered as founder of Mycology. Few renowned mycologists include Arthur H.R. Buller, John Webster, D.L.Hawksworth, G.C.Ainsworth, B.B.Mundkur, K.C.Mehta, C.V. Subramanian and T.S. Sadasivan.

144. Majority of fungi are made up of thin, filamentous branched structures called ____

1. Hirples
2. Hyphae
3. Albugo
4. Holomorph

Explanation

Majority of fungi are made up of thin, filamentous branched structures called Hyphae. A number of hyphae get interwoven to form mycelium.

145. is the Father of Indian Mycology?

1. C.V. Subramanian
2. T.S. Sadasivan
3. John Weber
4. E.J. Butler

Explanation

E.J. Butler is the Father of Indian Mycology. He published a book, ‘Fungi and Disease in Plants’ on Indian plant diseases in the year 1918.

146. The cell wall of fungi is made up of a polysaccharide called ___

1. Conidia
2. Allomyces
3. Chitin
4. Glucan

Explanation

The cell wall of fungi is made up of a polysaccharide called chitin (polymer of N-acetyl glucosamine) and fungal cellulose.

147. In which state E.J. Butler established Imperial Agricultural Research Institute?

1. West Bengal
2. Kerala
3. Bihar
4. Maharashtra

Explanation

E.J. Butler established Imperial Agricultural Research Institute at Pusa, Bihar. It was later shifted to New Delhi and at present known as Indian Agricultural Research Insitute (IARI).

148. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The fungal mycelium is categorised into two types based on the presence or absence of septa. In lower fungi the hypha is aseptate, multinucleate and is known as coenocytic mycelium (Example: Albugo). In higher fungi a septum is present between the cells of the hyphae. Example: Fusarium.
2. The mycelium is organised into loosely or compactly interwoven fungal tissues called promithesia. It is further divided into three types prosenchyma, poliventacular and pseudoparenchyma. In the former type the hyphae are arranged tight but parallel to one another. In the latter hyphae are loosely arranged and lose their identity.
3. In holocarpic forms the entire thallus is converted into reproductive structure whereas in Eucarpic some regions of the thallus are involved in the reproduction other regions remain vegetative.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The mycelium is organised into loosely or compactly interwoven fungal tissues called plectenchyma. It is further divided into two types prosenchyma and pseudoparenchyma. In the former type the hyphae are arranged loosely but parallel to one another. In the latter hyphae are compactly arranged and lose their identity.

149. The sexual phase of Fungi is called ____

1. Anamorph
2. Holomorph
3. Teleomorph
4. All the above

Explanation

Fungi reproduce both by asexual and sexual methods. The asexual phase is called Anamorph and the sexual phase is called Teleomorph. Fungi having both phases are called Holomorph.

150. Who proved that Fungi could cause disease in plants in 1767?

1. Fontana
2. C.H. Blackley
3. Pontecorvo
4. A.F. Blakeslee

Explanation

In 1767 Fontana proved that Fungi could cause disease in plants.

151. Fusion of nuclei in sexual reproduction of fungi is known as _____

1. Plasmogamy
2. Karyogamy
3. Hologamy
4. Endogamy

Explanation

Fusion of nuclei in sexual reproduction of fungi is known as Karyogamy.

152. Who among the following proved fungi could cause allergy in Human beings in 1873?

1. D.L. Hawksworth
2. C.H. Blackley
3. E.J. Butler
4. John Webster

Explanation

In 1873 C.H. Blackley proved fungi could cause allergy in Human beings.

153. Which among the following step is not included in sexual reproduction in fungi?

1. Fusion of two protoplasts
2. Fusion of nuclei
3. Production of haploid spores through meiosis
4. None of the above

Explanation

General sexual reproduction in fungi includes three steps 1. Fusion of two protoplasts (plasmogamy) 2. Fusion of nuclei (karyogamy) and 3. Production of haploid spores through meiosis.

154. Which among the following is not the asexual reproduction of Fungi?

1. Zoospores
2. Budding
3. Fission
4. Somatogamy

Explanation

Asexual reproduction of fungus are 1. Zoospores, 2. Conidia, 3. Oidia/Arthrospores, 4. Fission, 5. Budding and 6. Chlamydospore.

155. In Asexual reproduction of fungi, Thick-walled resting spores are called ____

1. Zoospores
2. Arthrospores
3. Chlamydospore
4. Thallospores

Explanation

Thick-walled resting spores are called chlamydospores (Example: Fusarium).

156. Match the following Asexual reproduction in fungi with its example?

1. Zoospores – 1. Penicillium
2. Conidia – 2. Schizosaccharomyces-yeast
3. Oidia – 3. Chytrids
4. Fission – 4. Saccharomyces-yeast
5. Budding – 5. Erysiphe
6. 5 – 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
7. 4 – 5 – 2 – 1 – 3
8. 3 – 1 – 5 – 2 – 4
9. 2 – 1 – 5 – 3 – 4

Explanation

1. Zoospores: They are flagellate structures produced in zoosporangia (Example: Chytrids). 2. Conidia: The spores produced on condiophores (Example: Aspergillus, Penicillium). 3. Oidia/Thallospores/Arthrospores: The hypha divided and developed in to spores called oidia (Example: Erysiphe). 4. Fission: The vegetative cell divides into 2 daughter cells. (Example: Schizosaccharomyces-yeast). 5. Budding: A small outgrowth is developed on parent cell, which gets detached and becomes independent. (Example: Saccharomyces-yeast.

157. Which among the following is not the sexual reproduction of Fungi?

1. Planogametic copulation
2. Gametangial contact
3. Spermatization
4. None of the above

Explanation

The sexual reproduction of Fungi are 1. Planogametic copulation, 2. Gametangial copulation, 3. Gametangial contact, 4. Spermatization and 5. Somatogamy.

158. Which among the following sexual reproduction in fungi is wrongly matched with its example

1. Isogamy – Synchytrium
2. Anisogamy – Monoblepharis
3. Oogamy – Allomyces
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Planogametic copulation: Fusion of motile gamete is called planogametic copulation. a. Isogamy – Fusion of morphologically and physiologicall similar gametes. (Example: Synchytrium). b. Anisogamy – Fusion of morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes (Example: Allomyces). c. Oogamy – Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes. (Example: Monoblepharis).

159. In which sexual reproduction in fungus a contact is established between antheridium and Oogonium?

1. Gametangial copulation
2. Gametangial contact
3. Spermatization
4. Somatogamy

Explanation

Gametangial contact: During sexual reproduction a contact is established between antheridium and Oogonium (Example: Albugo).

160. Who reported first heterothallism in fungi in 1904?

1. A.F. Blakeslee
2. D.L. Hawksworth
3. E.J. Butler
4. John Webster

Explanation

In 1904 A.F.Blakeslee first reported heterothallism in fungi.

161. Which among the following is not the example of Gametangial copulation?

1. Mucor
2. Rhizopus
3. Puccinia
4. None of the above

Explanation

Gametangial copulation: Fusion of gametangia to form zygospore (Example: Mucor, Rhizopus).

162. Who among the following reported Parasexual cycle in fungi in 1952?

1. Pontecorvo and Roper
2. Blackley and Fontana
3. Micheli and Butler
4. Martin and George

Explanation

In 1952 Pontecorvo and Roper reported Parasexual cycle in fungi.

163. Which among the following is the not example of spermatization?

1. Puccinia
2. Neurospora
3. Agaricus
4. None of the above

Explanation

Spermatization: In this method a uninucleate pycniospore/microconidium is transferred to receptive hyphal cell (Example: Puccinia, Neurospora).

Somatogamy: Fusion of two somatic cells of the hyphae (Example: Agaricus).

164. Traditional classifications categorise fungi into how many classes?

1. Three
2. Four
3. Six
4. Nine

Explanation

Many mycologists have attempted to classify fungi based on vegetative and reproductive characters. Traditional classifications categorise fungi into 4 classes – Phycomycetes, Ascomycetes, Basidiomycetes and Deuteromycetes.

165. Which among the following classes of traditional classification include fungal species of Oomycetes, Chytridiomycetes and Zygomycetes which are considered as lower fungi indicating algal origin of fungi?

1. Phycomycetes
2. Ascomycetes
3. Basidiomycetes
4. Deuteromycetes.

Explanation

Among the classes of traditional classification ‘Phycomycetes’ include fungal species of Oomycetes, Chytridiomycetes and Zygomycetes which are considered as lower fungi indicating algal origin of fungi.

166. Who among the following in the year 1979 proposed the classification of fungi in the book entitled ‘Introductory Mycology’?

1. Chester Benjamin and Robert Joseph Bandoni
2. Robert John Bandoni and Hendry Cowles
3. George William Martin and Harold C. Bold
4. Constantine J. Alexopoulos and Charles W. Mims

Explanation

Constantine J. Alexopoulos and Charles W. Mims in the year 1979 proposed the classification of fungi in the book entitled ‘Introductory Mycology’. They classified fungi into three divisions namely Gymnomycota, Mastigomycota and Amastigomycota. There are 8 subdivisions, 11 classes, 1 form class and 3 form subclasses in the classification proposed by them.

167. Which among the following is the example of Oomycetes?

1. Mucor
2. Rhizopus
3. Albugo
4. Pilobolus

Explanation

Coenocytic mycelium is present. The cell wall is made up of Glucan and Cellulose. Zoospore with one whiplash and one tinsel flagellum is present. Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Example: Albugo.

168. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Zygomycetes?

1. Most of the species are saprophytic and live on healthy plant and animal matter in the soil. Some lead parasitic life (Example: Entomophthora on dolphin). Bread mold fungi (Example: Mucor, Rhizopus) and coprophilous fungi (Fungi growing on banana Example: Pilobolus) belong to this group
2. The mycelium is branched and coenocytic. Asexual reproduction by means of spores produced in sporangia. Sexual reproduction is by the fusion of the gametangia which results in thick walled zygospore. It remains dormant for long periods. The zygospore undergoes meiosis and produce spores.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Most of the species are saprophytic and live on decaying plant and animal matter in the soil. Some lead parasitic life (Example: Entomophthora on housefly). Bread mold fungi (Example: Mucor, Rhizopus) and coprophilous fungi (Fungi growing on dung Example: Pilobolus) belong to this group.

169. Which bacteria living in the intestine of human beings produce large quantities of vitamin K and vitamin B complex?

1. Clostridium tertium
2. Acetobacter aceti
3. Escherichia coli
4. Bacillus polymyxa

Explanation

Escherichia coli living in the intestine of human beings produce large quantities of vitamin K and vitamin B complex.

170. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Ascomycetes include a wide range of fungi such as yeasts, powdery mildews, cup fungi, morels and so on. Although majority of the species live in aquatic environment exclusively in fresh water, some live-in terrestrial environments. The mycelium is well developed, branched with complex septum.
2. Majority of them are saprophytes but few parasites are also known (Powdery mildew – Erysiphe). Asexual reproduction takes place by fission, budding, oidia, conidia, and chlamydospore. Sexual reproduction takes place by the fusion of two compatible nuclei Plasmogamy is not immediately followed by karyogamy, instead a dikaryotic condition is prolonged for several generations
3. A special-hyphae called ascogenous hyphae is formed. A crozier is formed when the tip of the ascogenous hyphae recurves forming a hooked cell. The two nuclei in the penultimate cell of the hypha fuse to form a diploid nucleus. This cell forms young ascus. The diploid nucleus undergoes meiotic division to produce four haploid nuclei, which further divide mitotically to form eight nuclei. The nucleus gets organised into 8 ascospores.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ascomycetes include a wide range of fungi such as yeasts, powdery mildews, cup fungi, morels and so on. Although majority of the species live in terrestrial environment, some live-in aquatic environments both fresh water and marine. The mycelium is well developed, branched with simple septum.

171. The ascospores are found inside a bag like structure called ascus. Due to the presence of ascus, this group is popularly called ___

1. Cave fungi
2. Sac fungi
3. Plot fungi
4. All the above

Explanation

The ascospores are found inside a bag like structure called ascus. Due to the presence of ascus, this group is popularly called “Sac fungi”. Asci gets surrounded by sterile hyphae forming fruit body called ascocarp.

172. Which among the following is not the type of ascocarps?

1. Cleistothecium
2. Perithecium
3. Apothecium
4. Pycnidium

Explanation

There are 4 types of ascocarps namely Cleistothecium (Completely closed), Perithecium (Flask shaped with ostiole), Apothecium (Cup shaped, open type) and Pseudothecium.

173. Which among bacteria are used to produce Alcohols and acetones from molasses by fermentation activity?

1. Micrococcus candicans
2. Clostridium acetobutylicum
3. Acetobacter aceti
4. Lactobacillus bulgaricus

Explanation

Clostridium acetobutylicum are used to produce Alcohols and acetones from molasses by fermentation activity of the anaerobic bacterium.

174. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Basidiomycetes (classes of fungi)?

1. Basidiomycetes include puff balls, toad stools, Bird’s nest fungi, Bracket fungi, stink horns, rusts and smuts. The members are terrestrial and lead a saprophytic and parasitic mode of life. he mycelium is well developed, septate with dolipore septum(bracket like). Three types of mycelium namely primary (Monokaryotic), secondary (Dikaryotic) and tertiary are found
2. Clamp connections are formed to maintain dikaryotic condition. Asexual reproduction is by means of conidia, oidia or budding. Sexual reproduction is present but sex organs are absent. Somatogamy or spermatisation results in plasmogamy. Karyogamy is delayed and dikaryotic phase is prolonged. Karyogamy takes place in basidium and it is immediately followed by meiotic division.
3. The six nuclei thus formed are transformed into basidiospores which are borne on sterigmata inside the basidium (Endogenous). The basidium is club shaped with six basidiospores, thus this group of fungi is popularly called “star fungi”. The fruit body formed is called Basidiocarp.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The four nuclei thus formed are transformed into basidiospores which are borne on sterigmata outside the basidium (Exogenous). The basidium is club shaped with four basidiospores, thus this group of fungi is popularly called “Club fungi”. The fruit body formed is called Basidiocarp.

175. Which among the following bacteria oxidizes ethyl alcohol obtained from molasses by fermentation to vinegar (acetic acid)?

1. Micrococcus candicans
2. Bacillus megatherium
3. Acetobacter aceti
4. Lactobacillus bulgaricus

Explanation

Acetobacter aceti bacteria oxidizes ethyl alcohol obtained from molasses by fermentation to vinegar (acetic acid).

176. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Deuteromycetes?

1. The fungi belonging to this group have excellent sexual reproduction and are called perfect fungi. A large number of species live as saprophytes in soil and many are plant and animal parasites. Sexual reproduction takes place by the production of conidia, chlamydospores, budding, oidia etc.,
2. Conidia are also produced in special structures called pycnidium, acervulus, sporodochium and synnemata. Parasexual cycle operates in this group of fungi. This brings genetic variation among the species.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The fungi belonging to this group lack sexual reproduction and are called imperfect fungi. A large number of species live as saprophytes in soil and many are plant and animal parasites. Asexual reproduction takes place by the production of conidia, chlamydospores, budding, oidia etc.,

177. Dairy industry is based on a single celled fungus called ____

1. Ergot
2. Mushroom
3. Yeast
4. All the above

Explanation

Fungi provide delicious and nutritious food called mushrooms. They recycle the minerals by decomposing the litter thus adding fertility to the soil. Dairy industry is based on a single celled fungus called yeast. They deteriorate the timber. Fungi cause food poisoning due the production of toxins.

178. The fibres from the fibre yielding plants are separated by the action of Clostridium is called ___

1. Slitting of fibres
2. Retting of fibres
3. Settling of fibres
4. Marsh of fibres

Explanation

The fibres from the fibre yielding plants are separated by the action of Clostridium is called retting of fibres. Bacteria used is Clostridium tertium.

179. Which among the following statement regarding benefits of fungi is correct

1. Food: Mushrooms like Lentinus edodes, Agaricus bisporus, Volvariella volvaceae are consumed for their high nutritive value. Yeasts provide vitamin B and Eremothecium ashbyii is a rich source of Vitamin B₁₂.
2. Medicine: Fungi produce antibiotics which arrest the growth or destroy the bacteria. Some of the antibiotics produced by fungi include Penicillin (Penicillium notatum) Cephalosporins (Acremonium chrysogenum) Griseofulvin (Penicillium griseofulvum). Ergot alkaloids (Ergotamine) produced by Claviceps purpurea is used as vasoconstrictors.
3. Production of Organic acid: For the commercial production of organic acids fungi are employed in the Industries. Some of the organic acids and fungi which help in the production of organic acids are: citric acid and gluconic acid – Aspergillus niger, Itaconic acid – Aspergillus terreus, Kojic acid – Aspergillus oryzae.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

180. Which among the following Antibiotics is wrongly matched with its role?

1. Streptomycin – It cures urinary infections, tuberculosis, meningitis and pneumonia
2. Aureomycin – It is used as a medicine to treat whooping cough and eye infections
3. Chloromycetin – It is used to treat syphilis
4. Polymyxin – It cure some bacterial diseases

Explanation

1. Streptomycin – It cures urinary infections, tuberculosis, meningitis and pneumonia 2. Aureomycin – It is used as a medicine to treat whooping cough and eye infections 3. Chloromycetin – It cure typhoid fever 4. Bacitracin – It is used to treat syphilis’ 5. Polymyxin – It cure some bacterial diseases.

181. Which among the following fungi is not used in cheese production.?

1. Penicillium roquefortii
2. Penicillium camemberti
3. Penicillium notatum
4. None of the above

Explanation

Yeast is used for fermentation of sugars to yield alcohol.Bakeries utilize yeast for the production of Bakery products like Bread, buns, rolls etc., Penicillium roquefortii and Penicillium camemberti were employed in cheese production.

182. Yeast is also called as ____

1. Beauveria bassiana
2. Saccharomyces cerevisiae
3. Helminthosporium oryzae
4. Metarhizium anisopliae

Explanation

Yeast is also called as Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

183. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding benefits of fungi

1. Production of enzymes: Aspergillus oryzae, Aspergillus niger were employed in the production of enzymes like amylase, protease, lactase etc. Rennet which helps in the coagulation of milk in cheese manufacturing is derived from Mucor spp.
2. Agriculture: Mycorrhiza forming fungi like Rhizoctonia, Phallus, Scleroderma helps in absorption of water and minerals. Fungi like Beauveria bassiana, Metarhizium anisopliae are used as Biopesticides to eradicate the pests of crops. Gibberellin, produced by a fungus Gibberella fujikuroi induce the plant growth and is used as growth promoter.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

184. Fungi like Amanita phalloides, Amanita verna, Boletus satanus are highly poisonous due to the production of Toxins. These fungi are commonly referred as ____

1. Virgin stools
2. Plato stools
3. Toad stools
4. Cavalry stools

Explanation

Fungi like Amanita phalloides, Amanita verna, Boletus satanus are highly poisonous due to the production of Toxins. These fungi are commonly referred as “Toad stools”.

185. Match the following plant disease with its causal organism (fungi)

1. Blast of Paddy – 1. Colletotrichum lindemuthianum
2. Red rot of sugarcane – 2. Taphrina deformans
3. Anthracnose of Beans – 3. Colletotrichum falcatum
4. White rust of crucifers – 4. Albugo candida
5. Peach leaf curl – 5. Magnaporthe grisea
6. 5 – 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
7. 4 – 2 – 5 – 1 – 3
8. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2 – 5
9. 2 – 5 – 3 – 1 – 2

Explanation

1. Blast of Paddy – Magnaporthe grisea, 2. Red rot of sugarcane – Colletotrichum falcatum, 3. Anthracnose of Beans – Colletotrichum lindemuthianum, 4. White rust of crucifers – Albugo candida and 5. Peach leaf curl – Taphrina deformans.

186. Which among the following organism (Fungi) cause disease Rust of wheat?

1. Epidermophyton floccosum
2. Candida albicans
3. Puccinia graminis tritici
4. Aspergillus fumigatus

Explanation

Rust of wheat is caused by fungi called Puccinia graminis tritici.

187. Aspergillus flavus infest dried foods and produce carcinogenic toxin called ____

1. Rhizopus
2. Mucor toxin
3. Aflatoxin
4. None of the above

Explanation

Aspergillus, Rhizopus, Mucor and Penicilium are involved in spoilage of food materials. Aspergillus flavus infest dried foods and produce carcinogenic toxin called aflatoxin. Patulin, ochratoxin A are some of the toxins produced by fungi.Fungi cause diseases in Human beings and plants.

188. Which among the following organism (Fungi) cause Athlete’s foot?

1. Coccidioides immitis
2. Epidermophyton floccosum
3. Candida albicans
4. Aspergillus fumigatus

Explanation

1. Athlete’s foot – Epidermophyton floccosum, 2. Candidiasis – Candida albicans, 3. Coccidioidomycosis – Coccidioides immitis and 4. Aspergillosis – Aspergillus fumigatus.

189. The Fungi which cause infection in skin are known as ____

1. Tracheophytes
2. Gametophytes
3. Dermatophytes
4. Thallophytes

Explanation

Dermatophytes are fungi which cause infection in skin. Example: Trichophyton, Tinea, Microsporum and Epidermophyton.

190. Which fungus caused late blight disease of Potato, which caused a million deaths, and drove more to emigrate from Ireland (1843-1845)?

1. Phytophthora infestans
2. Helminthosporium oryzae
3. Taphrina deformans
4. Puccinia graminis tritici

Explanation

The late blight disease of Potato by Phytophthora infestans caused a million deaths, and drove more to emigrate from Ireland (1843-1845).

191. In India which organism caused, Blight of Paddy is also a factor for Bengal famine in 1942-1943?

1. Magnaporthe grisea
2. Helminthosporium oryzae
3. Taphrina deformans
4. Puccinia graminis tritici

Explanation

In India Helminthosporium oryzae, Blight of Paddy is also a factor for Bengal famine in 1942-1943.

192. The symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of plants is called as ___

1. Mycorrhizae
2. Coleorhizae
3. Chalazae
4. All the above

Explanation

The symbiotic association between fungal mycelium and roots of plants is called as mycorrhizae. In this relationship fungi absorb nutrition from the root and in turn the hyphal network of mycorrhizae forming fungi helps the plant to absorb water and mineral nutrients from the soil.

193. Which among the following is not the classification of Mycorrhizae?

1. Ectomycorrhizae
2. Endomycorrhizae
3. Epsomycorrhizae
4. Ectendomycorrhizae

Explanation

Mycorrhizae is classified into three types 1. Ectomycorrhizae, 2. Endomycorrhizae and 3. Ectendomycorrhizae.

194. In Ectomycorrhizae the fungal myceli um forms a dense sheath around the root called ___

1. Mantel
2. Shoot
3. Carp
4. Clad

Explanation

In Ectomycorrhizae e fungal mycelium forms a dense sheath around the root called mantle. The hyphal network penetrates the intercellular spaces of the epidermis and cortex to form Hartig net. Example: Pisolithus tinctorius.

195. In Endomycorrhizae hyphae grows mainly inside the roots, penetrate the outer cortical cells of the plant root and small portion of the mycelium is found outside the root. This form is also called ___________

1. XAM Fungi
2. CAM Fungi
3. RAM Fungi
4. VAM Fungi

Explanation

The hyphae grow mainly inside the roots, penetrate the outer cortical cells of the plant root. A small portion of the mycelium is found outside the root. This form is also called Vesicular Arbuscular Mycorrhizal fungi (VAM Fungi) due to the presence of Vesicle or arbuscle like haustoria. 1. Arbuscular mycorrhizae (AM) Example: Gigaspora 2. Ericoid mycorrhizae -Example: Oidiodendron 3. Orchid mycorrhizae -Example: Rhizoctonia.

196. The symbiotic association between algae and fungi is called ____

1. Rennet
2. Lichens
3. Mosses
4. All the above

Explanation

The symbiotic association between algae and fungi is called lichens.

197. In lichens the fungal partner is called ____

1. Phycobiont
2. Photobiont
3. Mycobiont
4. Leprose

Explanation

In lichen algal partner is called Phycobiont or Photobiont., and the fungal partner is called Mycobiont. Algae provide nutrition for fungal partner in turn fungi provide protection and also help to fix the thallus to the substratum through rhizinae. Asexual reproduction takes place through fragmentation, Soredia and Isidia. Phycobionts reproduce by akinetes, hormogonia, aplanospore etc., Mycobionts undergo sexual reproduction and produce ascocarps.

198. Which among the following statement is correct regarding classification of lichens?

1. Based on the habitat lichens are classified into following types: Corticolous(on Bark) Lignicolous(on Wood) Saxicolous(on rocks) Terricolous(on ground) Marine(on siliceous rocks of sea) Fresh water(on siliceous rock of fresh water).
2. On the basis of morphology of the thallus they are divided into Leprose (a distinct fungal layer is absent) Crustose-crust like; Foliose-leaf like; Fruticose- branched pendulous shrub like.
3. The distribution of algal cells distinguishes lichens into three forms namely Homoiomerous, polymerous and Heteromerous (a distinct layer of algae and fungi present). If the fungal partner of lichen belongs to ascomycetes, it is called Cacylichen and if it is basidiomycetes, it is called Basidiolichen.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The distribution of algal cells distinguishes lichens into two forms namely Homoiomerous (Algal cells evenly distributed in the thallus) and Heteromerous (a distinct layer of algae and fungi present). If the fungal partner of lichen belongs to ascomycetes, it is called Ascolichen and if it is basidiomycetes, it is called Basidiolichen.

199. The dye present in litmus paper used as acid base indicator in the laboratories is obtained from which fungi?

1. Cladonia rangiferina
2. Ericoid mycorrhiza
3. Roccella montagnei
4. Magnaporthe grisea

Explanation

The dye present in litmus paper used as acid base indicator in the laboratories is obtained from Roccella montagnei. Cladonia rangiferina (Reindeer mose) is used as food for animals living in Tundra regions.

200. Which acid produced from lichens show antibiotic properties?

1. Oxalic acid
2. Usnic acid
3. Formic acid
4. Malic acid

Explanation

Usnic acid produced from lichens show antibiotic properties.

201. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding growth?

a) Growth is an extrinsic property of all living and non-living organisms.

b) In animals growth is definite and occurs for some period.

c) Unicellular and multicellular organisms grow by cell division.

d) In plants, growth is indefinite and occurs throughout their life.

Explanation

Growth is an intrinsic property of all living organisms through which they can increase cells both in number and mass. Unicellular and multicellular organisms grow by cell division. In plants, growth is indefinite and occurs throughout their life. In animals, growth is definite and occurs for some period.

202. Choose the correct statements.

i) Prokaryotes are multicellular.

ii) Unicellular eukaryotes are Oedogonium.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Prokaryotes are unicellular, lack membrane bound nuclei and organelles like mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi bodies and so on (Example: Bacteria and Blue green algae). In Eukaryotes a definite nucleus and membrane bound organelles are present. Eukaryotes may be unicellular (Amoeba) or multicellular (Oedogonium).

203. Which of this living organism are exceptions in asexual reproduction?

a) Mules

b) Penicillium

c) Hydra

d) Frog

Explanation

Asexual reproduction in living organisms occurs by the production of conidia (Aspergillus, Penicillium), budding (Hydra and Yeast), binary fission (Bacteria and Amoeba) fragmentation (Spirogyra), and protonema (Mosses) and regeneration (Planaria). Exceptions are the sterile worker bees and mules.

204. What is called as irritability?

a) Maintaining a steady state with an external environment.

b) Asexual reproduction methods.

c) Plants response to stimuli.

d) All the above

Explanation

Plants also respond to the stimuli. Bending of plants towards sunlight, the closure of leaves in touch-me-not plant to touch are some examples for response to stimuli in plants. This type of response is called Irritability.

205. Assertion (A): Homeostasis is self-regulation and tendency to maintain a steady state externally.

Reasoning(R): Living organisms maintain internal conditions to survive in the environment.

a) A is correct; R explains about A.

b) A is wrong; R is correct.

c) A and R is wrong.

d) A is correct; R does not explains about A.

Explanation

Property of self-regulation and tendency to maintain a steady state within an external environment which is liable to change is called Homeostasis. It is essential for the living organism to maintain internal condition to survive in the environment.

206. Which of the following statement is correct?

i) Anabolism is a breaking down process.

ii) Larger molecules are broke into smaller units in catabolism.

iii) Chemical energy is formed and stored in catabolism.

iv) Synthesizing of proteins from amino acids is an example of anabolism.

a) ii, iv only

b) i, iii, iv only

c) i and iv only

d) iii, iv only

Explanation

207. What is the meaning of the word virus in Latin?

a) Poison

b) Ubiquitous

c) Real

d) Small

Explanation

The word virus is derived from Latin meaning ‘Poison’. Viruses are sub-microscopic, obligate intracellular parasites. They have nucleic acid core surrounded by protein coat.

208. Identify the Incorrect match.

A. Dimitry Ivanowsky i) Viruses are smaller than bacteria.

B. Robert Gallo ii) Infectious agents in tobacco leaves

C. D’Herelle iii) Bacteriophage

D. F.W.Twort iv) Viral infection in bacteria.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

Dimitry Ivanowsky proved that viruses are smaller than bacteria. In 1898 M.W. Beijierink defined the infectious agent in tobacco leaves as ῾Contagium vivum fluidum’ . In 1915 F.W.Twort identified viral infection in Bacteria. In 1917 d’Herelle coined the term ‘Bacteriophage’. In 1984 Luc Montagnier and Robert Gallo discovered HIV (Human Immuno Deficiency Virus).

208. Based on which property viruses are categorized?

a) Shape

b) Size

c) Symmetry

d) Both a and c

Explanation

Generally viruses are of three types based on shape and symmetry

Cuboid symmetry – Example: Adenovirus, Herpes virus. Helical symmetry – Example: Influenza virus, TMV. Complex or Atypical – Example: Bacteriophage, Vaccinia virus

209. How many classes of virus are classified by David Baltimore?

a) 3

b) 7

c) 4

d) 5

Explanation

Among various classifications proposed for viruses the classification given by David Baltimore in the year 1971 is given below. The classification is based on mechanism of RNA production, the nature of the genome (single stranded –ss or double stranded – ds), RNA or DNA, the use of reverse transcriptase (RT), ss RNA may be (+) sense or (–) antisense. Viruses are classified into seven classes.

210. Which of the following statement is not correct regarding viruses?

a) Majority of animal and bacterial viruses are RNA viruses.

b) The viruses possessing DNA are called ‘Deoxyviruses’.

c) HIV is the animal virus which possess RNA.

d) Cauliflower Mosaic virus possesses DNA.

Explanation

The viruses possessing DNA are called ‘Deoxyviruses’ whereas those possessing RNA are called ‘Riboviruses’. Majority of animal and bacterial viruses are DNA viruses (HIV is the animal virus which possess RNA). Plant viruses generally contain RNA (Cauliflower Mosaic virus possess DNA).

211. Which of these is not a classification of virus based on the nature of nucleic acid?

a) ssDNA

b) dsRNA

c) rsDNA

d) dsDNA

Explanation

On the basis of nature of nucleic acid viruses are classified into four Categories. They are Viruses with ssDNA (Parvo viruses), dsDNA (Bacteriophages), ssRNA (TMV) and dsRNA (Wound Tumor Virus).

212. In which of these places bacteriophages are not found?

a) Soil

b) Fresh water

c) Milk

d) Sewage water

Explanation

Viruses infecting bacteria are called Bacteriophages. It literally means ‘eaters of bacteria’ (Gr: Phagein = to eat). Phages are abundant in soil, sewage water, fruits, vegetables, and milk.

213. Which of these was discovered by T.O.Diener?

a) Viroid

b) Bacteriophage

c) Ribo virus

d) Influenza virus

Explanation

Viroid is a circular molecule of ssRNA without a capsid and was discovered by T.O.Diener in the year 1971. The RNA of viroid has low molecular weight. Viroids cause citrus exocortis and potato spindle tuber disease in plants.

214. Which of the following is not a plant disease caused by virus?

a) Tobacco mosaic

b) Potato leaf roll

c) SARS

d) Tungro

Explanation

215. Based on which Aristotle classified animals into two groups?

a) Habitat

b) Red blood

c) Cell structure

d) Reproduction

Explanation

Aristotle classified animals into two groups. Enaima (with red blood) and Anaima (without red blood).

216. Which of the following are the setbacks of the Carl Linnaeus classification?

i) Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes were grouped together.

ii) Fungi, heterotrophic organisms were placed along with the photosynthetic plants.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Carl Linnaeus classified living world into two groups namely Plants and Animals based on morphological characters. His classification faced major setback because Prokaryotes and Eukaryotes were grouped together. Similarly fungi, heterotrophic organisms were placed along with the photosynthetic plants.

217. Which of these is not an essential need of classification?

a) Understand the evolutionary relationship between organisms.

b) To define organisms based on the salient features.

c) To relate things based on common characteristic features.

d) To know the relationship amongst same groups of organisms.

Explanation

Classification is essential to achieve following needs. To relate things based on common characteristic features. To define organisms based on the salient features. Helps in knowing the relationship amongst different groups of organisms. It helps in understanding the evolutionary relationship between organisms.

218. Which of the qualities and criteria are not adopted for the Five Kingdom classification?

a) Cell structure

b) Reproduction

c) Habitat

d) Mode of nutrition

Explanation

R.H. Whittaker, an American taxonomist proposed five Kingdom classification in the year 1969. The Kingdoms include Monera Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia. The criteria adopted for the classification include cell structure, thallus organization, and mode of nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationship.

219. In which year Carl Woese introduced three domains of life?

a) 1882

b) 1703

c) 1990

d) 1856

Explanation

Carl Woese and co-workers in the year 1990 introduced three domains of life viz., Bacteria, Archaea and Eukarya based on the difference in rRNA nucleotide sequence, lipid structure of the cell membrane.

220. Who introduced the six Kingdom scheme?

a) Thomas Cavalier

b) Carl Woese

c) Ruggierio

d) R.H. Whittaker

Explanation

Ruggierio, 2015 published a seven Kingdom classification which is a practical extension of Thomas Cavalier’s six Kingdom scheme.

221. Which of these were included in the kingdom chromista?

a) Diatoms

b) Oomycetes

c) Cryptomonads

d) All the above

Explanation

A new Kingdom, the Chromista was erected and it included all algae whose chloroplasts contain chlorophyll a and c, as well as various colorless forms that are closely related to them. Diatoms, Brown algae, Cryptomonads and Oomycetes were placed under this Kingdom.

222. In which year the red tide incident happened in Florida?

a) 1887

b) 1982

c) 1902

d) 1935

Explanation

A major red tide incident in west coast of Florida in the year 1982 killed Hundreds and thousands of fishes.

223. Which of these was termed as animalcules?

a) Virus

b) Bacteria

c) Algae

d) Fungus

Explanation

The study of Bacteria is called Bacteriology. Bacteria were first discovered by a Dutch scientist, Anton van Leeuwenhoek in 1676 and were called “animalcules”.

224. Which of these is not a quality of bacteria?

a) Multicellular

b) Prokaryotic

c) Microscopic

d) Ubiquitous

Explanation

Bacteria are prokaryotic, unicellular, ubiq­uitous, microscopic organisms.

225. By which of these bacteria’s exhibit variations?

a) Conjugation

b) Transformation

c) Transduction

d) All the above

Explanation

Bacteria exhibit variations which are due to genetic recombination and are achieved through conjugation, transformation and transduction.

226. Which of these controls the entry and exit of small molecules and ions?

a) Nucleus

b) Plasma membrane

c) Chlorophyll

d) DNA

Explanation

The plasma membrane is made up of lipoprotein. It controls the entry and exit of small molecules and ions.

227. What is the type of ribosomes of bacteria?

a) 70S

b) 40S

c) 20S

d) 10S

Explanation

Polysomes / Polyribosomes: The ribosomes are the site of protein synthesis. The number of ribosome per cell varies from 10,000 to 15,000. The ribosomes are 70S type and consist of two subunits (50S and 30S).

228. How many classes were classified by Christian gram based on gram staining method?

a) 7

b) 2

c) 5

d) 3

Explanation

The Gram staining method to differentiate bacteria was developed by Danish Physician Christian Gram in the year1884. It is a differential staining procedure and it classifies bacteria into two classes – Gram positive and Gram negative

229. Obligate aerobes need ______ to survive.

a) Moisture

b) Carbon dioxide

c) Oxygen

d) Water

Explanation

Some Micrococcus species are obligate aerobes (i.e. they must have oxygen to survive).

230. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) Chlorophyll containing chlorosomes are present in Chromatium.

ii) Green sulphur bacteria possess pigment called Bacterioviridin.

iii) Photoorganotrophs uses Inorganic acid as hydrogen donor.

iv) Rhodospirillum is a purple non sulphur bacterium.

a) i, iii, iv only

b) i, ii only

c) iii, iv only

d) ii only

Explanation

Green sulphur bacteria: In this type of bacteria the hydrogen donor is H2S and possesses pigment called Bacterioviridin. Example: Chlorobium.

Purple sulphur bacteria: For bacteria belong to this group the hydrogen donor is thiosulphate, Bacteriochlorophyll is present. Chlorophyll containing chlorosomes are present Example: Chromatium.

Photoorganotrophs: They utilize organic acid or alcohol as hydrogen donor. Example: Purple non sulphur bacteria – Rhodospirillum.

231. Identify the Incorrect match.

A. Bacitracin i) Syphilis

B. Aureomycin ii) Ear infections

C. Chloromycetin iii) Typhoid

D. Streptomycin iv) Tuberculosis

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

232. Which of these are adapted to live in extreme environments?

a) Chlorobium

b) Akinetes

c) Archaebacteria

d) Streptomyces

Explanation

Archaebacteria are primitive prokaryotes and are adapted to thrive in extreme environments like hot springs, high salinity, low pH.

233. Cyanobacteria are,

a) Blue green algae

b) Photosynthetic

c) Prokaryotic

d) All the above

Explanation

Cyanobacteria are popularly called as ‘Blue green algae’ or ‘Cyanophyceae’. They are photosynthetic, prokaryotic organisms.

234. By which of these methods a cyanobacterium reproduces?

a) Asexual method

b) Vegetative method

c) Sexual method

d) All the above

Explanation

Cyanobacteria reproduce only through vegetative methods and produce Akinetes (thick wall dormant cell formed from vegetative cell), Hormogonia (a portion of filament get detached and reproduce by cell division), fission and endospores. Sexual reproduction is absent.

235. Which of the following is used as a single cell protein?

a) Aspergillus

b) Spirulina

c) Streptomyces

d) Penicillium

Explanation

Spirulina is rich in protein hence it is used as single cell protein.

236. What is the measure of a mycoplasma?

a) 100 – 500 mm

b) 0.1 – 200 cm

c) 0.1 – 0.5 μm

d) 1 – 10 μm

Explanation

The Mycoplasma are very small (0.1–0.5μm), pleomorphic gram negative microorganisms. They are first isolated by Nocard and coworkers in the year 1898 from pleural fluid of cattle affected with bovine pleuropneumonia.

237. By which of this presence the Streptomyces produces earthy odor from soil after rain?

a) Geosmin

b) Chlamydospore

c) Mycoplasma

d) Hormogonia

Explanation

Streptomyces is a mycelial forming Actinobacteria which lives in soil, they impart “earthy odor” to soil after rain which is due to the presence of Geosmin (volatile organic compound). Some important antibiotics namely, Streptomycin, Chloramphenicol, and Tetracycline are produced from this genus.

238. Who was awarded the Nobel Prize for the discovery of Penicillin in the year 1945?

a) Ernest Boris chain

b) Alexander Fleming

c) Sir Howard Walter Florey

d) All the above

Explanation

Discovery of Penicillin in the year 1928 is serendipity in the world of medicine. The History of World War II recorded the use of Penicillin in the form of yellow powder to save lives of soldiers. For this discovery – The wonderful antibiotic Alexander Fleming shared Nobel Prize in Medicine in the year 1945 along with Ernest Boris chain and Sir Howard Walter Florey.

239. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding fungus?

a) The word ‘fungus’ is derived from Latin.

b) Fungus is autotrophic organisms.

c) Fungi are ubiquitous, eukaryotic, achlorophyllous organisms.

d) Fungus exists in unicellular or multicellular forms.

Explanation

The word ‘fungus’ is derived from Latin meaning ‘mushroom’. Fungi are ubiquitous, eukaryotic, achlorophyllous heterotrophic organisms. They exist in unicellular or multicellular forms.

240. At which of these places the Indian Agricultural Research Institute is currently located?

a) Lucknow

b) Bihar

c) New Delhi

d) Bangalore

Explanation

E.J. Butler is the Father of Indian Mycology. He established Imperial Agricultural Research Institute at Pusa, Bihar. It was later shifted to New Delhi and at present known as Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI).

241. The presence of _______ is used to categorize the fungal mycelium.

a) Septa

b) Spores

c) Buds

d) Tissues

Explanation

The fungal mycelium is categorized into two types based on the presence or absence of septa.

242. What are the basic fungal tissues of mycelium?

a) Chlamydospore

b) Arthrospores

c) Plectenchyma

d) Condiophores

Explanation

The mycelium is organized into loosely or compactly interwoven fungal tissues called plectenchyma. It is further divided into two types’ prosenchyma and pseudo parenchyma. In the former type the hyphae are arranged loosely but parallel to one another.

243. Choose the incorrect statement about the fungus reproduction methods.

i) Fungi have both sexual and asexual phase of reproduction.

ii) Asexual phase is called as Teleomorph and sexual phase is called as Anamorph.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Fungi reproduce both by asexual and sexual methods. The asexual phase is called Anamorph and the sexual phase is called Teleomorph. Fungi having both phases are called Holomorph.

244.Which of the following is not an asexual reproduction method of fungi?

a) Enaima

b) Conidia

c) Chlamydospore

d) Oidia

Explanation

Methods of Reproduction in Fungi: Asexual Reproduction

Zoospores: They are flagellate structures produced in zoosporangia (Example: Chytrids).

Conidia: The spores produced on condiophores (Example: Aspergillus, Penicillium).

Oidia/Thallospores /Arthrospores: The hypha divided and developed in to spores called oidia (Example: Erysiphe).

Fission: The vegetative cell divides into 2 daughter cells. (Example: Schizosaccharomyces-yeast).

Budding: A small outgrowth is developed on parent cell, which gets detached and becomes independent. (Example: Saccharomycesyeast)

Chlamydospore: Thick walled resting spores are called chlamydospore (Example: Fusarium)

245. Assertion (A): Charles Mims proposed the classification of fungi in the book ‘Introductory Mycology’

Reasoning(R): Five divisions of fungus were classified by Charles Mims.

a) A is correct; R explains about A.

b) A is correct ; R is wrong.

c) A and R is wrong.

d) A is correct; R does not explains about A.

Explanation

Charles W. Mims in the year 1979 proposed the classification of fungi in the book entitled ‘Introductory Mycology’. They classified fungi into three divisions namely Gymnomycota, Mastigomycota and Amastigomycota.

246.Which of these is not an asexual reproduction of Ascomycetes?

a) Conidia

b) Fission

c) Nucle

d) Budding

Explanation

Ascomycetes, asexual reproduction takes place by fission, budding, oidia, conidia, and chlamydospore. Sexual reproduction takes place by the fusion of two compatible nucle.

247. Find the incorrect match.

A. Perithecium i) Flask shaped

B. Apothecium ii) Floral shaped

C. Cleistothecium iii) Completely closed

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

There are 4 types of ascocarps namely Cleistothecium (Completely closed), Perithecium (Flask shaped with ostiole), Apothecium (Cup shaped, open type) and Pseudothecium.

248. Choose the correct statements.

i) Basidiomycetes asexual reproduction is by conidia, oidia and budding.

ii) Sexual reproduction is not present as it does not have sexual organs.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

In basidiomycetes, asexual reproduction is by means of conidia, oidia or budding. Sexual reproduction is present but sex organs are absent.

249. Why the Deuteromycetes group fungus is called as imperfect fungi?

a) Lack sexual reproduction

b) Only visible part is flower

c) Harmful effects in plants

d) Lack of reproductive methodologies

Explanation

Deuteromycetes fungi belonging to this group lack sexual reproduction and are called imperfect fungi.

250. Which of these enzymes are not produced by the fungus?

a) Amylase

b) Protease

c) Isomerases

d) Lactase

Explanation

Aspergillus oryzae, Aspergillus niger were employed in the production of enzymes like amylase, protease, lactase etc. Rennet which helps in the coagulation of milk in cheese manufacturing is derived from Mucor spp.

251. Which of the following statements are not correct regarding the agaricus?

i) Agaricus are found in wood logs and manure piles.

ii) The leaf is the only visible part of agaricus.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Agaricus is a saprophytic fungus found on wood logs, manure piles, fresh litter, pastures etc,. The fruit bodies are the visible part of the fungi.

252. Which of the following is the most common field mushroom?

a) Aspergillus

b) Agaricus campestris

c) Cleistothecium

d) Fusarium

Explanation

Agaricus are found in rings in some species like Agaricus arvensis, Agaricus tabularis and hence popularly called ‘Fairy rings”. Agaricus campestris is the most common ‘field mushroom.

253. What is the shape of a mature basidiocarp?

a) Ring

b) Flower

c) Tree

d) Umbrella

Explanation

The mature basidiocarp is umbrella shaped and is divided into 3 parts namely stipe, pileus and gill.

254. Which is termed as the pollution indicators?

a) Fungi

b) Lichens

c) Algae

d) Bacteria

Explanation

Lichens are sensitive to air pollutants especially to sulphur-di-oxide. Therefore, they are considered as pollution indicators.

11th Science Lesson 10 Questions in English

10] Plant Kingdom

1. Recently with the aid of molecular characteristics which among the following was not segregated from plant kingdom and placed under separate kingdoms?

1. Bacteria
2. Algae
3. Fungi
4. None of the above

Explanation

Traditionally organisms existing on the earth were classified into plants and animals based on nutrition, locomotion and presence or absence of cell wall. Bacteria, Fungi, Algae, Bryophytes, Pteridophytes, Gymnosperms and Angiosperms were included under plant group. Recently with the aid of molecular characteristics Bacteria and Fungi were segregated and placed under separate kingdoms.

2. Plants are unique living entities as they are endowed with the power to harvest the light energy from the sun and to convert it into which energy in the form of food?

1. Mechanical energy
2. Thermal energy
3. Chemical energy
4. Block energy

Explanation

Plants are unique living entities as they are endowed with the power to harvest the light energy from the sun and to convert it to chemical energy in the form of food through the astounding reaction, photosynthesis. They not only supply nutrients to all living things on earth but sequester carbon-di-oxide during photosynthesis, thus minimizing the effect of one of the major green-house gases that increase the global temperature.

3. In classification which among the following is divided into Bryophyta and Tracheophyta?

1. Embryophyta
2. Bacillariophyta
3. Polypodiophyta
4. Thallophyta

Explanation

Classification widely accepted for plants now include Embryophyta which is divided into Bryophyta and Tracheophyta. The latter is further divided into Pteridophyta and Spermatophyta (Gymnospermae and Angiospermae).

4. Alternation of the haploid gametophytic phase (n) with diploid sporophytic phase (2n) during the life cycle is ______

1. Alternation of germination
2. Alternation of commodity
3. Alternation of generation
4. Alternation of fertility

Explanation

Alternation of generation is common in all plants. Alternation of the haploid gametophytic phase (n) with diploid sporophytic phase (2n) during the life cycle is called alternation of generation.

5. Which among the following is not the life cycle pattern in plant?

1. Haplontic
2. Diplontic
3. Elenctic
4. None of the above

Explanation

Life cycle patterns in plants are a) Haplontic, b) Diplontic, c) Haplo-diplontic.

6. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Haplontic Life Cycle: Gametophytic phase is dominant, photosynthetic and independent, whereas sporophytic phase is represented by the zygote. Zygote undergoes meiosis to restore haploid condition.
2. Diplontic Life Cycle: Sporophytic phase (2n) is dominant, photosynthetic and independent. The gametophytic phase is represented by the single to few celled gametophyte. The gametes fuse to form zygote which develops into sporophyte.
3. Haplodiplontic Life Cycle: This type of life cycle is found in embryophytes, bryophytes and pteridophytes which is intermediate between haplontic and diplontic type. These three phases are unicellular. but they differ in their dominant phase.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Haplodiplontic Life Cycle This type of life cycle is found in bryophytes and pteridophytes which is intermediate between haplontic and diplontic type. Both the phases are multicellular. but they differ in their dominant phase.

7. Which among the following is not the example of Diplontic Life Cycle?

1. Fucus
2. Gymnosperms
3. Angiosperms
4. Spirogyra

Explanation

Fucus, gymnosperms and angiosperms are example of Diplontic life cycle. Volvox, Spirogyra are example of Haplontic life cycle.

8. In which among the following dominant independent phase is gametophyte and it alternates with short-lived multicellular sporophyte totally or partially dependent on the gametophyte?

1. Bryophytes
2. Pteridophytes
3. Embryophytes
4. Dermatophytes

Explanation

In bryophytes dominant independent phase is gametophyte and it alternates with short-lived multicellular sporophyte totally or partially dependent on the gametophytes.

9. Which are simple plants that lack true roots, true stems and true leaves.?

1. Fungi
2. Bryophytes
3. Algae
4. All the above

Explanation

Algae are simple plants that lack true roots, true stems and true leaves. Two-third of our earth’s surface is covered by oceans and seas. The photosynthetic plants called algae are present here. More than half of the total primary productivity of the world depends on this plant group. Further, other aquatic organisms also depend upon them for their existence.

10. In which among the following, sporophyte is the independent phase. It alternates with multicellular saprophytic or autotrophic, independent, short lived gametophyte(n)?

1. Chamaephytes
2. Pteridophytes
3. Embryophytes
4. Dermatophytes

Explanation

In pteridophytes sporophyte is the independent phase. It alternates with multicellular saprophytic or autotrophic, independent, short lived gametophyte(n).

11. The study of algae is called ____

1. Vexillology
2. Onomatology
3. Lichenology
4. Phycology

Explanation

The study of algae is called algology or phycology. Some of the eminent algologists include F.E. Fritsch, F.E. Round, R.E. Lee, M.O.Parthasarathy Iyengar, M.S. Randhawa, Y. Bharadwaja, V.S. Sundaralingam and T.V.Desikachary.

12. Who among the following is the father of Father of Indian Phycology?

1. T. V. Desikachary
2. M. O. Parthasarathy
3. Y. Bharadwaj
4. M. S. Randhawa

Explanation

M.O.Parthasarathy (1886-1963) ‘Father of Indian Phycology’. He conducted research on structure, cytology, reproduction and taxonomy of Algae. He published a Monograph on Volvocales.

13. Which among the following algal was not reported by M. O. Parthasarathy?

1. Ecballocystopsis
2. Oedogonium
3. Charasiphon
4. Cylindrocapsopsis

Explanation

New algal forms like Fritschiella, Ecballocystopsis, Charasiphon and Cylindrocapsopsis. were reported by M. O. Parthasarathy.

14. Which algae grow in snow covered mountains and impart red colour to the snow (Red snow)?

1. Chlamydomonas nivalis
2. Oedogonium chara
3. Cephaleuros virescens
4. Chondrus crispus

Explanation

Chlamydomonas nivalis grow in snow covered mountains and impart red colour to the snow (Red snow).

15. A few algae grow on the surface of aquatic plants and are called ____

1. Endophytic algae
2. Epiphytic algae
3. Macrophytic algae
4. Holophytic algae

Explanation

A few algae grow on the surface of aquatic plants and are called epiphytic algae (Coleochaete, and Rhodymenia).

16. Which among the following algae grow on the shells of molluscs?

1. Oedogonium chara
2. Cephaleuros virescens
3. Dunaliella salina
4. Cladophora crispata

Explanation

Chlorella leads an endozoic life in hydra and sponges whereas Cladophora crispata grow on the shells of molluscs.

17. Which among the following algae grows in salt pans?

1. Oedogonium chara
2. Dunaliella salina
3. Cephaleuros virescens
4. Chondrus crispus

Explanation

Algae are adapted to thrive in harsh environment too. Dunaliella salina grows in salt pans (Halophytic alga).

18. Which among the following algae is freshwater algae?

1. Gracilaria
2. Sargassum
3. Ulothrix
4. All the above

Explanation

Algae are autotrophs, and grow in a wide range of habitats. Majority of them are aquatic, marine (Gracilaria, and Sargassum) and freshwater (Oedogonium, and Ulothrix) and also found in soils (Fritschiella, and Vaucheria).

19. Which is the Oldest recorded alga, which was discovered in the banded iron formations of northern Michigan?

1. Volvox
2. Grypania
3. Ulva
4. Chlorella

Explanation

The Oldest recorded alga is Grypania, which was discovered in the banded iron formations of northern Michigan and dated to approximately 2100Ma.

20. Match the following thallus organization in algae with example

1. Unicellular motile – 1. Volvox
2. Unicellular non-motile – 2. Chlamydomonas
3. Colonial motile – 3. Vaucheria
4. Colonial non-motile – 4. Hydrodictyon
5. Siphonous – 5. Chlorella
6. 4 – 3 – 5 – 2 – 1
7. 2 – 5 – 1 – 4 – 3
8. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1 – 5
9. 5 – 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

Explanation

The algae show a great diversity in size, shape and structure. A wide range of thallus organisation is found in algae. Unicellular motile (Chlamydomonas), unicellular non-motile (Chlorella), Colonial motile (Volvox), Colonial non motile (Hydrodictyon), siphonous (Vaucheria).

21. Algae are eukaryotes except which algae?

1. Dinoflagellates
2. Red algae
3. Brown algae
4. Blue green algae

Explanation

Algae are eukaryotes except blue green algae. The plant body does not show differentiation into tissue systems.

22. In Chara the thallus is encrusted with what?

1. Silicon sulphate
2. Sodium carbonate
3. Calcium carbonate
4. Potassium sulphate

Explanation

In Chara the thallus is encrusted with calcium carbonate. Some algae possess algin, polysulphate esters of polysaccharides which are the sources for the alginate, agar agar and carrageenan.

23. Which among the following statement is correct

1. The cell wall of algae is made up of cellulose and hemicellulose. Siliceous walls are present in diatoms. The cell has a membrane bound nucleus and cell organelles like chloroplast, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi bodies etc., Pyrenoids are present.
2. They are proteinaceous bodies found in chromatophores and assist in the synthesis and storage of starch. The pigmentation, reserve food material and flagellation differ among the algal groups.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The cell wall of algae is made up of cellulose and hemicellulose. Siliceous walls are present in diatoms. The cell has a membrane bound nucleus and cell organelles like chloroplast, mitochondria, endoplasmic reticulum, golgi bodies etc., Pyrenoids are present.

24. In which among the following method algae does not reproduce?

1. Vegetative
2. Asexual
3. Sexual
4. None of the above

Explanation

Algae reproduces by vegetative, asexual and sexual methods.

25. Which among the following is not the vegetative reproduction of algae?

1. Fission
2. Fragmentation
3. Akinetes
4. Anisogamy

Explanation

Vegetative reproduction includes fission, fragmentation, budding, bulbils, akinetes, and tubers.

26. In which vegetative reproduction of algae Thick-walled spores meant for perennation and germinates with the advent of favourable condition?

1. Fission
2. Akinetes
3. Budding
4. Tubers

Explanation

In Akinetes (vegetative reproduction) Thick-walled spores meant for perennation and germinates with the advent of favourable condition.

27. Which among the following is the example of Akinetes?

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Ulothrix
3. Pithophora
4. All the above

Explanation

Pithophora is example of Akinetes.

28. In which vegetative reproduction in algae, in unicellular forms the cell divides mitotically to produce two daughter cells?

1. Fission
2. Fragmentation
3. Budding
4. Tubers

Explanation

During fission (vegetative reproduction) in unicellular forms the cell divides mitotically to produce two daughter cells.

29. In which vegetative reproduction of algae, Structures found on the rhizoids and the lower nodes of Chara which store food materials?

1. Fragmentation
2. Budding
3. Tubers
4. Bulbils

Explanation

In Tubers Structures found on the rhizoids and the lower nodes of Chara which store food materials.

30. In which among the following vegetative reproduction a wedge-shaped modified branch develop in Sphacelaria?

1. Fragmentation
2. Budding
3. Bulbils
4. All the above

Explanation

In bulbils, a wedge-shaped modified branch develops in Sphacelaria. In Budding a lateral bud is formed in some members like Protosiphon and helps in reproduction

31. Which among the following is the example of Fragmentation (vegetative reproduction)?

1. Chlamydomonas
2. Ulothrix
3. Pithophora
4. All the above

Explanation

In Fragmentation the fragments of parent thallus grow into new individual Example: Ulothrix. Chlamydomonas is example of fission.

32. In which among the following asexual reproduction take place by production of thin walled non motile spores?

1. Tetraspores
2. Hypnospore
3. Autospores
4. Aplanospore

Explanation

Asexual reproduction takes place by the production of zoospores motile spores (Ulothrix, Oedogonium). In aplanospore asexual reproduction take place by production of thin walled non motile spores.

33. In asexual reproduction, spores which look similar to parent cell are called ____

1. Zoospores
2. Autospore
3. Hypnospore
4. Tetraspores

Explanation

In asexual reproduction, spores which look similar to parent cell are called autospores.

34. The thick walled aplanospore are called ____

1. Zoospores
2. Autospore
3. Hypnospore
4. Tetraspores

Explanation

The thick walled aplanospore are called Hypnospore.

35. Diploid thallus of Polysiphonia produce haploid spores after meiosis, these spores are called __

1. Zoospores
2. Teliospore
3. Androspore
4. Tetraspores

Explanation

Diploid thallus of Polysiphonia produce haploid spores after meiosis, these spores are called Tetraspores.

36. Which among the following is the example aplanospore?

1. Chlorella
2. Vaucheria
3. Chlamydomonas nivalis
4. All the above

Explanation

Vaucheria is example of aplanospore.

37. Which among the following is the example of autospore?

1. Chlorella
2. Ulothrix
3. Chlamydomonas nivalis
4. All the above

Explanation

Chlorella is example of autospore. Chlamydomonas nivalis is example of Hypnospore.

38. Which among the following is not the sexual reproduction in algae?

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Oogamy
4. Polygamy

Explanation

Sexual reproduction in algae is of three types 1. Isogamy, 2. Anisogamy and 3. Polygamy.

39. Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes is known as ___

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Oogamy
4. None of the above

Explanation

Fusion of both morphologically and physiologically dissimilar gametes is known as Oogamy.

40. Which among the following sexual reproduction in algae is incorrectly matched with its example?

1. Isogamy – Pandorina
2. Anisogamy – Ulothrix
3. Oogamy – Sargassum
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Ulothrix is example of Isogamy and Pandorina is example of Isogamy.

41. Fusion of morphologically and Physiologically similar gametes is known as ____

1. Isogamy
2. Anisogamy
3. Oogamy
4. None of the above

Explanation

Fusion of morphologically and Physiologically similar gametes is known as Isogamy. Fusion of either morphologically or physiologically dissimilar gametes is known as Anisogamy.

42. Who proposed a classification for algae based on pigmentation, types of flagella, reserve food materials, thallus structure and reproduction?

1. William T. Stearn
2. Johannes Schmidt
3. F. E. Fritsch
4. Albert Seward

Explanation

F.E. Fritsch proposed a classification for algae based on pigmentation, types of flagella, reserve food materials, thallus structure and reproduction. He published his classification in the book “The structure and reproduction of the Algae” (1935).

43. How many classes of algae are classified by F. E. Fritsch?

1. Three
2. Seven
3. Eleven
4. Fourteen

Explanation

F. E. Fritsch classified algae into 11 classes.

44. Which among the following is not the classification of algae by F. E. Fritsch?

1. Chlorophyceae
2. Xanthophyceae
3. Euglenophyceae
4. Anthrophyceae

Explanation

F. E. Fritsch classified algae into 11 classes namely Chlorophyceae, Xanthophyceae, Chrysophyceae, Bacillariophyceae, Cryptophyceae, Dinophyceae, Chloromonadineae, Euglenophyceae, Phaeophyceae, Rhodophyceae, Cyanophyceae.

45. The members of Chlorophyceae are commonly called _____

1. Red algae
2. Blue green algae
3. Green algae
4. Yellow algae

Explanation

The members of Chlorophyceae are commonly called ‘Green algae’.

46. Which among the following species of Chlorophyceae is terrestrial?

1. Spirogyra
2. Ulva
3. Trentipohlia
4. All the above

Explanation

Most of the species of Chlorophyceae are aquatic (Fresh water-Spirogyra, Marine -Ulva). A few are terrestrial (Trentipohlia).

47. Which among the following algae is not the example of Chlorophyceae

1. Chlorella
2. Dictyota
3. Chlamydomonas
4. Volvox

Explanation

Examples for the Chlorophyceae algae includes Chlorella, Chlamydomonas, Volvox, Spirogyra, Ulothrix, Chara and Ulva

48. Match the following Chlorophyceae members based on size with example

1. Cup shaped – 1. Zygnema
2. Discoid – 2. Ulothrix
3. Girdle shaped – 3. Chara
4. Reticulate – 4. Chlamydomonas
5. Stellate – 5. Oedogonium
6. 4 – 3 – 2 – 5 – 1
7. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4 – 5
8. 2 – 5 – 1 – 3 – 4
9. 1 – 4 – 5 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Variation among the shape of the chloroplast is found in members of Chlorophyceae. It is cup shaped (Chlamydomonas), discoid (Chara), girdle shaped, (Ulothrix), reticulate (Oedogonium), spiral (Spirogyra), stellate (Zygnema) and plate like (Mougeoutia).

49. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Chlorophyceae

1. Chlorophyll ‘a’ and Chlorophyll ‘b’ are the major photosynthetic pigments. Storage bodies called Riella are present in the chloroplast and store potash. They also contain proteins. The cell wall is made up of outer layer of cellulose and inner layer of pectin.
2. Vegetative reproduction takes place by means of fragmentation and asexual reproduction is by the production of zoospores, aplanospores and akinetes. Sexual reproduction is present and may be isogamous, anisogamous or oogamous.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Chlorophyll ‘a’ and Chlorophyll ‘b’ are the major photosynthetic pigments. Storage bodies called pyrenoids are present in the chloroplast and store starch. They also contain proteins. The cell wall is made up of inner layer of cellulose and outer layer of pectin.

50. The member of Phaeophyceae class are called _____

1. Brown algae
2. Red algae
3. Green algae
4. Blue green algae

Explanation

The members of Phaeophyceae class are called ‘Brown algae’.

51. Majority of the phaeophyceae are found in which habitats?

1. Marine
2. Fresh water
3. Terrestrial
4. Air

Explanation

Majority of the phaeophyceae are found in marine habitats. Pleurocladia is a fresh water form. The thallus is filamentous (Ectocarpus) frond like (Dictyota)or may be giant kelps (Laminaria and Macrocystis).

52. In Phaeophyceae, thallus is differentiated into leaf like photosynthetic part called ____

1. Stipe
2. Fronds
3. Cupid
4. Poes

Explanation

The thallus is differentiated into leaf like photosynthetic part called fronds, a stalk like structure called stipe and a holdfast which attach thallus to the substratum.

53. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Phaeophyceae

1. The Pigments in Phaeophyceae include Chlorophyll x, y, Carotenoids and Xanthophylls. A yellow-green pigment called fucoxanthin is present and it gives shades of colour from shiny red to white to the algal members of this group.
2. Mannitol and Laminarin are the reserve food materials. Motile reproductive structures are present. Two laterally inserted unequal flagella are present. Among these one is whiplash and another is tinsel.
3. Although sexual reproduction ranges from isogamy to oogamy, most of the forms show oogamous type. Alternation of generation is present (isomorphic, heteromorphic or diplontic).
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Pigments in Phaeophyceae include Chlorophyll a, c, Carotenoids and Xanthophylls. A golden brown pigment called fucoxanthin is present and it gives shades of colour from olive green to brown to the algal members of this group.

54. Which among the following is not the examples of Phaeophyceae?

1. Gelidium
2. Sargassum
3. Laminaria
4. Dictyota

Explanation

Examples for Phaeophyceae include Sargassum, Laminaria, Fucus and Dictyota.

55. The members of the Rhodophyceae are called ____

1. Brown algae
2. Yellow algae
3. Pink algae
4. Red algae

Explanation

The members of the Rhodophyceae are called Red algae are mostly marine.

56. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Rhodophyceae

1. In Rhodophyceae thallus is multicellular, macroscopic and diverse in form. Porphyridium is the unicellular form. Filamentous (Goniotrichum) ribbon like (Porphyra) are also present. Corallina and Lithothamnion are heavily impregnated with lime and form coral reefs.
2. Apart from chlorophyll a, r-phycoerythrin and r-phycocyanin are the photosynthetic pigments. Asexual reproduction takes place by means of monospores, neutral spores and tetraspores. The storage product is floridean starch.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

57. In Rhodophyceae Sexual reproduction take place by ____

1. Isogamous
2. Anisogamous
3. Oogamous
4. All the above

Explanation

In Rhodophyceae Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Male sex organ is spermatangium which produces spermatium.

58. In Rhodophyceae Female sex organ is called ____

1. Carpogonium
2. Ceramium
3. Polygonium
4. Serapogonium

Explanation

In Rhodophyceae Female sex organ is called carpogonium. The spermatium is carried by the water currents and fuse with egg nucleus to form zygote. The zygote develops into carpospores. Meiosis occurs during carpospore formation. Alternation of generation is present.

59. Which among the following is not the example of Rhodophyceae?

1. Ceramium
2. Gigartina
3. Gelidium
4. Ulothrix

Explanation

Examples for Rhodophyceae algae include Ceramium, Polysiphonia, Gelidium, Cryptonemia and Gigartina.

60. Who is the father of Indian Bryology?

1. Vinay Simha
2. V. S. Sundaralingam
3. Shiv Ram Kashyap
4. F. E. Round

Explanation

Shiv Ram Kashyap is the father of Indian Bryology. He published a book- ‘Liverworts of Western Himalayas and Punjab Plains’ He identified new genera like Atchinsoniella, Sauchia, Sewardiella and Stephansoniella.

61. Which among the following Algae is used for food purpose?

1. Chlorella
2. Laminaria
3. Sargassum
4. All the above

Explanation

Chlorella, Laminaria, Sargassum, Ulva, Enteromorpha are the algae used for Food.

62. Which among the following algae is involved in red rust of coffee?

1. Chlamydomonas crispus
2. Chondrus crispus
3. Ascophyllum virescens
4. Cephaleuros virescens

Explanation

Cephaleuros virescens is the algae involved in Red rust of coffee.

63. Which among the following algae is not used for Fertilizer?

1. Lithophyllum
2. Laminaria
3. Chara
4. Fucus

Explanation

Lithophyllum, Chara, Fucus are the algae used for Fertilizer.

64. Which is a Cell wall material used for media preparation in the microbiology lab obtained from algae?

1. Agar Agar
2. Carrageenan
3. Alginate
4. Polish

Explanation

Agar Agar – Cell wall material used for media preparation in the microbiology lab.

65. Which among the following algae is used for Sewage treatment, Pollution indicators?

1. Chlorella
2. Scenedesmus
3. Chlamydomonas
4. All the above

Explanation

Chlorella, Scenedesmus, Chlamydomonas are the algae used for Sewage treatment, Pollution indicator.

66. Which algae is used for antibiotics?

1. Laminaria
2. Chlorella
3. Fucus
4. Ascophyllum

Explanation

Chlorella is used for antibiotics (Chlorellin).

67. Which green alga is employed in Biofuel production?

1. Botryococcus braunii
2. Chondrus crispus
3. Gracilaria virescens
4. All the above

Explanation

A green alga Botryococcus braunii is employed in Biofuel production.

68. Which are the rich source of Iodine Chlorella is used as single cell Protein (SCP)?

1. Arame
2. Kelp
3. Alaria
4. Undaria

Explanation

Kelps are the rich source of Iodine Chlorella is used as single cell Protein (SCP).

69. Which is an alga growing in salt pan is complement to our health and provide β carotene?

1. Diatom salina
2. Lithophyllum salina
3. Dunaliella salina
4. Ascophyllum salina

Explanation

Dunaliella salina an alga, growing in salt pan is complement to our health and provide β carotene.

70. Which algae is used for carrageenan (preparation n of tooth paste, paint, blood coagulant)?

1. Chondrus crispus
2. Cephaleuros virescens
3. Postelia palmaeformis
4. All the above

Explanation

Chondrus crispus is algae used for Carrageenan (Preparation of tooth paste, paint, blood coagulant).

71. Which among the following algae is not used for Alginate – ice cream, paints, flame proof fabrics?

1. Laminaria
2. Ascophyllum
3. Fucus
4. All the above

Explanation

Laminaria, Ascophyllum are algae used for Alginate – ice cream, paints, flame proof fabrics.

72. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Algae like Laminaria, Sargassum, Ascophyllum, Fucus are used for Fodder. Diatom is algae used for Diatomaceous earth– water filters, insulation material, reinforcing agent in concrete and rubber.
2. Algae like Kappaphycus alvarezii, Gracilaria edulis and Gelidiella acerosa are commercially grown in the sea for harvesting the phycocolloids. Sea Palm is Postelia palmaeformis a brown alga.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

73. Which are simplest land inhabiting cryptogams and are restricted to moist, shady habitats and they lack vascular tissue and hence called ‘Non- vascular cryptogams’?

1. Bryophytes
2. Pteridophytes
3. Mesophyte
4. Xerophytes

Explanation

Bryophytes are simplest land inhabiting cryptogams and are restricted to moist shady habitats. They lack vascular tissue and hence called ‘Non- vascular cryptogams.

74. Bryophytes are also called as _____

1. Reptiles of plant kingdom
2. Joints of plant kingdom
3. Amphibians of plant kingdom
4. Extension of plant kingdom

Explanation

Bryophytes are also called as ‘amphibians of plant kingdom’ because they need water for completing their life cycle.

75. Which among the following statement is correct

1. A wide range of thallus organization known as Algae, majority of them are aquatic. The development of heterotrichous habit, development of parenchyma tissue and dichotomous branching in some algae supports the view that colonization of plants in land occurred in the past.
2. Bryophytes are simplest and non-primitive plant groups descended from alga – like ancestors. They are simple embryophytes. The plant body of bryophyte is pteridophyte and is differentiated into root, stem and leaf like structure.
3. Most of them are primitive land dwellers. Some of them are aquatic (Riella, Ricciocarpus). Vascular tissue like xylem and phloem are completely absent, hence called ‘Non vascular cryptogams’.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Bryophytes are simplest and most primitive plant groups descended from alga – like ancestors. They are simple embryophytes. The plant body of bryophyte is gametophyte and is not differentiated into root, stem and leaf like structure.

76. In bryophytes sexual reproduction is ____

1. Isogamous
2. Anisogamous
3. Oogamous
4. All the above

Explanation

In bryophytes Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Antheridia and Archegonia are produced in a protective covering and are multicellular. Water is essential for fertilization.

77. Which among the following statement is correct regarding bryophytes

1. The gametophyte is conspicuous, short lived phase of the life cycle. Thalloid forms are present in liverworts and absent in Hornworts. In Mosses leaf like, stem like structures are absent. In Liverworts thallus grows prostrate on the ground and is attached to the substratum by means of chord.
2. Two types of rhizoids are present namely smooth walled and pegged or tuberculate. Multicellular scales are also present. In Moss the plant body is erect with central axis bearing leaf like expansions. Multicellular rhizoids are present.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

The gametophyte is conspicuous, long lived phase of the life cycle. Thalloid forms are present in liverworts and Hornworts. In Mosses leaf like, stem like structures are present. In Liverworts thallus grows prostrate on the ground and is attached to the substratum by means of rhizoids.

78. In bryophytes, which is the first cell of the sporophyte generation?

1. Morula
2. Zygote
3. Blastocyst
4. None of the above

Explanation

The zygote is the first cell of the sporophyte generation. It undergoes mitotic division to form multicellular undifferentiated embryo. The embryogeny is exoscopic (the first division of the zygote is transverse and the apex of the embryo develops from the outer cell). The embryo divides and give rise to sporophyte.

79. Which among the following statement is correct regarding sexual reproduction in bryophytes?

1. The antheridia produce biflagellate antherozoids which swims in thin film of water and reach the archegonium and fuse with the egg to form diploid zygote. Water is essential for fertilization.
2. The sporophyte is dependent on gametophyte. It is differentiated into three recognizable parts namely foot, seta and capsule. Foot is the basal portion and is embedded in the gametophyte through which water and nutrients are supplied for the sporophyte.
3. The diploid spore mother cells found in the capsule region undergoes meiotic division and give rise to haploid spores. Bryophytes are homosporous. In some sporophytes elaters are present and help in dispersal of spores (Example: Marchantia). The spores germinate to produce gametophyte.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

80. The zygote, embryo and the sporogonium constitute sporophytic phase. The green long living haploid phase is called ____

1. Periphytic phase
2. Gametophytic phase
3. Xerophytic phase
4. Halophytic phase

Explanation

The zygote, embryo and the sporogonium constitute sporophytic phase. The green long living haploid phase is called gametophytic phase. The haploid gametophytic phase alternates with diploid sporophyte and shows heterologous alternation of generation.

81. Vegetative reproduction in bryophytes takes place by the formation of adventitious buds (Riccia fluitans) tubers develop in ____

1. Anthoceros
2. Santeros
3. Braceros
4. Cilantros

Explanation

Vegetative reproduction takes place by the formation of adventitious buds (Riccia fluitans) tubers develop in Anthoceros.

82. What was the propagative organ in Marchantia formed and help in reproduction?

1. Gemmae
2. Riella
3. Funaria
4. Porella

Explanation

In some form small detachable branches or brood bodies are formed, they help in vegetative reproduction as in Bryopteris fruticulose. In Marchantia propagative organs called gemmae are formed and help in reproduction.

83. Proskauer in the year 1957 classified Bryophytes into how many classes?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Seven
4. Nine

Explanation

Proskauer in the year 1957 classified Bryophytes into 3 Classes namely i. Hepaticopsida ii. Anthocerotopsida iii. Bryopsida.

84. Which among the following does not belong to class Hepaticopsida?

1. Riccia
2. Marchantia
3. Porella
4. Funaria

Explanation

Hepaticopsida – Riccia, Marchantia, Porella and Riella.

85. Which among the following does not belong to class Bryopsida?

1. Funaria
2. Polytrichum
3. Dendroceros
4. Sphagnum

Explanation

Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum belong to class Bryospida ; Anthoceros and Dendroceros belong to class Hepaticopsida.

86. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Economic importance of bryophytes

1. Dead thalli of Sphagnum gets accumulated and compressed, hardened to form peat. In northern Europe (Netherlands)peat is used as fuel in commercial scale. Apart from this nitrates, brown dye and tanning materials are derived from peat.
2. Sphagnum and peat are also used in horticulture as packing material because of their water holding capacity. Marchantia polymorpha is used to cure pulmonary tuberculosis. Sphagnum, Bryum and Polytrichum are used as food. Bryophytes play a major role in soil formation through succession and help in soil conservation
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

87. Which are the vascular cryptogams and were abundant in the Devonian period of Palaeozoic era (400 million years ago)?

1. Bryophytes
2. Pteridophytes
3. Mesophyte
4. Xerophytes

Explanation

Pteridophytes are the vascular cryptogams and were abundant in the Devonian period of Palaeozoic era (400 million years ago).

88. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Pteridophytes?

1. we are aware of the salient features of amphibious plants called bryophytes. But there is a plant group called pteridophytes which are considered as first true land plants. Further, they were the first plants to acquire vascular tissue namely xylem and phloem, hence called vascular cryptogams.
2. Club moss, horsetails, quill worts, water ferns and tree ferns belong to this group. These plants are mostly small, herbaceous and grow well in moist, cool and shady places where water is available.
3. Plant body is sporophyte (n) and it is the variant phase. It is not differentiated into root, stem and leaves. Stele is protostele but in some forms siphonostele is present (Marsilea). Tracheids are the major nitrogen conducting elements but in Selaginella vessels are found.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Plant body is sporophyte (2n) and it is the dominant phase. It is differentiated into root, stem and leaves. Roots are adventitious. Stem shows monopodial or dichotomous branching. Leaves may be microphyllous or megaphyllous. Stele is protostele but in some forms siphonostele is present (Marsilea) Tracheids are the major water conducting elements but in Selaginella vessels are found.

89. Sporangia, spore bearing bag like structures are borne on special leaves called ___

1. Sporogamy
2. Sporogosm
3. Sporophyll
4. All the above

Explanation

Sporangia, spore bearing bag like structures are borne on special leaves called sporophyll. The Sporophylls get organized to form cone or strobilus. Example: Selaginella, Equisetum. They may be homosporous (produce one type of spores-Lycopodium) or Heterosporous (produce two types of spores-Selaginella). Heterospory is the origin for seed habit.

90. The success and dominance of vascular plants is due to the development of ____

1. Extensive root system
2. Efficient conducting tissues
3. Cuticle to prevent desiccation
4. All the above

Explanation

The success and dominance of vascular plants is due to the development of • Extensive root system. • Efficient conducting tissues. • Cuticle to prevent desiccation. • Stomata for effective gaseous exchange.

91. In pteridophytes the development of sporangium from group of initials is called ____

1. Leptosporangiate
2. Capeosporabgiate
3. Marsporangiate
4. Eusporangiate

Explanation

The development of sporangium from group of initials is called Eusporangiate.

92. The development of sporangium from single initial is called ____

1. Leptosporangiate
2. Capeosporabgiate
3. Marsporangiate
4. Eusporangiate

Explanation

The development of sporangium from single initial is called Leptosporangiate. Development of sporangia may be eusporangiate or leptosporangiate

93. Which among the following statement is correct regarding pteridophytes

1. Spore mother cells undergo meiosis and produce spores (2n). Spore germinates to produce haploid, unicellular brown, spiral shaped independent gametophytes called prothallus. Fragmentation, resting buds, root tubers and adventitious buds help in asexual reproduction.
2. Sexual reproduction is oogamous. Sex organs, namely antheridium and archegonium are produced on the prothallus. Antheridium produces spirally coiled and multiflagellate antherozoids. Archegonium is flask shaped with broad venter and elongated narrow neck.
3. The venter possesses egg or ovum and neck contain neck canal cells. Water is essential for fertilization. After fertilization a diploid zygote is formed and undergoes mitotic division to form embryo. Pteridophytes show apogamy and apospory.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Spore mother cells undergo meiosis and produce spores (n). Spore germinates to produce haploid, multicellular green, cordate shaped independent gametophytes called prothallus. Fragmentation, resting buds, root tubers and adventitious buds help in vegetative reproduction.

94. In classification of pteridophytes proposed by reimer, pteridophytes are classified into how many subdivisions?

1. Three
2. Five
3. Seven
4. Nine

Explanation

Reimer (1954) proposed a classification for pteridophytes. In this classification, the pteridophytes are divided into five subdivisions. There are 19 orders and 48 families in the classification.

95. Which among the following is not the subdivision of pteridophytes?

1. Psilophytopsida
2. Psilotopsida
3. Ycopsida
4. Pscopitospida

Explanation

The five subdivision of pteridophytes 1. Psilophytopsida 2. Psilotopsida 3. Lycopsida 4. Sphenopsida 5. Pteropsida.

96. Which among the following term refers to the central cylinder of vascular tissues consisting of xylem, phloem, pericycle and sometimes medullary rays with pith?

1. Borne
2. Mitotic
3. Stele
4. Grid

Explanation

The term stele refers to the central cylinder of vascular tissues consisting of xylem, phloem, pericycle and sometimes medullary rays with pith.

97. Which among the following is not the type of steles?

1. Protostele
2. Siphonostele
3. Xylostele
4. None of the above

Explanation

There are two types of steles 1. Protostele 2. Siphonostele.

98. Which among the following is not the type of Protostele?

1. Haplostele
2. Actinostele
3. Plectostele
4. Solenostele

Explanation

In protostele phloem surrounds xylem. The type includes Haplostele, Actinostele, Plectostele, and Mixed protostele.

99. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Protostele

1. Xylem surrounded by phloem is known as haplostele
2. Sphere shaped xylem core is surrounded by phloem is known as actinostele
3. Xylem plates alternates with phloem plates is known as plectostele
4. Xylem groups uniformly scattered in the phloem is known as Mixed protostele

Explanation

Star shaped xylem core is surrounded by phloem is known as actinostele.

100. Match the following Protostele with its example

1. Haplostele – 1. Lycopodium clavatum
2. Actinostele – 2. Lycopodium serratum
3. Plectostele – 3. Selaginella
4. Mixed protostele – 4. Lycopodium cernuum
5. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
6. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
7. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
8. 1 – 4 – 3 – 2

Explanation

Haplostele (Selaginella), Actinostele (Lycopodium Serratum), Plectostele (Lycopodium clavatum) and Mixed Protostele (Lycopodium cernuum).

101. In which among the following xylem is surrounded by phloem with pith at the centre?

1. Protostele
2. Siphonostele
3. Xylostele
4. None of the above

Explanation

In siphonostele xylem is surrounded by phloem with pith at the centre.

102. Which among the following is not included in Siphonostele?

1. Solenostele
2. Eustele
3. Pxycostele
4. Atactostele

Explanation

Siphonostele includes Ectophloic siphonostele, Amphiphloic siphonostele, Solenostele, Eustele, Atactostele and Polycylic stele.

103. In which siphonostele the vascular tissues are present in the form of two or more concentric cylinders?

1. Polycyclicstele
2. Atactostele
3. Dictyostele
4. Eustele

Explanation

In Polycyclicstele vascular tissues are present in the form of two or more concentric cylinders.

104. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Siphonostele

1. Ectophloic siphonostele: The phloem is restricted only on the external side of the xylem and pith is in the centre
2. Amphiphloic siphonostele: The phloem is present on both the sides of xylem and the pith is in the centre
3. Atactostele: The stele is perforated at a place or places corresponding the origin of the leaf trace.
4. Eustele: The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles around the pith.

Explanation

Atactostele: The stele is split into distinct collateral vascular bundles and are scattered in the ground tissue.

105. Match the following Siphonostele with its example

1. Ectophloic siphonostele – 1. Monocot stem
2. Amphiphloic siphonostele – 2. Dicot stem
3. Eustele – 3. Osmunda
4. Atactostele – 4. Pteridium
5. Polycyclicstele – 5. Marsilea
6. 3 – 5 – 2 – 1 – 4
7. 2 – 1 – 5 – 3 – 4
8. 4 – 1 – 5 – 3 – 2
9. 5 – 3 – 1 – 4 – 2

Explanation

Ectophloic siphonostele – Osmunda; Amphiphloic siphonostele – Marsilea; Eustele – Dicot stem; Atactostele – Monocot stem; Polycyclicstele – Pteridium.

106. Which among the following is not the type of Solenostele?

1. Ectophloic solenostele
2. Amphiphloic solenostele
3. Vaseostele
4. Dictyostele

Explanation

In Solenostele, stele is perforated at a place or places corresponding the origin of the leaf trace. They are (a) Ectophloic solenostele, (b) Amphiphloic solenostele and (c) Dictyostele.

107. Which are naked seed producing plants, were dominant in the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods of Mesozoic era and members are distributed throughout the temperate and tropical region of the world?

1. Gymnosperm
2. Angiosperm
3. Xenosperm
4. Paleosperm

Explanation

Gymnosperm are naked seed producing plants. They were dominant in the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods of Mesozoic era. The members are distributed throughout the temperate and tropical region of the world.

108. Which among the following is a plant secretion which is an efficient preservative that doesn’t get degraded and hence can preserve remains of extinct life forms?

1. Amber
2. Flip
3. Camper
4. Clamp

Explanation

Amber is a plant secretion which is an efficient preservative that doesn’t get degraded and hence can preserve remains of extinct life forms. The amber is produced by Pinites succinifera, a Gymnosperm.

109. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Gymnosperm?

1. Most of the gymnosperms are evergreen, woody trees or shrubs. Some are lianas (Gnetum). The plant body is sporophyte and is differentiated into root, stem and leaves. A well-developed tap root system is present. Coralloid roots of Cycas have symbiotic association with blue green algae. In Pinus the roots have mycorrhizae.
2. The stem is aerial, erect and branched or unbranched (Cycas) with leaf scars. In conifers two types of branches namely branches of limited growth (Dwarf shoot) and Branches of unlimited growth (Long shoot) is present.
3. Leaves are dimorphic, foliage and scale leaves are present. Foliage leaves are green, photosynthetic and borne on branches of limited growth. They show xerophytic features. The xylem consists of tracheids but in Gnetum and Ephedra vessels are present. They are heterosporous. The plant may be monoecious (Pinus) or dioecious (Cycas)
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

110. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Gymnosperms resemble with angiosperms?

1. Flowers in Gnetum resemble the male flower of the angiosperm. The zygote represent the first cell of sporophyte.
2. Presence of integument inside the ovule. Both plant groups absence seeds.
3. Pollen tube helps in the transfer of male nucleus in both. Presence of eustele.
4. Presence of well organised plant body which is differentiated into roots, stem and leaves.

Explanation

Presence of integument around the ovule. Both plant groups produce seeds.

111. Which among the following statement is correct regarding gymnosperm?

1. In gymnosperm Secondary growth is present. The wood may be Manoxylic (Porous, soft, more parenchyma with wide medullary ray -Cycas) or Pycnoxylic (compact with narrow medullary ray-Pinus).
2. Microsporangia and megasporangia are produced on microsporophyll and megasporophyll respectively. Male and female cones are absent. Anemophilous pollination is absent. Fertilization is siphonogamous and pollen tube helps in the transfer of female nuclei.
3. Polyembryony (presence of many embryo) is present. The naked ovule develops into seed. The endosperm is haploid and develop before fertilization. The life cycle shows alternation of generation. The sporophytic phase is dominant and gametophytic phase is highly reduced.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Microsporangia and megasporangia are produced on microsporophyll and megasporophyll respectively. Male and female cones are produced. Anemophilous pollination is present. Fertilization is siphonogamous and pollen tube helps in the transfer of male nuclei.

112. Sporne (1965) classified gymnosperms into how many classes?

1. Three
2. Five
3. Seven
4. Nine

Explanation

Sporne (1965) classified gymnosperms into 3 classes, 9 orders and 31 families.

113. Which among the following is not the classes of gymnosperm?

1. Cycadospsida
2. Steredospsida
3. Coniferopsida
4. Gnetopsida

Explanation

The classes of gymnosperm include i) Cycadospsida ii) Coniferopsida iii) Gnetopsida.

114. Which among the following statement is correct

1. In gymnosperm Vessels are present (except Gnetales). Phloem lacks companion cells, Ovules are naked and Wind pollination is maximum. Double fertilization is absent, Endosperm is haploid, Fruit formation is present and Flowers present.
2. In Angiosperm Vessels are present. Companion cells are present, Ovules are enclosed within the ovary, Insects, wind, water, animals etc., act as pollinating agents. Double fertilization is present, Endosperm is triploid, Fruit formation is present and Flowers present.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

In gymnosperm Vessels are absent (except Gnetales). Phloem lacks companion cells, Ovules are naked and Wind pollination only. Double fertilization is absent, Endosperm is haploid, Fruit formation is absent and Flowers absent.

115. Match the following gymnosperm plants with its economic products?

1. Pinus gerardiana – 1. Resin (Canada balsam)
2. Abies balsamea – 2. oil
3. Pinus roxburghii – 3. wood
4. Cedrus deodara – 4. Oleoresin
5. Cedrus atlantica – 5. Roasted seed
6. 2 – 1 – 3 – 5 – 4
7. 3 – 2 – 5 – 4 – 1
8. 4 – 5 – 3 – 2 – 1
9. 5 – 1 – 4 – 3 – 2

Explanation

1. Pinus gerardiana – Roasted seed – Used as a food; 2. Abies balsamea – Resin (Canada balsam) – Used as mounting medium in permanent slide preparation; 3. Pinus roxburghii – Oleoresin – Used to make soap, varnishes and printing ink; 4. Cedrus deodara – wood – Used to make doors, boats and railway sleepers; 5. Cedrus atlantica – oil – Used in perfumery.

116. Spermatophytes also include plants bearing ovules enclosed in a protective cover called ovary, such plants are called _____

1. Androsperm
2. Rhodosperm
3. Angiosperm
4. Pteridosperm

Explanation

Spermatophytes also include plants bearing ovules enclosed in a protective cover called ovary, such plants are called Angiosperms. They constitute major plant group of our earth and are adapted to the terrestrial mode of life. This group of plants appeared during the early cretaceous period (140 million years ago) and dominates the vegetation on a global scale.

117. In Angiosperm which is the dominant phase?

1. Gametophyte
2. Sporophyte
3. Endophyte
4. Xerophyte

Explanation

In Angiosperm sporophyte is the dominant phase and gametophyte is highly reduced.

118. Which among the following salient feature of angiosperm is incorrect

1. Vascular tissue (Xylem and Phloem) is well developed.
2. Cone are produced instead of flower. The Ovule remains open in the ovary
3. Pollen tube helps in fertilization, so water is not essential for fertilization.
4. Double fertilization is present. The endosperm is triploid.

Explanation

Flowers are produced instead of cone. The Ovule remains enclosed in the ovary.

119. Which among the following is not the classification of Angiosperm?

1. Dicotyledons
2. Monocotyledons
3. Boustrophedons
4. None of the above

Explanation

Angiosperms are broadly classified into two classes namely Dicotyledons and Monocotyledons.

120. Which among the following gymnosperm plant does not produce sago, in which starch used as food?

1. Cycas circinalis
2. Cycas revoluta
3. Ephedra gerardiana
4. None of the above

Explanation

Cycas circinalis, Cycas revoluta produce Sago, in which Starch used as food.

121. Which among the following morphological feature of Dicotyledons is incorrect

1. Reticulate venation is present in the flowers and stems.
2. Presence of two cotyledons in the seed.
3. Primary root radicle persists as tap root.
4. Flowers tetramerous or pentamerous.

Explanation

Reticulate venation is present in the leaves. Tricolpate (3 furrow) pollen is present

122. Which among the following anatomical feature of Dicotyledons is incorrect

1. Vascular bundles are arranged in the form of a ring in stem.
2. Vascular bundles are open (Cambium present).
3. Secondary growth is present.
4. None of the above

123. Which among the following plant (Gymnosperm) does not produce Rosin and Turpentine used for Paper sizing and varnishes?

1. Pinus insularis
2. Pinus roxburghii
3. Taxus brevifolia
4. None of the above

Explanation

Pinus insularis, Pinus roxburghii produce Rosin and Turpentine used for Paper sizing and varnishes.

124. Which among the following plant (Gymnosperm) produce Drug used for cancer treatment?

1. Ephedra gerardiana
2. Taxus brevifolia
3. Pinus roxburghii
4. All the above

Explanation

Taxus brevifolia produce Taxol (Drug) used for cancer treatment.

125. Which among the following morphological feature of monocotyledons is incorrect

1. Parallel venation is present in the leaves.
2. Presence of double cotyledon in the seed.
3. Radicle doesn’t persist and fibrous root is present.
4. Flowers trimerous. Monocolpate (1 furrow) Pollen is present

Explanation

Presence of single cotyledon in the seed.

126. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Anatomical features of Monocotyledons?

1. Vascular bundles are scattered in the stem
2. Vascular bundles are closed (Cambium absent)
3. Secondary growth is present
4. None of the above

Explanation

Secondary growth is absent in Monocotyledons.

127. Which among the following plant (Gymnosperm) is used for r the treatment of asthma, bronchititis?

1. Ephedra gerardiana
2. Picea smithiana
3. Cedrus deodara
4. All the above

Explanation

Ephedra gerardiana produce Ephedrine used for the treatment of asthma, bronchititis.

128. Which among the following plant (Gymnosperm) does not produce wood pulp used to make papers?

1. Pinus roxburghii
2. Cedrus atlantica
3. Picea smithiana
4. None of the above

Explanation

Pinus roxburghii, Picea smithiana produce Wood pulp used to make papers.

129. The National wood fossil park is situated in which district of Tamil Nadu?

1. Chengalpattu
2. Coimbatore
3. Madurai
4. Villupuram

Explanation

The National wood fossil park is situated in Tiruvakkarai, a Village of Villupuram district of Tamil Nadu. The park contains petrified wood fossils approximately 20 million years old.

130 Which among the following fossil park is incorrectly matched with its state?

1. Shiwalik fossil park – Himachal Pradesh
2. Mandla Fossil park – Gujarat
3. Rajmahal Hills – Assam
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Shiwalik fossil park-Himachal Pradesh, Mandla Fossil park-Madhya Pradesh, Rajmahal Hills–Jharkhand, Ariyalur – Tamilnadu are some of the fossil rich sites of India.

131. Which among the following plant (Gymnosperm) produce Tannins used for Bark yield tannins and is used in Leather industries?

1. Araucaria (Monkey’s puzzle)
2. Picea
3. Phyllocladus
4. All the above

Explanation

Araucaria (Monkey’s puzzle), Picea and Phyllocladus are plat produce Tannins used as Bark yield tannins and is used in Leather industries.

132. Which among the following is not the fossil algae?

1. Palaeoporella
2. Dimorphosiphon
3. Hepaticites
4. None of the above

Explanation

Fossil Algae – Palaeoporella, Dimorphosiphon.

133. Which among the following is not the fossil bryophytes?

1. Furcula
2. Naiadita
3. Hepaticites
4. Muscites

Explanation

Fossil Bryophytes – Naiadita, Hepaticites, Muscites.

134. Which among the following plant (Gymnosperm) is used as Ornamental plants/Floral Decoration?

1. Pinus gerardiana
2. Araucaria
3. Phyllocladus
4. Balsamea

Explanation

Thuja, Cupressus, Araucaria, and Cryptomeria are plant used as Ornamental plants/Floral Decoration.

135. Which among the following is not Fossil Pteridophytes?

1. Cooksonia
2. Rhynia
3. Baragwanthia
4. Lepidodendron

Explanation

Fossil Pteridophytes – Cooksonia, Rhynia,, Baragwanthia, Calamites.

136. Which among the following is not the fossil angiosperm?

1. Archaeanthus
2. Furcula
3. Medullosa
4. None of the above

Explanation

Fossil Angiosperms – Archaeanthus, Furcula.

137. Which among the following is not the fossil gymnosperm?

1. Medullosa
2. Lepidocarpon
3. Williamsonia
4. None of the above

Explanation

Fossil Gymnosperms – Medullosa, Lepidocarpon, Williamsonia, Lepidodendron.

138. Which term is used to name the fossil plants because the whole plant is not recovered as fossils instead organs or parts of the extinct plants are obtained in fragments?

1. Plot genera
2. Cameo genera
3. Form genera
4. Paleo genera

Explanation

The term ‘form genera’ is used to name the fossil plants because the whole plant is not recovered as fossils instead organs or parts of the extinct plants are obtained in fragments.

139. Who is the father of Indian Palaeobotany?

1. Prof. Birbal Sahni
2. Prof. Albert Seward
3. Prof. Meghnad Saha
4. Homi J. Bhabha

Explanation

Prof. Birbal Sahni (1891-1949) is Father of Indian Palaeobotany. He described Fossil plants from Rajmahal Hills of Eastern Bihar. Pentoxylon sahnii, Nipanioxylon are some of the form genera described by him.

140. Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaebotany is located in _____

1. Raipur
2. Lucknow
3. Ahmedabad
4. Ranchi

Explanation

Birbal Sahni Institute of Palaebotany is located in Lucknow.

141. Choose the correct statements.

i) Algae are heterotrophs and grow in specific habitats.

ii) Algae are grown only in aquatic marine and fresh waters.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Algae are autotrophs, and grow in a wide range of habitats. Majority of them are aquatic, marine (Gracilaria, and Sargassum) and freshwater (Oedogonium, and Ulothrix) and also found in soils (Fritschiella, and Vaucheria).

142. Which of the following is not involved with the asexual reproduction of algae?

a) Monospores

b) Stipuloides

c) Neutral spores

d) Tetraspores

Explanation

Asexual reproduction takes place by means of monospores, neutral spores and tetraspores in algae.

143. In which of these industries Gracilaria and Gigartina are used?

a) Cosmetic industry

b) Textile industry

c) Packaging canned food

d) All the above

Explanation

The algae used are Gracilaria, Gelidiella, and Gigartina. Packing canned food, cosmetic, textile paper industry.

144. Which of the following is not commercially grown in sea for phycocolloids?

a) Kappaphycus alvarezii

b) Fritschiella

c) Gracilaria edulis

d) Gelidiella acerosa

Explanation

A Productive Cultivation in Sea: Algae like Kappaphycus alvarezii, Gracilaria edulis and Gelidiella acerosa are commercially grown in the sea for harvesting the phycocolloids.

145. What are the types of appendages arise from the nodes of the thallus?

a) Branches of limited growth

b) Branches of unlimited growth

c) Stipuloides

d) All the above

Explanation

Thallus structure: The main axis is branched, long and is differentiated into nodes and internodes. Three types of appendages arise from the node. They are Branches of limited growth, Branches of unlimited growth and Stipuloides. The growth of the main axis and its branching takes place by the apical cell.

146. Which of these is not a reproducing method of chara?

a) Amorphous bulbils

b) Asexual reproduction

c) Oogamous

d) Amylum stars

Explanation

Chara reproduces by vegetative and sexual methods. Vegetative reproduction takes place by amylum stars, root bulbils, amorphous bulbils and secondary protonema. Sexual reproduction is oogamous.

147. Which of these genera was identified by Shiv Ram kashyap, Father of Indian Bryology?

a) Atchinsoniella

b) Sewardiella

c) Stephansoniella

d) All the above

Explanation

Shiv Ram Kashyap (1882-1934), Father of Indian Bryology. He published a book-‘Liverworts of Western Himalayas and Punjab Plains’ He identified new genera like Atchinsoniella, Sauchia, Sewardiella and Stephansoniella.

148. Identify the incorrect match of the classes of Bryophytes classified by Proskauer.

A. Bryopsida i) Polytrichum

B. Hepaticopsida ii) Marchantia

C. Anthocerotopsida iii) Riccia

a)i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Proskauer in the year 1957 classified Bryophytes into 3 Classes namely Hepaticopsida (Riccia, Marchantia, Porella and Riella), Anthocerotopsida (Anthoceros and Dendroceros) , Bryopsida (Funaria, Polytrichum and Sphagnum).

149. Which of the following is the higher form of bryophytes?

a) Anthocerotopsida

b) Bryopsida

c) Hepaticopsida

d) All the above

Explanation

Bryopsida are higher forms in which the gametophyte is differentiated into ‘stem’ like and ’leaf’ like parts and the former showing radial symmetry. Rhizoids are multi-cellular and branched. Protonemal stage is present. Sporophyte is differentiated into foot, seta

150. What are the usages of dead thalli of sphagnum, peat?

a) Commercial scale fuel.

b) Brown dye and tanning materials are derived.

c) Used as packing material in horticulture.

d) All the above

Explanation

Dead thalli of Sphagnum gets accumulated and compressed, hardened to form peat. In northern Europe (Netherlands) peat is used as fuel in commercial scale. Apart from this nitrates, brown dye and tanning materials are derived from peat. Sphagnum and peat are also used in horticulture as packing material because of their water holding capacity.

151. Choose the correct statements about the pteridophytes?

a) It is considered as first aquatic plants.

b) First plants to acquire non-vascular tissues.

c) Also known as Non-vascular cryptograms.

d) Club moss, Quill worts and water and tree ferns are pteridophytes.

Explanation

Pteridophytes which are considered as first true land plants. Further, they were the first plants to acquire vascular tissue namely xylem and phloem, hence called vascular cryptogams. Club moss, horsetails, quill worts, water ferns and tree ferns belong to this group.

152. Identify the Incorrect match of the economic importance of Pteridophytes.

A. Marsilea i) Food

B. Lycopodium ii) Ornamental plants

C. Pteris vittata iii) Biofertiliser

D. Pteridium iv) Bioremediation

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

.

153. Choose the Incorrect statements about selaginella.

i) Spike moss is the common name for selaginella.

ii) Selaginella is distributed in fresh water and is more aquatic.

iii) In dry seasons some species gets curled and become fresh when moisture is available.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Selaginella is commonly called ‘spike moss’. They are distributed in humid temperate and tropical rain forests. Selaginella rupestris and Selaginella lepidophylla are Xerophytic. Selaginella kraussiana, Selaginella chrysocaulos, Selaginella megaphylla are some common species. In few Selaginella species during dry season the entire plant body gets curled and become fresh, green when moisture is available. Due to this they are called Resurrection plants. Example S. lepidophylla

154. Based on which factor selaginella is divided into homoeophyllum and heterophyllum?

a) Reproduction methodology

b) Stem structure and arrangement of leaves.

c) Based on the region of habitat.

d) Structure of roots and flowers.

Explanation

On the basis of structure of stem and arrangement of leaves, Selaginella is divided into two sub genera namely Homoeophyllum and Heterophyllum.

155. Choose the incorrect statements about gymnosperms.

i) Dominant in the Jurassic and cretaceous periods of Mesozoic era.

ii) Distributed throughout the temperate and tropical regions of the world.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Gymnosperms (Gr. Gymnos = naked; sperma= seed) are naked seed producing plants. They were dominant in the Jurassic and Cretaceous periods of Mesozoic era. The members are distributed throughout the temperate and tropical region of the world.

156. Choose the correct statements.

i) Angiosperms ovules are naked.

ii) Double fertilization is present in angiosperms.

iii) Fruit formation and flowers are present in gymnosperms.

iv) Wind pollination only takes place in gymnosperms.

a) ii, iv only

b) i, iii, iv only

c) iii only

d) iii, iv only

Explanation

157. Which of the following is not a salient feature of angiosperms?

a) Vascular tissue as xylem and phloem is well developed.

b) Broadly classified into two classes, dicotyledons and monocotyledons.

c) Pollen tube helps in fertilization and water is essential for fertilization.

d) Flowers are produced instead of cone.

Explanation

Salient features of Angiosperms: Vascular tissue (Xylem and Phloem) is well developed. Flowers are produced instead of cone. The Ovule remains enclosed in the ovary. Pollen tube helps in fertilization, so water is not essential for fertilization. Double fertilization is present. The endosperm is triploid. Angiosperms are broadly classified into two classes namely Dicotyledons and Monocotyledons.

11th Science Lesson 11 Questions in English

11] Taxonomy and Systematic Botany

1. Which Greek Philosopher known as “Father of Botany”?

1. Dioscorides
2. Theophrastus
3. Aristotle
4. Parmenides

Explanation

Theophrastus (372 – 287 BC), the Greek Philosopher known as “Father of Botany”. He named and described some 500 plants in his “De Historia Plantarum”.

2. Which Greek physician, described and illustrated in his famous “Materia medica” and described about 600 medicinal plants?

1. Dioscorides
2. Heraclitus
3. Aristotle
4. Parmenides

Explanation

Dioscorides (62 – 127 AD), Greek physician, described and illustrated in his famous “Materia medica” and described about 600 medicinal plants. From 16th century onwards Europe has witnessed a major-developments in the field of Taxonomy.

3. Who among the in year 1753 published s ‘Species Plantarum’ laid strong foundation for the binomial nomenclature?

1. Andrea Caesalpino
2. Carl Linnaeus
3. John Ray
4. Tournefort

Explanation

Carl Linnaeus ‘Species Plantarum’ (1753) laid strong foundation for the binomial nomenclature. Taxonomy is no more classical morphology-based discipline but become a dynamic and transdisciplinary subject, making use of many branches of botany.

4. Which among the following is not the branches of botany?

1. Physiology
2. Biochemistry
3. Ecology
4. Dermatology

Explanation

Branches of botany are such as Cell Biology, Physiology, Biochemistry, Ecology, Pharmacology and also Modern Biotechnology, Molecular Biology and Bioinformatics. It helps to understand biodiversity, wildlife, forest management of natural resources for sustainable use of plants and eco restoration.

5. Which is defined as as “the science dealing with the study of classification including the bases, principles, rules and procedures”?

1. Taxonomy
2. Systematics
3. Physiology
4. All the above

Explanation

The word taxonomy is derived from Greek words “taxis” (arrangement) and “nomos” (rules or laws). Taxonomy is defined as as “the science dealing with the study of classification including the bases, principles, rules and procedures”.

6. Who defined Systematics as, “Scientific study of the kinds and diversity of organisms and all relationships among them”?

1. Andrea Caesalpino
2. John Ray
3. Simpson
4. Tournefort

Explanation

Simpson (1961) defined Systematics as, “Scientific study of the kinds and diversity of organisms and all relationships among them”. Though there are two terms (Taxonomy and Systematics) are used in an interchangeable way, they differ from each other.

7. Which among the following point regarding Taxonomy is incorrect?

1. Discipline of classifying organisms into taxa.
2. Governs the evolutionary history and phylogenetic relationship in addition to taxonomy.
3. Classification + Nomenclature = Taxonomy
4. None of the above

Explanation

Governs the practices of naming, describing, identifying and specimen preservation.

8. Which among the following is s the lowest of classification and shows the high level of similarities among the organisms?

1. Species
2. Genus
3. Class
4. Family

Explanation

Species is the lowest of classification and shows the high level of similarities among the organisms. For example, Helianthus annuus and Helianthus tuberosus. These two species differ in their morphology. Both of them are herbs but Helianthus tuberosus is a perennial herb.

9. Which among the following comprises a number of genera which share some similarities among them?

1. Family
2. Gene
3. Class
4. Order

Explanation

Family comprises a number of genera which share some similarities among them. Example: Asteraceae.

10. Which among the following point regarding systematics is incorrect?

1. Narrow field of biology that studies the diversification of class.
2. Governs the evolutionary history and phylogenetic relationship in addition to taxonomy.
3. Taxonomy + Phylogeny = Systematics.
4. None of the above

Explanation

Broad field of biology that studies the diversification of species.

11. Which among the following consists of multiple species which have similar characters but differ from the species of another genus?

1. Order
2. Genus
3. Class
4. Division

Explanation

Genus consists of multiple species which have similar characters but differ from the species of another genus. Example: Helianthus, Tridax.

12. Which is the highest level or rank of the classification?

1. Order
2. Division
3. Kingdom
4. Class

Explanation

Kingdom is the highest level or rank of the classification. Example: Plantae.

13. Which includes group of families which show less similarities among them?

1. Class
2. Division
3. Order
4. All the above

Explanation

Order includes group of families which show less similarities among them. Class consists of group of orders which share few similarities. Division is the next level of classification that consists of number of classes. Example: Magnoliophyta.

14. Which among the following is not the characters of species?

1. A population of organisms which closely resemble each other more than the other population.
2. They descend from a different ancestor
3. In sexually reproducing organisms, they interbreed freely in nature, producing fertile offspring
4. None of the above

Explanation

Species is the fundamental unit of taxonomic classification. Species is a group of individual organisms which have the following characters. 1. A population of organisms which closely resemble each other more than the other population. 2. They descend from a common ancestor. 3. In sexually reproducing organisms, they interbreed freely in nature, producing fertile offspring

15. Which among the following is not the type of species?

1. Biological Species
2. Morphological Species
3. Phylogenetic Species
4. Cryogenic species

Explanation

Species concepts can be classified into two general groups. Concept emphasizing process of evolution that maintains the species as a unit and that can result in evolutionary divergence and speciation. Another concept emphasises the product of evolution in defining a species. They are 1. Process of evolution – Biological Species 2. Product of evolution – Morphological Species and Phylogenetic Species.

16. When the individuals are similar to one another in one or more features and different from other such groups, they are called ____

1. Biological species
2. Morphological species
3. Phylogenetic species
4. None of the above

Explanation

When the individuals are similar to one another in one or more features and different from other such groups, they are called morphological species.

17. According to whom, biological species are groups of populations that interbreed and are reproductively isolated from other such groups in nature?

1. Will Provine
2. Ernest Mayr
3. Charles Darwin
4. George Simpson

Explanation

According to Ernest Mayr 1963, “biological species are groups of populations that interbreed and are reproductively isolated from other such groups in nature”.

18. Who among the following was not the part of development of concept of Phylogenetic Species?

1. Meglitsch
2. Dawkins
3. Simpson
4. Wiley

Explanation

Phylogenetic Species concept was developed by Meglitsch (1954), Simpson (1961) and Wiley (1978). Wiley defined phylogenetic species as “an evolutionary species is a single lineage of ancestor descendent populations which maintains its identity from other such lineages which has its own evolutionary tendencies and historical fate”.

19. Assigning name for a plant is known as _____

1. Primogeniture
2. Peradventure
3. Nomenclature
4. Quadrature

Explanation

Assigning name for a plant is known as Nomenclature. This is based on the rules and recommendations of the International Code of Botanical Nomenclature. ICBN deals with the names of existing (living) and extinct (fossil) organisms.

20. In 1813 a detailed set of rules regarding plant nomenclature was given by whom in his famous work “Theorie elementaire de la botanique”?

1. A.P. de Candolle
2. Ernest Haeckel
3. Charles Darwin
4. Gregor Mendel

Explanation

In 1813 a detailed set of rules regarding plant nomenclature was given by A.P. de Candolle in his famous work “Theorie elementaire de la botanique”. Then the present ICBN was evolved by following the same rules of Linnaeus, A.P. de Candolle and his son Alphonse de Candolle.

21. Where the International Botanical Congress held in July 2011 brought the change i.e., ICBN is redesignated as ICN?

1. New York
2. Stockholm
3. Melbourne
4. Hong Kong

Explanation

ICBN due to specific reasons and in order to separate plant kingdom from other organisms, is redesignated as ICN. The International Botanical Congress held in Melbourne in July 2011 brought this change. The ICN stands for International Code of Nomenclature for Algae, Fungi and Plants.

22. Which among the following principles of ICN is incorrect?

1. Botanical nomenclature is dependent of both zoological and bacteriological nomenclature.
2. Application of names of taxonomic group is determined by means of nomenclatural types
3. Nomenclature of a taxonomic group is based on priority of publication.
4. Each taxonomic group with a particular circumscription, position and rank can bear only one correct name.

Explanation

Botanical nomenclature is independent of zoological and bacteriological nomenclature.

23. Scientific names of taxonomic groups are treated as what regardless of their derivation?

1. Greek
2. Latin
3. Hebrew
4. Lithuanian

Explanation

Scientific names of taxonomic groups are treated as Latin regardless of their derivation. The rules of nomenclature are retroactive unless expressly limited.

24. What is the time interval in which International Botanical Congress is held at different places?

1. Five years
2. Six years
3. Nine years
4. Ten years

Explanation

ICN has formulated a set of rules and recommendations dealing with the botanical name of plants. International Botanical Congress is held at different places every six years. Proposals for nomenclatural changes and changes in rules are discussed and implemented. Changes are published in their website.

25. Sexual reproductive stage of fungus is known as _____

1. Anamorph
2. Teleomorph
3. Morphotaxa
4. All the above

Explanation

Anamorph – Asexual reproductive stage of fungus. Teleomorph – Sexual reproductive stage of fungus.

26. Which among the following statement is correct regarding major changes made in 18th International Botanical Congress held in 2011at Melbourne?

1. The code now permits electronic publication of names of new taxa. Latin diagnosis or description is not mandatory and permits the use of English or Latin for the publication of a new name (Art-39).
2. “One fungus, many name” and “one fossil many name” are important changes, the concept of anamorph and teleomorph (for fungi) and morphotaxa (for fossils) have been added. (Previously, sexual and asexual stages of the fungus/ fossils were provided with same names).
3. As an experiment with “registration of names” new fungal descriptions require the use of an identifier from a “recognized repository”. There are two recognized repositories Index fungorum and Myco Bank.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

“One fungus, one name” and “one fossil one name” are important changes, the concept of anamorph and teleomorph (for fungi) and morphotaxa (for fossils) have been eliminated. (Previously, sexual and asexual stages of the fungus/ fossils were provided with different names).

27. Where 19th International Botanical Congress was held in 2017?

1. Brazil
2. Sweden
3. Mexico
4. China

Explanation

19th International Botanical Congress was held in Shenzhen in China in 2017.

28. Which among the following is also known as common name?

1. Vernacular names
2. Scientific names
3. Botanical names
4. All the above

Explanation

Vernacular names are known as common names. They are very often descriptive and poetic references to plants. Common name refers to more than one plant or many plants may have same common name. These names are regional or local and are not universal. Example: Albizia amara. L belongs to Mimosaceae is called as Usilai in South Tamil Nadu and Thurinji in North Tamil Nadu.

29. What is the scientific name of the paddy?

1. Triticum
2. Zea Mays
3. Oryza sativa
4. Hordeum Vulgare

Explanation

Each and every taxon as per the ICN (species, genus, family etc) can have only one correct scientific name. Scientific name of a species is always a binomial. These names are universally applied. Example: Oryza sativa L. is the scientific name of paddy.

30. Which among the following statement is correct?

1. Polynomial is a descriptive phrase of a plant. Example: Ranunculus calycibus retroflexis pedunculis falcatis caule erecto folius compositis. It means butter cup with reflexed sepals, curved flower stalks, erect stem and compound leaves. Polynomial system of naming a plant is replaced by a binomial system by Linnaeus.
2. Binomial nomenclature was first introduced by John Ray and it was implemented by Carolus Linnaeus. Scientific name of a species consists of two words and according to binomial nomenclature, the first one is called specific name and second one is genus epithet. Example: Mangifera indica. Mangifera is a specific name and indica is genus epithet.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Binomial nomenclature was first introduced by Gaspard Bauhin and it was implemented by Carolus Linnaeus. Scientific name of a species consists of two words and according to binomial nomenclature, the first one is called genus name and second one is specific epithet. Example: Mangifera indica. Mangifera is a genus name and indica is specific epithet. This system is in vogue even now.

31. Which refers to valid name of the taxa accompanied by the author’s name who published the name validly?

1. Author citation
2. Author solation
3. Author ablation
4. Author traction

Explanation

Author citation refers to valid name of the taxa accompanied by the author’s name who published the name validly. Example: Solanum nigrum L. There are two types of author citation. They are Single author (Example: Pithecellobium cinereum Benth) and Multiple author (Example: Delphinium viscosum Hook. f. et Thomson).

32. Which is the largest botanical garden in the world, established in 1760, but officially opened in the year 1841?

1. Royal Botanic Garden Kew
2. Paris Botanical Garden Lin
3. National Botanical Garden Lucknow
4. All the above

Explanation

Royal Botanic Garden Kew- England is a non- departmental public body in the United Kingdom. It is the largest botanical garden in the world, established in 1760, but officially opened in the year 1841. Plant collections include Aquatic garden, Arboretum with 14,000 trees, Bonsai collection, Cacti collection and Carnivorous plant collection.

33. Some techniques, procedures and stored information that are useful in identification and classification of organisms in taxonomic are called _____

1. Taxonomic box
2. Taxonomic aids
3. Taxonomic shuttle
4. Taxonomic clove

Explanation

Taxonomic aids are the tools for the taxonomic study. Some techniques, procedures and stored information that are useful in identification and classification of organisms are called taxonomical aids. They are required in almost all branches of biological studies for their proper identification and for finding their relationship with others.

34. Which among the following is not the taxonomic aids?

1. Flora
2. Revisions
3. Botanical garden
4. None of the above

Explanation

Some of the taxonomical aids are keys, flora, revisions, monograph, catalogues, herbarium, botanical gardens etc.

35. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Taxonomic keys are the tools for the identification of unfamiliar plants. These keys are based on characters which are stable and reliable. The most common type of key is a dichotomous key. It consists of a sequence of two contrasting statements.
2. A pair of contrasting statements is known as couplet. Each statement is known as lead. The plant is correctly identified with keys by narrowing down the characters found in plant.
3. Another type of key for identification is the Polyclave or Multi-entry key. It consists of a list of numerous character states. The user selects all states that match the specimen. Polyclave keys are implemented by a computer algorithm.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

36. In which among the following the famous “hanging gardens” of Babylon is located?

1. Peru
2. Mesopotamia
3. Rome
4. China

Explanation

In true sense all gardens are not botanical gardens. Botanical gardens are centres for collection of plants in their various stages of living. Gardens existed for growing ornamental plants for aesthetic value, religious and status reasons. The famous “hanging gardens” of Babylon in Mesopotamia is an example.

37. For the purpose of science and education the first garden was maintained by whom in his public lecture hall at Athens?

1. Aristotle
2. Hippocrates
3. Carneades
4. Theophrastus

Explanation

For the purpose of science and education the first garden was maintained by Theophrastus in his public lecture hall at Athens. Botanical garden contains special plant collections such as cacti, succulent, green house, shade house, tropical, alpine and exotic plants.

38. Where the First modern botanical garden was established by Luca Ghini (1490-1556) a professor of Botany?

1. Greek
2. Mexico
3. Italy
4. Sweden

Explanation

First modern botanical garden was established by Luca Ghini (1490-1556) a professor of Botany at Pisa, Italy in 1544. Worldwide there are about 1800 botanical gardens and arboreta.

39. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Role of Botanical Garden?

1. Gardens with aesthetic value which attract a large number of visitors. For example, the Great Banyan Tree (Ficus benghalensis) in the Indian Botanical Garden at Kolkata. Gardens have a wide range of species and supply taxonomic material for botanical research.
2. Garden is used for self-instruction or demonstration purposes. It can integrate information of diverse fields like Anatomy, Embryology, Phytochemistry, Cytology, Physiology and Ecology.
3. Act as a conservation centre for diversity, rare and endangered species. It offers annual list of available species and a free exchange of seeds. Botanical garden gives information about method of propagation, sale of plant material to the general public.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Gardens with aesthetic value which attract a large number of visitors. For example, the Great Banyan Tree (Ficus benghalensis) in the Indian Botanical Garden at Kolkata. Gardens have a wide range of species and supply taxonomic material for botanical research.

40. Which are store houses of preserved plant collections in which plants are preserved in the form of pressed and dried specimens mounted on a sheet of paper?

1. Monograph
2. Catalogue
3. Revisions
4. Herbaria

Explanation

Herbaria are store houses of preserved plant collections. Plants are preserved in the form of pressed and dried specimens mounted on a sheet of paper. Herbaria act as a centre for research and function as sources of material for systematic work. Herbarium Specimen is defined as a pressed and dried plant sample that is permanently glued or strapped to a sheet of paper along with a documentation label.

41. Which among the following step is not involved in Preparation of herbarium specimen?

1. Plant collection
2. Documentation of field site data
3. Preparation of plant specimen
4. Radiating herbarium specimen

Explanation

Preparation of herbarium specimen includes the following steps. 1. Plant collection: Field collection, Liquid preserved collection, Living collection, Collection for molecular studies. 2. Documentation of field site data 3. Preparation of plant specimen 4. Mounting herbarium specimen 5. Herbarium labels. 6. Protection of herbarium sheets against mold and insects.

42. Which among the following statement is correct regarding uses of herbarium?

1. Herbarium provides resource material for systematic research and studies. It is a place for orderly arrangement of voucher specimens. Voucher specimen serves as a reference for comparing doubtful newly collected fresh specimens.
2. Voucher specimens play a role in studies like floristic diversity, environmental assessment, ecological mechanisms and survey of unexplored areas. Herbarium provides opportunity for documenting biodiversity and studies related to the field of ecology and conservation biology.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

43. Where Kew Garden is situated?

1. Paris
2. London
3. Tokyo
4. New York

Explanation

Kew Garden is situated in South West London that houses the “largest and most diverse botanical and mycological collections in the world” founded in the year 1840. Living collection includes more than 30,000 different kinds of plants. While herbarium which is one of the largest in the world has over seven million preserved plant specimens.

44. Which is the world’s smallest water lily was saved from extinction when it was grown from seed at Kew in 2009?

1. Nymphaea thermarum
2. Nymphaea rudgeana
3. Nymphaea macrosperma
4. Nymphaea ondinae

Explanation

World’s smallest water lily Nymphaea thermarum was saved from extinction when it was grown from seed at Kew in 2009.

45. Which among the following Herbarium is incorrectly matched with its country?

1. Museum National d’Histoire Naturelle (1635) – France
2. New York Botanical Garden, Bronx (1891) – U.S.A
3. Komarov Botanical Institute (1823) – New Zealand
4. Royal Botanic Gardens, Kew (1841) – U.K

Explanation

Komarov Botanical Institute, St.Petersburg (Leningrad), Russia.

46. Which among the following statement is correct regarding classification of plants?

1. Classification is essential to biology because there is a vast diversity of organisms to sort out and compare. Unless they are organized into manageable categories it will be difficult for identification.
2. Biological classifications are the inventions of biologists based upon the best evidence available. The scientific basis for cataloguing and retrieving information about the tremendous diversity of flora is known as classification.
3. Classification paves way for the arrangement of organisms into groups on the basis of their similarities, dissimilarities and relationships. The purpose of classification is to provide a systematic arrangement expressing the relationship between the organisms.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

47. Which among the following is not the classification of Taxonomic entities?

1. Artificial classification
2. Natural classification
3. Phylogenetic classification
4. Inferae classification

Explanation

Taxonomic entities are classified in three ways. They are artificial classification, natural classification and phylogenetic classification.

48. Who was appointed as officer on special Duty for Botanical Survey of India on 14th Oct 1952?

1. Asima Chatterjee
2. Anna Mani
3. Janaki Ammal
4. Birbal Sahni

Explanation

On 13 February 1890, a survey was formally constituted and designated as the Botanical Survey of India. After independence, the need was felt for a more comprehensive documentation of the country’s plant resources to boost the economy. Padmashree Dr.E.K.Janaki Ammal was appointed as officer on special Duty on 14th Oct 1952. Then reorganization plan was finally approved by the Govt. of India on 29 March 1954.

49. Where headquarters of Botanical survey of India is located?

1. Delhi
2. Mumbai
3. Calcutta
4. Chennai

Explanation

Calcutta is the headquarters of BSI (Botanical Survey of India). Jammu Tavi Botanical Garden has been named after Dr. E. K. Janaki Ammal.

50. Match the following Herbarium with its established year

1. Madras Herbarium BSI campus, Coimbatore – 1. 1795
2. Central National Herbarium West Bengal – 2. 1844
3. Presidency College Herbarium, Chennai – 3. 1955
4. Tropical Botanical Garden and Research Institute, Kerala – 4. 1979
5. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
6. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
7. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
8. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

Explanation

1. Madras Herbarium BSI campus, Coimbatore – 1955, 2. Central National Herbarium West Bengal – 1795, 3. Presidency College Herbarium, Chennai – 1844 and 4. Jawaharlal Nehru Tropical Botanical Garden and Research Institute Thiruvananthapuram, Kerala – 1979.

51. Taxonomists have assigned a method of classifying organisms which are called ____

1. Orders
2. Divisions
3. Ranks
4. Spies

Explanation

Taxonomists have assigned a method of classifying organisms which are called ranks. These taxonomical ranks are hierarchical. The scheme of classification has to be flexible, allowing newly discovered living organisms to be added where they fit best.

52. Who was a great Swedish Botanist and said to be the “Father of Taxonomy.”?

1. Charles Darwin
2. Carolus Linnaeus
3. Antonie Van Leeuwenhoek
4. Ernest Haeckel

Explanation

Carolus Linnaeus (1707 -1778) was a great Swedish Botanist and said to be the “Father of Taxonomy.” He outlined an artificial system of classification in “Species Plantarum” in 1753, wherein he listed and described 7,300 species and arranged in 24 classes mostly on the basis of number, union (adhesion and cohesion), length, and distribution of stamens.

53. Carl Linnaeus system of classification is also known as _____

1. Root system of classification
2. Sexual system of classification
3. Greenery system of classification
4. Maiden system of classification

Explanation

Carl Linnaeus system of classification is also known as sexual system of classification. The classes were further subdivided on the basis of carpel characteristics into orders.

54. Which among the following statement is correct regarding carl Linnaeus system of classification

1. This system of classification though artificial, was continued for more than 100 years after the death of Linnaeus, due to its simplicity and easy way of identification of plants. However the system could not hold good due to the following reasons.
2. Totally unrelated plants were kept in a single group, whereas closely related plants were placed in widely separated groups. Example: Zingiberaceae of dicotyledons and Anacardiaceae of tricotyledonous were placed under the class Monandria since these possess two stamens.
3. Prunus was classified along with Cactus because of the same number of stamens. No attempts were made to classify plants based on either natural or phylogenetic relationships which exist among plant groups
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Totally unrelated plants were kept in a single group, whereas closely related plants were placed in widely separated groups. Example: Zingiberaceae of monocotyledons and Anacardiaceae of dicotyledonous were placed under the class Monandria since these possess single stamens.

55. Who presented the first scheme of Natural system classification based on overall similarities?

1. Antoine Laurent de Jessieu
2. George Bentham
3. Joseph Dalton Hooker
4. Adolph Engler

Explanation

An approach to a natural system of classification sprouted in France. The first scheme of classification based on overall similarities was presented by Antoine Laurent de Jessieu in 1789.

56. A widely followed natural system of classification proposed by two English botanist George Bentham and Joseph Dalton Hooker was published in a three volume work as _____

1. Specie plantarum
2. Genera plantarum
3. Capsule plantarum
4. Module plantarum

Explanation

A widely followed natural system of classification considered the best was proposed by two English botanist George Bentham (1800 – 1884) and Joseph Dalton Hooker (1817–1911). The classification was published in a three volume work as “Genera Plantarum” (1862–1883) describing 202 families and 7569 genera and 97,205 species.

57. Which among the following is not the classification of seeded plant according to Natural system?

1. Dicotyledonae
2. Gymnospermae
3. Entomofaunae
4. Monocotyledonae.

Explanation

In Natural system the seeded plants were classified into 3 major classes such as Dicotyledonae, Gymnospermae and Monocotyledonae.

58. Which among the following statement is incorrect?

1. Dicotyledonae Plants contain two cotyledons in their seed, leaves with reticulate venation, tap root system and tetramerous or pentamerous flowers come under this class.
2. Gymnospermae Plants that contain no seeds come under this class. Gymnospermae includes two families – Gnetaceae and Cycadaceae.
3. Monocotyledonae Plants contain only one cotyledon in their seed, leaves with parallel venation, fibrous root system and trimerous flowers come under this class.
4. None of the above

Explanation

Gymnospermae Plants that contain naked seeds come under this class. Gymnospermae includes three families – Gnetaceae, Coniferae and Cycadaceae.

59. Plants with free petals and dichlamydeous flowers come under ____

1. Polypetalae
2. Gamopetalae
3. Heteromerae
4. Monochlamydeae

Explanation

Polypetalae: Plants with free petals and dichlamydeous flowers come under polypetalae.

60. Which among the following is not the division of Polypetalae?

1. Thalamiflorae
2. Disciflorae
3. Calyciflorae
4. Inferae

Explanation

Polypetalae is further divided into three series – Thalamiflorae, Disciflorae and Calyciflorae.

61. Which among the following statement is incorrect?

1. Thalamiflorae: Plants having flowers with dome or conical shaped thalamus and superior ovary are included in this series. It includes 6 orders and 34 families.
2. Disciflorae: Flowers having prominent disc shaped thalamus with inferior ovary come under this series. It includes 9 orders and 25 families.
3. Calyciflorae: It includes plants having flowers with cup shaped thalamus and with inferior or sometimes with half inferior ovary. Calyciflorae includes 5 orders and 27 families.
4. None of the above

Explanation

Disciflorae: Flowers having prominent disc shaped thalamus with superior ovary come under this series. It includes 4 orders and 23 families.

62. Plants with united petals, which are either partially or completely fused to one another and dichlamydeous are placed under _____

1. Polypetalae
2. Gamopetalae
3. Monochlamydeae
4. None of the above

Explanation

Plants with united petals, which are either partially or completely fused to one another and dichlamydeous are placed under Gamopetalae.

63. Which among the following is not the division of Gamopetalae?

1. Aspiratae
2. Inferae
3. Heteromerae
4. Bicarpellatae

Explanation

Gamopetalae is further divided into three series – Inferae, Heteromerae and Bicarpellatae.

64. Which among the following statement is incorrect

1. Inferae: The flowers are epigynous and with inferior ovary. Inferae includes 3 orders and 9 families.
2. Heteromerae: The flowers are hypogynous, inferior ovary and with two carpels. Heteromerae includes 3 orders and 12 families.
3. Bicarpellatae: The flowers are hypogynous, superior ovary and with two carpels. Bicarpellatae includes 4 orders and 24 families
4. None of the above

Explanation

Heteromerae: The flowers are hypogynous, superior ovary and with more than two carpels. Heteromerae includes 3 orders and 12 families.

65. In Monochlamydeae sepals and petals are not distinguished and they are called ___

1. Dozenth
2. Hydranth
3. Colocynth
4. Perianth

Explanation

Plants with incomplete flowers either apetalous or with undifferentiated calyx and corolla are placed under Monochlamydeae. The sepals and petals are not distinguished and they are called perianth. Sometimes both the whorls are absent. Monochlamydeae includes 8 series and 36 families.

66. The Monocotyledonae has how many series and families?

1. 4 series and 27 families
2. 7 series and 34 families
3. 9 series and 39 families
4. 11 series and 40 families

Explanation

The Monocotyledonae has 7 series and 34 families.

67. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Bentham and Hooker system of classification

1. The Bentham and Hooker system of classification is still supposed to be the best system of classification. It has been widely practiced in colonial countries and herbaria of those countries were organised based on this system and is still used as a key for the identification of plants in some herbaria of the world due to the following reasons.
2. Description of plants is quite accurate and reliable, because it is mainly based on personal studies from actual specimens and not mere comparisons of known facts. As it is easy to follow, it is used as a key for the identification of plants in several herbaria of the world.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

68. The publication of the Origin of Species (1859) by whom has given stimulus for the emergence of phylogenetic system of classification?

1. Alfred Wallace
2. Charles Darwin
3. Gregor Mendel
4. Charles Dickens

Explanation

The publication of the Origin of Species (1859) by Charles Darwin has given stimulus for the emergence of phylogenetic system of classification.

69. Two German botanists Adolph Engler (1844 -1930) and Karl A Prantl (1849 – 1893) published their classification in a monumental work known as _____

1. “Die Naturelichen Pflanzen Familien”
2. “Die Naturelichen Pflanzen Specien”
3. “Die Naturelichen Sclanzen Familien”
4. “Die Naturelichen Sclanzen Specien”

Explanation

One of the earliest phylogenetic system of classification of the entire plant Kingdom was jointly proposed by two German botanists Adolph Engler ( 1844 -1930) and Karl A Prantl (1849 – 1893). They published their classification in a monumental work “Die Naturelichen Pflanzen Familien” in 23 volumes (1887-1915).

70. In Phylogenetic system of classification the plant kingdom was divided into how many divisions?

1. Nine
2. Eleven
3. Thirteen
4. Fifteen

Explanation

In Phylogenetic system of classification, the plant kingdom was divided into 13 divisions. The first 11 divisions are Thallophytes, twelfth division is Embryophyta Asiphonogama (plants with embryos but no pollen tubes; Bryophytes and Pteridophytes) and the thirteenth division is Embryophyta Siphonogama (plants with embryos and pollen tubes) which includes seed plants.

71. Who is an eminent American taxonomist proposed phylogenetic classification of flowering plants based on a wide range of taxonomic characters including anatomical and phytochemical characters of phylogenetic importance?

1. Arthur Cronquist
2. Adolph Engler
3. Thomas Malthus
4. Louis Paster

Explanation

Arthur Cronquist (1919 – 1992) an eminent American taxonomist proposed phylogenetic classification of flowering plants based on a wide range of taxonomic characters including anatomical and phytochemical characters of phylogenetic importance.

72. Arthur Cronquist has presented his classification in 1968 in his book titled _____

1. The evolution and classification of seedling plants
2. The evolution and classification of flowering plants
3. The evolution and classification of hydro plants
4. The evolution and classification of macro plants

Explanation

Arthur Cronquist has presented his classification in 1968 in his book titled “The evolution and classification of flowering plants.” His classification is broadly based on the Principles of phylogeny that finds acceptance with major contemporary authors.

73. Which among the following not classification of angiosperms into classes by Cronquist?

1. Magnoliopsida
2. Liliopsid
3. Aglaspida
4. None of the above

Explanation

Cronquist classified the angiosperms into two main classes Magnoliopsida (=dicotyledons) and Liliopsida (= monocotyledons). There are 6 subclasses, 64 orders, 320 families and about 165,000 species in Magnoliopsida, whereas in Liliopsida there are 5 sub classes, 19 orders, 66 families and about 50,000 species.

74. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Angiosperm phylogeny group (APG) classification?

1. Angiosperm phylogeny group (APG) classification is the most recent classification of flowering plants based on phylogenetic data was set in the last decade of twentieth century. Four versions of Angiosperm Phylogenetic Group classification (APG I, APG II, APG III & APG IV) have been published in 1998, 2003, 2009 and 2016 respectively.
2. Each version supplants the previous version. Recognition of monophyletic group based on the information received from various disciplines such as gross morphology, anatomy, embryology, palynology, karyology, phytochemistry and more strongly on molecular data with respect to DNA sequences of two chloroplast genes (atpB and rbcL) and one nuclear gene (nuclear ribosomal 18s DNA).
3. The most recent updated version, APG IV (2016) recognised 68 orders and 281 families. Of these, 164 families 259 are represented in India. The outline of APG IV classification is given below. Angiosperms are classified into two clades monocots and eudicots. Monocots are classified into 8 orders and 26 families (ANAclade + magnoliids + Chloranthales).
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The most recent updated version, APG IV (2016) recognised 64 orders and 416 families. Of these, 416 families 259 are represented in India. The outline of APG IV classification is given below. Angiosperms are classified into three clades early angiosperms, monocots and eudicots. Early angiosperms are classified into 8 orders and 26 families (ANA clade + magnoliids + Chloranthales). APG system is yet to percolate into the Indian botanical curriculum.

75. APG III system is accepted in which among the following country?

1. USA
2. UK
3. Canada
4. All the above

Explanation

A significant number of major herbaria, including Kew are changing the order of their collections in accordance with APG. A recent photographic survey of the plants of USA and Canada is organized according to the APG III system. In UK, the latest edition of the standard flora of the British Isles written by Stace is based on the APG III system. The influential world checklist of selected plant families (also from kew) is being updated to the APG III system.

76. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Taxonomists now accept that; the morphological characters alone should not be considered in systematic classification of plants. The complete knowledge of taxonomy is possible with the principles of various disciplines like Cytology, Genetics, Anatomy, Physiology, Geographical Distribution, Embryology, Ecology, Palynology, Phenology, Bio-Chemistry, Numerical Taxonomy and Transplant Experiments.
2. These have been found to be useful in solving some of the taxonomical problems by providing additional characters. It has changed the face of classification from alpha (classical) to omega (modern kind). Thus, the new systematic has evolved into a better taxonomy.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

77. Which is the scientific approach of classification of plants on the basis of their biochemical constituents?

1. Karyotaxonomy
2. Chemotaxonomy
3. Biosystematics
4. Molecular taxonomy

Explanation

Proteins, amino acids, nucleic acids, peptides etc. are the most studied chemicals in chemotaxonomy. Chemotaxonomy is the scientific approach of classification of plants on the basis of their biochemical constituents.

78. Which among the following are more closely controlled by genes and less subjected to natural selection, it has been used at all hierarchical levels of classification starting from the rank of ‘variety’ up to the rank of division in plants?

1. Protein
2. Amino acid
3. Peptides
4. All the above

Explanation

As proteins are more closely controlled by genes and less subjected to natural selection, it has been used at all hierarchical levels of classification starting from the rank of ‘variety’ up to the rank of division in plants. Aims of chemotaxonomy 1. To develop taxonomic characters which may improve existing system of plant classification. 2. To improve present day knowledge of phylogeny of plants

79. In Chemotaxonomy, chemical characters can be divided into how many categories?

1. Two
2. Three
3. Four
4. Five

Explanation

In Chemotaxonomy chemical characters can be divided into three main categories. 1. Easily visible characters like starch grains, silica. 2. Characters detected by chemical tests like phenolics, oil, fats, waxes. 3. Proteins.

80. The term biosystematics was introduced by whom in 1943?

1. Camp and Gilly
2. David and Mayhem
3. Lawrence and John F
4. None of the above

Explanation

Biosystematics is an “Experimental, ecological and cytotaxonomy” through which life forms are studied and their relationships are defined. The term biosystematics was introduced by Camp and Gilly in 1943. Many authors feel Biosystematics is closer to Cytogenetics and Ecology and much importance given not to classification but to evolution.

81. Which among the following aims of biosystematics is incorrect

1. To delimit the naturally occurring biotic community of plant species.
2. To establish the evolution of a group of taxa by understanding the evolutionary and phylogenetic trends.
3. To involve any type of data gathering based on traditional concepts and only on morphology and anatomy.
4. To recognize the various groups as separate biosystematic categories such as ecotypes, ecospecies, cenospecies and comparium.

Explanation

To involve any type of data gathering based on modern concepts and not only on morphology and anatomy.

82. Which among the following are the carriers of genetic information?

1. Cell wall
2. Chromosomes
3. Mitochondria
4. Plasma

Explanation

Chromosomes are the carriers of genetic information. Increased knowledge about the chromosomes have been used for extensive biosystematic studies and resolving many taxonomic problems.

83. Utilization of the characters and phenomena of cytology for the explanation of taxonomic problem is known ____

1. Serotaxonomy
2. Molecular taxonomy
3. Karyotaxonomy
4. All the above

Explanation

Utilization of the characters and phenomena of cytology for the explanation of taxonomic problem is known as cytotaxonomy or karyotaxonomy. The characters of chromosome such as number, size, morphology and behaviour during meiosis have proved to be of taxonomic value.

84. The classification of very similar plants by means of differences in the proteins they contain, to solve taxonomic problems is called ____

1. Serotaxonomy
2. Molecular taxonomy
3. Karyotaxonomy
4. All the above

Explanation

The classification of very similar plants by means of differences in the proteins they contain, to solve taxonomic problems is called serotaxonomy.

85. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Serotaxonomy (Immunotaxonomy)?

1. Systematic serology or serotaxonomy had its origin towards the end of eighteenth century with the discovery of serological reactions and development of the discipline of immunology. Darwin (1826) defined it as “the study of the origins and properties of angiospore.”.
2. It determines the degree of similarity between species, genera, families etc. by comparing the reactions of antigens from various plant taxa with antibodies raised against the antigen of a given taxon. Example: 1. The assignment of Phaseolus aureus and P. mungo to the genus Vigna is strongly supported by serological evidence by Chrispeels and Gartner.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Systematic serology or serotaxonomy had its origin towards the end of twentieth century with the discovery of serological reactions and development of the discipline of immunology. Smith (1976) defined it as “the study of the origins and properties of antisera”.

86. Which helps in establishing the relationship of different plant groups at DNA level?

1. Molecular Taxonomy
2. Systematic Taxonomy
3. Coding Taxonomy
4. Microbial Taxonomy

Explanation

Molecular taxonomy helps in establishing the relationship of different plant groups at DNA level. It unlocks the treasure chest of information on evolutionary history of organisms.

87. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Molecular taxonomy

1. Molecular Taxonomy is the branch of phylogeny that analyses hereditary molecular differences, mainly in DNA sequences, to gain information and to establish genetic relationship between the members of different taxonomic categories.
2. The advent of DNA cloning and sequencing methods have contributed immensely to the development of molecular taxonomy and population genetics over the years. These modern methods have revolutionised the field of molecular taxonomy and population genetics with improved analytical power and precision.
3. The results of a molecular phylogenetic analysis are expressed in the form of a tree called phylogenetic tree. Different molecular markers like allozymes, mitochondrial DNA, microsatellites, RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism), RAPD, AFLPs (Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism), single nucleotide polymorphism- (SNP), microchips or arrays are used in analysis.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The results of a molecular phylogenetic analysis are expressed in the form of a tree called phylogenetic tree. Different molecular markers like allozymes, mitochondrial DNA, microsatellites, RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism), RAPD (Random amplified polymorphic DNA), AFLPs (Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism), single nucleotide polymorphism- (SNP), microchips or arrays are used in analysis.

88. The genetic sequence used to identify a plant is known as ____

1. DNA pass
2. DNA tag
3. DNA cross
4. DNA base

Explanation

DNA barcoding is a taxonomic method that uses a very short genetic sequence from a standard part of a genome. The genetic sequence used to identify a plant is known as “DNA tags” or “DNA barcodes”.

89. Who in 2003 proposed ‘DNA barcoding’ and he is considered as ‘Father of barcoding’?

1. Paul Hebert
2. John Ray
3. Gregor Mendel
4. Charles Lyell

Explanation

Paul Hebert in 2003 proposed ‘DNA barcoding’ and he is considered as ‘Father of barcoding’. DNA barcoding techniques require a large database of sequences for comparison and prior knowledge of the barcoding region. However, DNA barcoding is a helpful tool to determine the authenticity of botanical material in whole, cut or powdered form.

90. The gene region that is being used as an effective barcode in plants is present in which two genes of the chloroplast?

1. patR and ctbR
2. matK and rbcL
3. rclK and tcvL
4. botL and rbuL

Explanation

The gene region that is being used as an effective barcode in plants is present in two genes of the chloroplast, matK and rbcL, and have been approved as the barcode regions for plants. Sequence of unknown species can be matched from submitted sequence in GenBank using Blast (web-programme for searching the closely related sequence).

91. Which is a molecular method of genetic analysis that allows identification of taxa based on unique patterns of restriction sites in specific regions of DNA?

1. Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism
2. Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA
3. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
4. Single Nucleotide Polymorphism

Explanation

RFLP (Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism) is a molecular method of genetic analysis that allows identification of taxa based on unique patterns of restriction sites in specific regions of DNA. It refers to differences between taxa in restriction sites and therefore the lengths of fragments of DNA following cleavage with restriction enzymes.

92. Which is largely used for population genetics studies, but has been used in studies of closely related species and even in some cases, for higher level cladistic analysis?

1. Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism
2. Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA
3. Restriction Fragment Length Polymorphism
4. Single Nucleotide Polymorphism

Explanation

Amplified Fragment Length Polymorphism (AFLP) is similar to that of identifying RFLPs in that a restriction enzyme is used to cut DNA into numerous smaller pieces, each of which terminates in a characteristic nucleotide sequence due to the action of restriction enzymes. AFLP is largely used for population genetics studies, but has been used in studies of closely related species and even in some cases, for higher level cladistic analysis.

93. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA (RAPD)?

1. RAPD is a method to removing genetic markers using a randomly synthesized primer that will anneal (recombine (DNA) in the double stranded form) to complementary regions located in centroid locations of isolated DNA. If another complementary site is present on the opposing DNA strand at a distance that is great (within the limits of PCR) then the reaction will amplify this region of DNA.
2. RAPDs like microsatellites may often be used for genetic studies within species but may also be successfully employed in phylogenetic studies to address relationships within a species or between closely related species. However, RAPD analysis has the major disadvantage that results are difficult to replicate and in that the homology of similar bands in different taxa may be nuclear.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Random Amplified Polymorphic DNA (RAPD) is a method to identify genetic markers using a randomly synthesized primer that will anneal (recombine (DNA) in the double stranded form) to complementary regions located in various locations of isolated DNA. If another complementary site is present on the opposing DNA strand at a distance that is not too great (within the limits of PCR) then the reaction will amplify this region of DNA.

94. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Significance of Molecular Taxonomy

1. It helps to identify a very small number of species of plants and animals by the use of conserved morphology sequences.
2. Using DNA data evolutionary patterns of biodiversity are now investigated.
3. DNA taxonomy plays a vital role in phytogeography, which ultimately helps in genome mapping and biodiversity conservation.
4. DNA- based molecular markers used for designing DNA based molecular probes, have also been developed under the branch of molecular systematics

Explanation

It helps to identify a very large number of species of plants and animals by the use of conserved molecular sequences.

95. Which among the following point is incorrect regarding Classical Taxonomy?

1. It is called old systematics or Alpha (ἀ) taxonomy or Taxonomy
2. It is pre Darwinean and Species is considered as basic unit and is static
3. Classification is mainly based on morphological characters
4. This system is based on the observation of large number of samples/individuals

Explanation

This system is based on the observation of a few samples/ individuals.

96. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Modern Taxonomy?

1. It is called prosystematics or Digi systematics or Beta (β) taxonomy
2. It is post Darwinean and species is considered as dynamic entity and ever changing
3. Classification is based on morphological, reproductive characters and phylogenetic (evolutionary) relationship of the organism
4. This system is based on the observation of large number of samples/individuals

Explanation

It is called Neosystematics or Biosystematics or Omega (Ω) taxonomy.

97. The method of classifying organisms into monophyletic group of a common ancestor based on shared apomorphic characters is called ____

1. Hidrotics
2. Enclitics
3. Cladistics
4. Toreutics

Explanation

The method of classifying organisms into monophyletic group of a common ancestor based on shared apomorphic characters is called cladistics (from Greek, klados – branch).

98. What is the outcome of a cladistic analysis, which is a tree-shaped diagram that represent the best hypothesis of phylogenetic relationships?

1. Cladogram
2. Cladding
3. Cladophyll
4. All the above

Explanation

The outcome of a cladistic analysis is a cladogram, a tree-shaped diagram that represent the best hypothesis of phylogenetic relationships. Earlier generated cladograms were largely on the basis of morphological characters, but now genetic sequencing data and computational software’s are commonly used in phylogenetic analysis.

99. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Cladistics is one of the primary methods of constructing phylogenies, or evolutionary histories. Cladistics uses shared, derived characters to group organisms into clades. These clades have at least one shared, derived character found in their most recent common ancestor that is not found in other groups hence they are considered more closely related to each other.
2. These shared characters can be morphological such as, leaf, flower, fruit, seed and so on; behavioural, like opening of flowers nocturnal/diurnal; molecular like, DNA or protein sequence and more.
3. Cladistics accept both monophyletic groups and Paraphyletic. Polyphyletic taxa are occasionally considered when such taxa conveniently treated as one group for practical purposes. Example: dicots, sterculiaceae. Polyphyletic groups are accepted by cladistics.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Cladistics accept only monophyletic groups. Paraphyletic and polyphyletic taxa are occasionally considered when such taxa conveniently treated as one group for practical purposes. Example: dicots, sterculiaceae. Polyphyletic groups are rejected by cladistics.

100. Which among the following is incorrect?

1. Monophyletic group – Taxa comprising all the descendants of a common ancestor.
2. Polyphyletic group – Taxon that includes an ancestor but not all of the descendants of that ancestor.
3. Paraphyletic group – Taxa that includes members from two different lineages.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. None of the above

Explanation

Paraphyletic group; Taxon that includes an ancestor but not all of the descendants of that ancestor. Polyphyletic group; Taxa that includes members from two different lineages.

101. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding cladistics?

1. Cladistics is now the most commonly used and accepted method for creating phylogenetic system of classifications
2. Cladistics produces a hypothesis about the relationship of organisms to predict the phylogeny
3. Cladistics helps to elucidate mechanism of evolution.
4. None of the above

102. Which among the following characters regarding Family: Fabaceae (Pea family) is correct?

1. Fabaceae includes about 741 genera and more than 20,200 species. The members are cosmopolitan in distribution but abundant in tropical and subtropical regions. All types of habits are represented in this family. Mostly herbs, prostrate, erect, shrubs, small trees, climber, large tree, woody climber, hydrophyte (Aeschynomene aspera) commonly called pith plant.
2. Roots: Fibre root system, roots are nodulated, have tubercles containing nitrogen – fixing bacteria (Rhizobium leguminosarum). Stem: Aerial, herbaceous, soft, twining or climbing (Clitoria). Leaf: Alternate, simple, rarely pinnately compound (Solanum tuberosum and Lycopersicon esculentum, exstipulate, opposite or sub-opposite in upper part, unicostate reticulate venation
3. Inflorescence: Raceme (Crotalaria verrucosa), panicle (Dalbergia latifolia) axillary solitary (Clitoria ternatea) Flowers: Bracteate, bracteolate, pedicellete, complete, bisexual, pentamerous, heterochlamydeous, zygomorphic hypogynous or sometimes perigynous. Calyx: Sepals 5, green, synsepalous, more or less united in a tube and persistant, valvate or imbricate, odd sepal is anterior in position.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Root: Tap root system, roots are nodulated, have tubercles containing nitrogen – fixing bacteria (Rhizobium leguminosarum) Stem: Aerial, herbaceous, woody (Dalbergia) twining or climbing (Clitoria). Leaf: Leaf simple or unifoliate (Desmodium gangeticum) bifoliate (Zornia diphylla,), Trifoliate (Lablab purpureus), alternate, stipulate, leaf base, pulvinate, reticulate venation terminal leaflet modifies into a tendril in Pisum sativum.

103. In Fabaceae, corolla has how many petals?

1. Three
2. Four
3. Five
4. Six

Explanation

Corolla: Petals 5, apopetalous, unequal and papilionaceous, vexillary or descendingly imbricate aestivation, all petals have claw at the base. Fabaceae belongs to Dicot families.

104. The outermost petal in Fabaceae is large called as ____

1. Wing petals
2. Alae
3. Vexillary
4. Carina

Explanation

The outer most petal is large called standard petal or vexillum, Lateral 2 petals are lanceolate and curved. They are called wing petals or alae. Anterior two petals are partly fused and are called keel petals or carina which encloses the stamens and pistil.

105. In Fabaceae, how many stamens are there in Androecium?

1. Six
2. Eight
3. Ten
4. Twelve

Explanation

Androecium: Stamens 10, diadelphous, usually 9+1 (Clitoria ternatea). The odd stamen is posterior in position. In Aeschynomene aspera, the stamens are fused to form two bundles each containing five stamens (5) + (5). Stamens are monadelphous and dimorphic ie., 5 stamens have longer filaments and other 5 stamens have shorter filaments thus the stamens are found at two levels and the shape of anthers also varies in (Crotalaria verrucosa). Anthers are dithecous, basifixed and dehiscing longitudinally.

106. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Gynoecium in Fabaceae?

1. Dicarpellary
2. Unilocular
3. Ovary superior
4. Stigma flattened or feathery

Explanation

Gynoecium: Monocarpellary, unilocular, ovary superior, with two alternating rows of ovules on marginal placentation. Style simple and bent, stigma flattened or feathery.

107. The characteristic fruit of Fabaceae is a ____

1. Berry
2. Legume
3. Capsule
4. All the above

Explanation

The characteristic fruit of Fabaceae is a legume (Pisum sativum), sometimes indehiscent and rarely a lomentum (Desmodium).

108. The fruit develops and matures under the soil is called ___

1. Petiolate
2. Geocarpic
3. Venation
4. Stipellate

Explanation

In Arachis hypogea the fruit is geocarpic (fruits develops and matures under the soil). After fertilization the stipe of the ovary becomes meristematic and grows down into the soil. This ovary gets buried into the soil and develops into fruit. Seed of Fabaceae: Endospermic or non-endospermic (Pisum sativum), mostly reniform.

109. Which among the following is incorrect regarding Clitoria ternatea (Sangu pushpam)

1. Habit: hydrophyte
2. Root: Branched tap root system having nodules.
3. Stem: Aerial, weak stem and a twiner
4. Inflorescence: Solitary and axillary

Explanation

Habit: Twining climber.

110. Which among the following is not leaf characteristic of Clitoria ternatea?

1. Imparipinnately compound
2. Deeply lobed
3. Alternate
4. Stipellate

Explanation

Leaf characteristic of Clitoria ternatea: Imparipinnately compound, alternate, stipulate showing reticulate venation. Leaflets are stipellate. Petiolate and stipels are pulvinated

111. Which among the following is not the flower characteristic of Clitoria ternatea?

1. Bracteate
2. Pedicellate
3. Bisexual
4. None of the above

Explanation

Flower: Bracteate, bracteolate, bracteoles usually large, pedicellate, heterochlamydeous, complete, bisexual, pentamerous, zygomorphic and hypogynous.

112. What is the colour of petals in Clitoria ternatea?

1. White or green
2. White or blue
3. White or red
4. White or brown

Explanation

Petals 5, white or blue apopetalous, irregular papilionaceous corolla showing descendingly imbricate aestivation. Sepals 5, synsepalous, green showing valvate aestivation. Odd sepal is anterior in position.

113. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Clitoria ternatea?

1. Androecium: Stamens 10, diadelphous (9) + 1, nine stamens fused to form a bundle and the tenth stamen is free. Anthers are dithecous, basifixed, introse and dechiscing by longitudinal slits.
2. Gynoecium: Monocarpellary, unilocular, with many ovules on mariginal placentation, ovary superior, style simple and incurved with feathery stigma. Fruits are legume and seeds are Non – endospermous, reniform.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

114. Which among the following plants of Fabaceae is oil plants?

1. Lablab purpureus
2. Sesbania grandiflora
3. Arachis hypogea
4. Cyamopsis tetragonoloba

Explanation

Arachis hypogea (ground nut) is a oil plant. Oil extracted from the seeds is edible and used for cooking.

115. Match the following plant with its Binomial names

1. Cajanus cajan – 1. French bean
2. Phaseolus vulgaris – 2. Horse gram
3. Vigna mungo – 3. Chick pea
4. Cicer arietinum – 4. Pigeon Pea
5. Macrotyloma uniflorum – 5. black gram
6. 2 – 1 – 3 – 5 – 4
7. 3 – 5 – 1 – 2 – 4
8. 4 – 1 – 5 – 3 – 2
9. 5 – 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Explanation

Cajanus cajan (Pigeon Pea) Phaseolus vulgaris (French bean) Cicer arietinum (Chick pea / Channa) Vigna mungo (black gram) Vigna radiata (green gram) Vigna unguiculata (cow pea) Glycine max (soya bean) Macrotyloma uniflorum (Horse gram).

116. Which among the following plant of Fabaceae is not the Food plant?

1. Dalbergia latifolia
2. Lablab purpureus
3. Sesbania grandiflora
4. Cyamopsis tetragonoloba

Explanation

Lablab purpureus (field bean), Sesbania grandiflora (agathi), Cyamopsis tetragonoloba (cluster bean) are Food plants.

117. Which among the following plant of Fabaceae is not timber plant?

1. Dalbergia latifolia
2. Pterocarpus santalinus
3. Pongamia pinnata
4. P.marsupium

Explanation

Dalbergia latifolia (rose wood), Pterocarpus santalinus (red sandalwood), P.marsupium are timber pant used for making furniture, cabinet articles and as building material. Pongamia pinnata is oil plant, Pongam oil has medicinal value and is used in the preparation of soap.

118. Which among the following plant of Fabaceae is Fibre plant?

1. Indigofera tinctoria (Avuri)
2. Clitoria ternatea
3. Aeschynomene aspera
4. Crotalaria juncea

Explanation

Crotalaria juncea (sunhemp) and Sesbania sesban (aegyptiaca) are Fibre plant Used for making ropes

119. Which among the following plant of Fabaceae is not Dye pant?

1. Indigofera tinctoria (Avuri)
2. Clitoria ternatea
3. Aeschynomene aspera
4. Butea monosperma

Explanation

Aeschynomene aspera is Pith Plant Used for packing, handicraft and fishing floats.

120. In which among the following plant, Blue dye is obtained?

1. Indigofera tinctoria
2. Clitoria ternatea
3. Butea monosperma
4. All the above

Explanation

Indigofera tinctoria (Avuri) – Indigo dye obtained from leaves is used to colour printing and in paints, Clitoria ternatea – Blue dye is obtained and Butea monosperma – Natural dye.

121. The aerial parts of which plant contains Metformin (dimethyl biguanide) the most widely prescribed agent in the treatment of diabetes all over the world?

1. Butea frondose
2. Lupinus hirsutus
3. Adenanthera pavonina
4. Galega officinalis

Explanation

The aerial parts of Galega officinalis (Fabaceae) contains Metformin (dimethyl biguanide). It is now reputed to be the most widely prescribed agent in the treatment of diabetes all over the world.

122. The attractive seeds of which have been used as units of weight for the measures of gold throughout India?

1. Clitoria ternatea
2. Lathyrus odoratus
3. Adenanthera pavonine
4. Abrus precatorius

Explanation

The attractive seeds of Adenanthera pavonina (Family: Caesalpiniaceae) have been used as units of weight for the measures of gold throughout India. The attractive seeds of Adenanthera pavonina (Family: Caesalpiniaceae) have been used as units of weight for the measures of gold throughout India.

123. Family Solanaceae are abundant in which among the following continent?

1. South America
2. Africa
3. Europe
4. Asia

Explanation

Family Solanaceae includes about 88 genera and about 2650 species, of these Solanum is the largest genus of the family with about 1500 species. Plants are worldwide in distribution but more abundant in South America.

124. Which among the following statement regarding Family Solanaceae is correct

1. Habit: Mostly annual herbs, shrubs, small trees (Solanum violaceum) lianas with prickles (Solanum trilobatum). Root: Branched tap root system. Stem: Herbaceous or woody; erect or twining, or creeping; sometimes modified into tubers (Solanum tuberosum) it is covered with Spines (Solanum tuberosum)
2. Leaves: Alternate, simple, rarely pinnately compound (Solanum tuberosum) and Lycopersicon esculentum, exstipulate, opposite or sub-opposite in lower part, Dicostate reticulate venation. Reddish verbs present in Solanum tuberosum.
3. Calyx: Sepals 5, Synsepalous, valvate persistent (Solanum americanum), often accrescent. (Physalis) and Corolla: Petals 5, sympetalous, rotate, tubular (Solanum) or bell- shaped (Atropa) or infundibuliform (Petunia) usually alternate with sepals; rarely bilipped and zygomorphic (Schizanthus) usually valvate, sometimes convolute (Datura).
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Leaves: Alternate, simple, rarely pinnately compound (Solanum tuberosum and Lycopersicon esculentum, exstipulate, opposite or sub-opposite in upper part, unicostate reticulate venation. Yellowish verbs present in Solanum tuberosum.

125. In Family Solanaceae Generally axillary or terminal cymose (Solanum) or solitary flowers (Datura stramonium). Extra axillary scorpiod cyme called _____

1. Soladium
2. Rhiphidium
3. Pholadium
4. None of the above

Explanation

In Family Solanaceae Inflorescence: Generally axillary or terminal cymose (Solanum) or solitary flowers (Datura stramonium). Extra axillary scorpiod cyme called rhiphidium (Solanum americanum) solitary and axillary (Datura and Nicotiana) umbellate cyme (Withania somnifera).

126. In Family Solanaceae, how many stamens are present in Androecium?

1. Five
2. Seven
3. Ten
4. Twelve

Explanation

Androecium: Stamens 5, epipetalous, filaments usually unequal in length, stamens only 2 in Schizanthus (others 3 are reduced to staminode), Anthers dithecous, dehisce longitudinally or poricidal.

127. Which among the following is incorrect regarding gynoecium of Family Solanaceae?

1. Bicarpellary
2. Syncarpous obliquely placed
3. Ovary superior
4. Single ovule in each locule on axile placentation

Explanation

Gynoecium: Bicarpellary, syncarpous obliquely placed, ovary superior, bilocular but looks tetralocular due to the formation of false septa, numerous ovules in each locule on axile placentation.

128. Seed in Family Solanaceae plants are ____

1. Endospermous.
2. Non – Endosermous
3. Both Endospermous and Non – Endospermous
4. None

Explanation

Seed in Family Solanaceae plants are Endospermous. Fruit: A capsule or berry. (Datura & Petunia, Lycopersicon esculentum, Capsicum).

129. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Botanical description of Datura metel?

1. Habit: Large, erect and stout herb.
2. Habit: Large, erect and stout herb.
3. Stem: Underground bulb
4. Inflorescence: Solitary and axillary cyme.

Explanation

Stem: Stem is hollow, green and herbaceous with strong odour.

130. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Botanical description of Datura metel?

1. Leaf: Simple, alternate, petiolate, entire or deeply lobed, glabrous exstipulate showing unicostate reticulate venation
2. Flower: Flowers are large, greenish white, bracteate, ebracteolate, pedicellate, complete, heterochlamydeous, pentamerous, regular, actinomorphic, bisexual and hypogynous.
3. Calyx: Sepals 10, white synsepalous showing valvate aestivation. Calyx is mostly persistent, even sepal is anterior in position.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Calyx: Sepals 5, green synsepalous showing valvate aestivation. Calyx is mostly persistent, odd sepal is posterior in position.

131. What is the colour of petals in Datura metel?

1. Yellowish white
2. Bluish white
3. Greenish white
4. Reddish white

Explanation

Corolla: petals 5, greenish white, sympetalous, plicate (folded like a fan) showing twisted aestivation, funnel shaped with wide mouth and 10 lobed.

132. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Datura metel

1. Androecium: Stamens 10, attached to one another, epipetalous, alternipetalous and are inserted in the outer surface of corolla tube. Anthers are basifixed, dithecous, with long filament, introse and longitudinally dehiscent.
2. Gynoecium: Ovary bicarpellary, syncarpous superior ovary, basically bilocular but tetralocular due to the formation of false septum. Carpels are obliquely placed and ovules on swollen axile placentation. Style simple long and filiform, stigma two lobed.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Androecium: Stamens 5, free from one another, epipetalous, alternipetalous and are inserted in the middle of the corolla tube. Anthers are basifixed, dithecous, with long filament, introse and longitudinally dehiscent. Fruit: Spinescent capsule opening by four apical valves with persistent calyx. Seed: Endospermous.

133. Which among the following Solanaceae plant roots is used in belladonna plasters, tinctures etc. for relieving pain and also for dialating pupils of eyes for eye –testing as powerful alkaloid?

1. Atropa belladonna
2. Solanum trilobatum
3. Datura stramonium
4. Withania somnifera

Explanation

From Atropa belladonna (deadly nightshade) roots a powerful alkaloid ‘atropine’ obtained from root is used in belladonna plasters, tinctures etc. for relieving pain and also for dialating pupils of eyes for eye –testing.

134. Which among the following Solanaceae plant is used in cigarette, beedi, hukkah, pipes as well as for chewing and snuffing?

1. Cestrum diurnum
2. Nicotiana tabacum
3. Petunia hybrida
4. Schizanthus pinnatus

Explanation

Nicotiana tabaccum (tobacco) leaves are dried and made into tobacco, used in cigarette, beedi, hukkah, pipes as well as for chewing and snuffing, alkaloids like nicotine, nornicotine and anabasin are present in tobacco.

135. Match the following Solanaceae plant with its Binomial name

1. Solanum tuberosum – 1. cape gooseberry
2. Lycopersicon esculentum – 2. Brinjal
3. Solanum melongena – 3. Tomato
4. Capsicum annuum – 4. Bell peppers
5. Physalis peruviana – 5. Potato
6. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4 – 5
7. 3 – 5 – 4 – 1 – 2
8. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2 – 5
9. 5 – 3 – 2 – 4 – 1

Explanation

Solanum tuberosum (potato), Lycopersicon esculentum (tomato), Solanum melongena (brinjal) Capsicum annuum (bell peppers & chilli papers) C. frutescens, Physalis peruviana (cape gooseberry).

136. Which among the following Solanaceae plant is used as drug obtained from the leaves and roots of this is used to treat asthma and whooping cough?

1. Withania somnifera
2. Cestrum diurnum
3. Datura stramonium
4. Solanum trilobatum

Explanation

Datura stramonium is used as drug obtained from the leaves and roots of this is used to treat asthma and whooping cough.

137. Which among the following is not the medicinal plant of family Solanaceae?

1. Cestrum nocturnum
2. Solanum trilobatum
3. Withania somnifera
4. None of the above

Explanation

Solanum trilobatum and Withania somnifera are medicinal plant Used to treat cough and in curing cough and rheumatism. Cestrum diurnum is ornamental plant.

138. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Family: Liliaceae

1. Distribution: Liliaceae are fairly large family comprising about 10 genera and 230 species. Members of this family are widely distributed over pacific and south Asia. Root: Adventitious and tap root, and typically contractile.
2. Habit: Mostly perennial herbs persisting by means of a sympodial rhizome (Polygonatum), by a bulb (Lilium) corm (Colchicum), shrubby or tree like (Yucca and Dracaena). Woody climbers, climbing with the help of stipular tendrils in Smilax. Trees in (Xanthorrhoea), succulents (Aloe).
3. Stem: Stems usually bulbous, rhizomatous in some, aerial, erect (Dracaena) or climbing (Smilax) in Ruscus the ultimate branches are modified into phylloclades, In Asparagus stem is modified into cladodes and the leaves are reduced to scales.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Distribution: Liliaceae are fairly large family comprising about 15 genera and 550 species. Members of this family are widely distributed over most part of the world. Root: Adventitious and fibrous, and typically contractile.

139. How many tepals are present in Liliaceae family?

1. Four
2. Six
3. Nine
4. Eleven

Explanation

Perianth: Tepals 6 biseriate arranged in two whorls of 3 each, apotepalous or rarely syntepalous as in Aloe. Usually petaloid or sometimes sepaloid, odd tepal of the outer whorl is anterior in position, valvate or imbricate, tepals more than six in Paris quadrifolia.

140. The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations has been declared which year for pulses, to make people more aware of the nutritional value of pulses?

1. 2014
2. 2016
3. 2017
4. 2018

Explanation

The Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) of the United Nations has been declared 2016 as the year for pulses, to make people more aware of the nutritional value of pulses.

141. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Leaf: Leaves are radical (Lilium) or cauline (Dracaena), usually alternate, opposite (Gloriosa), sometimes fleshy and hollow, reduced to scales (Ruscus and Asparagus). The venation is parallel but in species of Smilax it is reticulate. Leaves are usually exstipulate, but in Smilax, two tendrils arise from the base of the leaf, which are considered modified stipules.
2. Inflorescence: Flowers are usually borne in simple or branched racemes (Asphodelus) spikes in Aloe, huge terminal panicle in Yucca, solitary and axillary in Gloriosa, solitary and terminal in Tulipa.
3. Inflorescence: Flowers are usually borne in simple or branched racemes (Asphodelus) spikes in Aloe, huge terminal panicle in Yucca, solitary and axillary in Gloriosa, solitary and terminal in Tulipa.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

142. Which among the following is not fruit characteristic of Liliaceae family

1. Septicidal
2. Loculicidal capsule
3. Legume
4. Berry

Explanation

In Liliaceae family Fruit usually a septicidal or loculicidal capsule or a berry as in Asparagus and Smilax.

143. Which among the following statement is correct

1. Androecium: Stamens 10, arranged in 2 whorls of 5 each, rarely stamens are 5 (Ruscus), 12 in Maianthemum, or up to 15, apostamenous, parallel to the tepals, sometimes epitepalous; filaments distinct or connate, anthers dithecous, basifixed or versatile, extrose, or introse, dehiscing usually by horizontal slit and sometimes by terminal pores; rarely synstamenous (Ruscus).
2. Gynoecium: Tricarpallary, syncarpous, the odd carpel usually anterior, ovary superior, trilocular, with 2 rows of numerous ovules on axile placextation; rarely unilocular with parietal placentation, style usually one; stigmas 1 or 3; rarely the ovary is inferior (Haemodorum), nectar – secreting septal glands are present in the ovary.
3. Only 1
4. Only 2
5. Both 1 and 2
6. None

Explanation

Androecium: Stamens 6, arranged in 2 whorls of 3 each, rarely stamens are 3 (Ruscus), 4 in Maianthemum, or up to 12, apostamenous, opposite to the tepals, sometimes epitepalous; filaments distinct or connate, anthers dithecous, basifixed or versatile, extrose, or introse, dehiscing usually by vertical slit and sometimes by terminal pores; rarely synstamenous (Ruscus).

144. Which among the following statement is incorrect regarding Allium cepa?

1. Habit: Perennial herb with bulb
2. Root: Fibrous adventitious root system
3. Stem: Underground bulb
4. Fruit: Septicidal

Explanation

Fruit: A loculicidal capsule and Seed: Endospermous.

145. Which among the following statement is correct regarding Allium cepa

1. Inflorescence: Scapigerous i.e., the inflorescence axis (peduncle) arising from the ground bearing a cluster of flowers at its apex. Pedicels are of equal length, arising from the apex of the peduncle which brings all flowers at the same level.
2. Leaf: A cluster of radical leaves emerges from the underground bulb, cylindrical and fleshy having sheathy leaf bases with parallel venation and Perianth: Tepals 6, white, arranged in two whorls of three each, syntepalous showing valvate aestivation.
3. Androecium: Stamens 6, arranged in single whorls of , epitepalous, apostamenous /free and opposite to tepals. Anthers dithecous, basifixed, introse, and dehiscing laterally. Gynoecium: Bicarpellary and syncarpous. Ovary superior, trilocular with three ovules in each locule on axile placentation. Style simple, slender with simple stigma.
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Androecium: Stamens 6, arranged in two whorls of three each, epitepalous, apostamenous /free and opposite to tepals. Anthers dithecous, basifixed, introse, and dehiscing longitudinally. Gynoecium: Tricarpellary and syncarpous. Ovary superior, trilocular with two ovules in each locule on axile placentation. Style simple, slender with simple stigma.

146. In APG classification, Allium cepa is placed under which family?

1. Cyperaceae
2. Amaryllidaceae
3. Gramineae
4. Lamiaceae

Explanation

In APG classification, Allium cepa is placed under the family Amaryllidaceae.

147. What is the colour of Allium cepa flower?

1. Green
2. Blue
3. Indigo
4. White

Explanation

Flower: Small, white, bracteate, ebracteolate, pedicellate, complete, trimerous, actinomorphic and hypogynous. Flowers are protandrous.

148. Which among the following is not the food plant of family Liliaceae?

1. Allium cepa
2. Allium sativum
3. Asparagus officinalis
4. Agapanthus africanus

Explanation

Allium cepa, Allium sativum and Asparagus officinalis are food pants.

149. Which among the following was called aloin obtained from Aloe vera leaves used in soothing lotions, piles and inflammations, hemorrhoidal salves and shampoos?

1. Colchicine glycoside
2. Heptulosonic glycoside
3. Gelatinous glycoside
4. Arabino glycoside

Explanation

Gelatinous glycoside called aloin from succulent leaves are used in soothing lotions, piles and inflammations, hemorrhoidal salves and shampoos.

150. From which among the following Liliaceae plants medicinal oil is prepared from the root is used for nervous and rheumatic complaints and also in skin diseases?

1. Phormium tenax
2. Asparagus racemosus
3. Colchichum luteum
4. Gloriosa superba

Explanation

Medicinal oil is prepared from the root of Asparagus racemosus is used for nervous and rheumatic complaints and also in skin diseases.

151. Which among the following plant is used in the treatment of gout and rheumatism?

1. Allium sativum
2. Colchichum luteum
3. Gloriosa superba
4. Urginea indica

Explanation

Colchichum luteum roots are used in the treatment of gout and rheumatism.

152. Which among the following Liliaceae plant tubers helpful in promoting labour pains in women?

1. Urginea indica
2. Veratrum album
3. Gloriosa superba
4. Asparagus officinalis

Explanation

Gloriosa superba tubers helpful in promoting labour pains in women.

153. Which among the following fibre yielding plant from Liliaceae family?

1. Phormium tenax
2. Urginea indica
3. Colchicum luteum
4. Veratrum album

Explanation

Phormium tenax is fibre yielding plant used for cordage, fishing net, mattings, twines.

154. Which among the following is Liliaceae plant is used as Raticide?

1. Colchicum luteum
2. Urginea indica
3. Veratrum album
4. Asparagus officinalis

Explanationb

Urginea indica bulbs is used for killing rats (Raticides)

155. Which among the following Liliaceae plant is incorrectly matched with its binomial name?

1. Agapanthus africanus – Malabar glory lily
2. Gloriosa superba – African Lily
3. Ruscus aculeatus – Butchers Broom
4. Both 1 and 2
5. Both 1 and 3
6. Both 2 and 3
7. All 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

Agapanthus africanus (African Lily), Gloriosa superba (Malabar glory lily), Lilium giganteum, Ruscus aculeatus (Butchers Broom), Yucca alcifolia and Y.gloriosa.

156. Which among the following Liliaceae plant is used as Insecticides?

1. Colchicum luteum
2. Gloriosa superba
3. Veratrum album
4. Colchichum luteum

Explanation

Veratrum album bulbs are used as insectices.

157. Which among the following plant is used as ondiment and also good for heart?

1. Allium cepa
2. Allium sativum
3. Asparagus officinalis
4. All the above

Explanation

Allium sativum bulbs are Used as condiment and also good for heart.

158. Which among the following Liliaceae plant is used to induce polyploidy?

1. Colchicum luteum
2. Lilium giganteum
3. Yucca alcifolia
4. Colchichum luteum

Explanation

Colchicum luteum produce Colchicine (alkaloid) used to induce polyploidy.

159. In Yucca the cross-pollination is carried out by special moth ______

1. Pronuba yuccasella
2. Tegeticula maculata
3. Leaf blotch
4. Snout agavoideae

Explanation

In Yucca the cross-pollination is carried out by special moth, Pronuba yuccasella. Fully opened flowers emit perfumes and are visited by the female moth, especially during nights. This moth collects a lot of pollen grains from one flower and visits another flower. Life history of this moth is intimately associated with the pollination mechanism in Yucca.

160. Botanical survey of India has how many regional centres in India?

1. Nine
2. Eleven
3. Thirteen
4. Fifteen

Explanation

Botanical survey of India explores and documents biodiversity all over India. It has 11 regional centres in India. Herbarium preparation includes plant collection, documentation of field data, preparation of plant specimens, mounting and labelling. There are several national and international herbaria.

161. What is the meaning of the root word of taxonomy “taxis” in Greek?

a) Rules

b) Arrangement

c) Flowers

d) Order

Explanation

The word taxonomy is derived from Greek words “taxis” (arrangement) and “nomos” (rules or laws).

162. Choose the correct statements.

i) Carolus Linnaeus introduced the taxonomic hierarchy.

ii) Linnaeus arranged various taxonomic levels in ascending order from species to kingdom.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) Both i and ii

d) Neither i nor ii

Explanation

Taxonomic hierarchy was introduced by Carolus Linnaeus. It is the arrangement of various taxonomic levels in descending order starting from kingdom up to species.

163. Which of the following statements are correct?

i) Taxonomy governs the naming practices.

ii) Systematics is discipline of classifying organisms into taxa.

iii) Systematics is the broad field deals with the diversification of species.

iv) Taxonomy + Phylogeny = Systematics

v) Classification + Specimen = Taxonomy

a) i, iii only

b) ii, iii, v only

c) i, iii, iv only

d) v only

Explanation

164. In which year Linnaeus proposed the elementary rule of naming plants?

a) 1751

b) 1881

c) 1902

d) 1897

Explanation

The elementary rule of naming of plants was first proposed by Linnaeus in 1751 in his Philosophia Botanica.

165. Which of these are not classified for nomenclature by ICN?

a) Algae

b) Minerals

c) Fungi

d) Plants

Explanation

The ICN stands for International Code of Nomenclature for Algae, Fungi and Plants.

166. Which of the following is not correct regarding vernacular names?

a) Vernacular names are also termed as common names.

b) Vernacular names are often descriptive and poetic reference to plants.

c) Common names does not have same name for many plants.

d) Common names are regional or local and not universal.

Explanation

Vernacular names are known as common names. They are very often descriptive and poetic references to plants. Common name refers to more than one plant or many plants may have same common name. These names are regional or local and are not universal.

167. Choose the Incorrect statements.

i) As per ICN each and every taxon can have multiple scientific names.

ii) Scientific name of a species is always a binomial.

iii) Scientific names are universally applied.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Each and every taxon as per the ICN (species, genus, family etc) can have only one correct scientific name. Scientific name of a species is always a binomial. These names are universally applied.

168. Who introduced the binomial nomenclature initially?

a) Carolus Linnaeus

b) Arthur Cronquist

c) Gaspard Bauhin

d) Bentham and Hooker

Explanation

Binomial nomenclature was first introduced by Gaspard Bauhin and it was implemented by Carolus Linnaeus.

169. Identify the incorrect match for standard form of author’s abbreviations.

A. Wallich i) Wall.

B. Robert Brown ii) R.Br.

C. J.P.Lamarck iii) L.

D. G.Bentham iv) Benth.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) iii only

d) iv only

Explanation

170. Who proposed a widely followed natural system of classification?

a) Joseph Dalton Hooker

b) Wallich and Linnaeus

c) George Bentham

d) Both a and c

Explanation

A widely followed natural system of classification considered the best was proposed by two English botanist George Bentham (1800 – 1884) and Joseph Dalton Hooker (1817–1911).

171. Which of these families are not included in the Gymnospermae?

a) Gnetaceae

b) Apocynaceae

c) Coniferae

d) Cycadaceae

Explanation

Gymnospermae: Plants that contain naked seeds come under this class. Gymnospermae includes three families – Gnetaceae, Coniferae and Cycadaceae.

172. Which of the following is not a significance of molecular taxonomy?

a) DNA taxonomy plays a vital role in phytogeography helps in genome mapping and biodiversity conservation.

b) Helps to identify a very large number of species of plants and animals by the use of conserved molecular sequences.

c) Compares the reactions of antigens from various plant taxa with antibodies raised against the antigen of a given taxon.

d) DNA based molecular probes have been developed under the branch of molecular systematics.

Explanation

Significance of Molecular Taxonomy: It helps to identify a very large number of species of plants and animals by the use of conserved molecular sequences. Using DNA data evolutionary patterns of biodiversity are now investigated. DNA taxonomy plays a vital role in phytogeography, which ultimately helps in genome mapping and biodiversity conservation. DNA- based molecular markers used for designing DNA based molecular probes have also been developed under the branch of molecular systematics.

173. Which of the following is not used as an ornamental plant?

a) Lupinus hirsutus

b) Sesbania grandiflora

c) Clitoria ternatea

d) Butea frondosa

Explanation

Butea frondosa (Flame of the forest), Clitoria ternatea, Lathyrus odoratus (Sweet pea) and

Lupinus hirsutus (Lupin) entire plant grown as ornamental plants.

174. Which of these is used as a food plant?

a) Emblica officinalis

b) Manihot esculenta

c) P. acidus

d) All the above

Explanation

Food plants are Emblica officinalis (நெல்லிக்காய் ) P. acidus (அரைநெல்லி) Manihot esculenta (மரவள்ளி கிழங்கு / Tapioca).

175. Match the parts of plants used as medicine.

A. Phyllanthus amarus i) Whole plant

B. Ricinus communis ii) Entire shoot system

C. Euphorbia hirta iii) Leaves and roots

D. Jatropha gossypifolia iv) Seed oil

a) ii, iii, i, iv

b) ii, iv, i, iii

c) iv, i, iii, ii

d) i, iii, iv, ii

Explanation

Euphorbia resinifera – Latex – Euphorbium drug is obtained from the latex and used as a purgative.

Euphorbia hirta – Whole plant – Lactogogue

Phyllanthus amarus – Entire shoot system – Used to treat Jaundice

Jatropha gossypifolia – Leaves and roots – Used in the treatment of leprosy and snakebite

Ricinus communis- Seed oil – Purgative

176. What is the main usage of Musa Textilis?

a) Abaca cloth

b) Ornamental plant

c) Lactogogue

d) Purgative

Explanation

Musa textilis (Manila hemp) is used as fibre. Fibre is woven and made into abaca cloth, also used for twine, bagging and wrapping paper.

177. Name the state flower of Tamil Nadu?

a) Jatropha gossypifolia

b) Euphorbia resinifera

c) Gloriosa superba

d) Phyllanthus amarus

Explanation

The State Flower of Tamil Nadu is Gloriosa superba.

11th Science Lesson 12 Questions in English

12] Scientific Names

1. Which among the following is the scientific name of Mango ginger?

1. Curcuma amada
2. Curcuma longa
3. Ficus benghalensis
4. Bombax ceiba

Explanation

The scientific name of Mango ginger is Curcuma amada and Turmeric is Curcuma longa.

2. Which among the following is the scientific name of Banyan tree?

1. Ceiba pentandra
2. Trapa natans
3. Ficus benghalensis
4. Bombax ceiba

Explanation

The scientific name of Banyan tree is Ficus benghalensis.

3. Match the following plants with its scientific names?

1. Bombax ceiba – 1. whitesilkcottontree
2. Trapa natans – 2. Red silk cotton tree
3. Ceiba pentandra – 3. Monoon longifolium
4. Polyalthia longifolia – 4. Water chestnut
5. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
6. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
7. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
8. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1

Explanation

Bombax ceiba (Red silk cotton tree), Ceiba pentandra (whitesilkcottontree), Trapa natans (water chestnut) and Monoon longifolium(Polyalthia longifolia).

4. Match the following plants with its scientific names

1. Wood sorrel – 1. Mentha piperita
2. Lawn grass – 2. Oxalis
3. Peppermint – 3. Cynodon dactylo
4. Wild strawberry – 4. Fragaria indica
5. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
6. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
7. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
8. 4 – 3 – 1 – 2

Explanation

Oxalis (Wood sorrel), lawn grass (Cynodon dactylon), Mentha piperita (peppermint), Fragaria indica (wild strawberry).

5. Which among the following is the scientific name of Guava?

1. Quisqualis
2. Psidium
3. Allamanda
4. Polyalthia longifolia

Explanation

The scientific name of Guava is Psidium.

6. Match the following plant with its scientific names?

1. Neem – 1. Aegle marmelos
2. Wood apple – 2. Opuntia
3. Clover – 3. Azadirachta
4. Prickly pear – 4. Trifolium
5. 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
6. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
7. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
8. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Neem (Azadirachta), wood apple (Aegle marmelos), Clover (Trifolium) and Prickly pear (Opuntia).

7. Which among the following plant is wrongly matched with its scientific name?

1. Australian Acacia – Acacia auriculiformis
2. Prickly poppy – Utricularia
3. Bladderwort – Argemone Mexicana
4. Only 2
5. Only 1
6. Both 2 and 3
7. Both 1 and 2

Explanation

Bladderwort (Utricularia), Prickly poppy (Argemone mexicana) and Australian Acacia (Acacia auriculiformis).

8. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Tomato – 1. Solanum melongena
2. Brinjal – 2. Lycopersicon esculentum
3. Guava – 3. Mangifera indica
4. Mango – 4. Psidium guajava
5. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
6. 3 – 2 – 4 – 3
7. 4 – 1 – 3 – 4
8. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

Explanation

Tomato – Lycopersicon esculentum, Brinjal – Solanum melongena, Guava – Psidium guajava and Mango – Mangifera indica.

9. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Coconut – 1. Cucumis sativus
2. Date – 2. Phoenix dactylifera
3. Cucumber – 3. Citrus sinensis
4. Citrus – 4. Cocos nucifera
5. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
6. 3 – 4 – 2 – 1
7. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
8. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3

Explanation

Coconut – Cocos nucifera, Date – Phoenix dactylifera, Cucumber – Cucumis sativus and Citrus – Citrus sinensis.

10. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Apple – 1. Punica granatum
2. Pomegranate – 2. Pyrus malus
3. Pea – 3. Brassica campestris
4. Mustard – 4. Pisum sativum
5. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
6. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
7. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
8. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

Explanation

Apple – Pyrus malus, Pomegranate – Punica granatum, Pea – Pisum sativum and Mustard – Brassica campestris.

11. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Poppy – 1. Papaver somniferum
2. Lady’s finger – 2. Helianthus annuus
3. Sunflower – 3. Abelmoschus esculentus
4. Maize – 4. Zea maize
5. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
6. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
7. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
8. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

Explanation

Poppy – Papaver somniferum, Lady’s finger – Abelmoschus esculentus, Sunflower – Helianthus annuus and Maize – Zea maize.

12. Which among the following is the scientific name of paddy?

1. Ananas comosus
2. Oryza sativa
3. Annona squamosa
4. Pyrus malus

Explanation

The scientific name of paddy is Oryza sativa.

13. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Cashew nut – 1. Mimosa pudica
2. Coriander – 2. Annona squamosa
3. Touch-me-not – 3. Anacardium occidentale
4. Custard apple – 4. Coriandrum sativum
5. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
6. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
7. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
8. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1

Explanation

Cashew nut – Anacardium occidentale, Coriander – Coriandrum sativum, Touch-me-not – Mimosa pudica and Custard apple – Annona squamosa.

14. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Jack fruit – 1. Ananas comosus
2. Pine apple – 2. Morus alba
3. Mulberry – 3. Ficus carica
4. Fig – 4. Artocarpus heterophyllus
5. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
8. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Jack fruit – Artocarpus heterophyllus, Pine apple – Ananas comosus, Mulberry – Morus alba and Fig – Ficus carica.

15. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Pigeon Pea – 1. Cicer arietinum
2. French bean – 2. Cajanus cajan
3. Chick pea – 3. Phaseolus vulgaris
4. Black gram – 4. Vigna mungo
5. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
6. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
7. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
8. 3 – 1 – 3 – 2

Explanation

Cajanus cajan (Pigeon Pea), Phaseolus vulgaris (French bean), Cicer arietinum (Chick pea / Channa) and Vigna mungo (black gram).

16. Match the following pulses with its scientific name

1. Green gram – 1. Vigna unguiculata
2. Cow pea – 2. Glycine max
3. Soya bean – 3. Macrotyloma uniflorum
4. Horse gram – 4. Vigna radiata
5. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
6. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
7. 3 – 4 – 2 – 1
8. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4

Explanation

Vigna radiata (green gram), Vigna unguiculata (cow pea), Glycine max (soya bean) Macrotyloma uniflorum (Horse gram).

17. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Field bean – 1. Sesbania grandiflora
2. Agathi – 2. Arachis hypogea
3. Cluster bean – 3. Cyamopsis tetragonoloba
4. Ground nut – 4. Lablab purpureus
5. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
6. 2 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
8. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

Explanation

Lablab purpureus (field bean), Sesbania grandiflora (agathi), Cyamopsis tetragonoloba (cluster bean) and Arachis hypogea (ground nut).

18. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Pungam – 1. Dalbergia latifolia
2. Rose wood – 2. Pterocarpus santalinus
3. Red sandalwood – 3. Pongamia pinnata
4. Malabar kino – 4. Pterocarpus marsupium
5. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
6. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
7. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1
8. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

Explanation

Pongamia pinnata (pungam), Dalbergia latifolia (rose wood) Pterocarpus santalinus (red sandalwood) and P.marsupium (Malabar kino).

19. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Babchi – 1. Glycyrrhiza glabra
2. Velvet bean – 2. Psoralea corylifolia
3. Licorice root – 3. Crotalaria juncea
4. Sunhemp – 4. Mucuna pruriens
5. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
6. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
7. 4 – 3 – 1 – 2
8. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2

Explanation

Psoralea corylifolia (Babchi), Glycyrrhiza glabra (Licorice root), Mucuna pruriens (Velvet bean) and Crotalaria juncea (sunhemp).

20. Match the following plant with plants scientific names

1. Aegyptiaca – 1. Butea monosperma
2. Avuri – 2. Clitoria ternatea
3. Asian pigeonwings – 3. Indigofera tinctoria
4. Sacred tree – 4. Sesbania sesban
5. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
6. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
7. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
8. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

Explanation

Sesbania sesban (aegyptiaca), Sesbania sesban (aegyptiaca), Clitoria ternatea (Asian pigeonwing) and Butea monosperma (Sacred tree).

21. Which among the following is correctly matched with its scientific name

1. Flame of the forest – Crotalaria albida
2. Sweet pea – Lathyrus odoratus
3. Lupin – Lupinus hirsute
4. Only 1
5. Only 3
6. Both 1 and 3
7. Both 2 and 3

Explanation

Butea frondosa (Flame of the forest), Lathyrus odoratus (Sweet pea) and Lupinus hirsutus (Lupin).

22. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Potato – 1. Lycopersicon esculentum
2. Tomato – 2. Capsicum annuum
3. Bell pepper – 3. Capsicum frutescens
4. Chilli pepper – 4. Solanum tuberosum
5. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
6. 3 – 1 – 2 – 3
7. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
8. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Solanum tuberosum (potato), Lycopersicon esculentum (tomato), Capsicum annuum (bell peppers) Capsicum frutescens (chilli pepper).

23. Match the following plant with its scientific names

1. Brinjal – 1. Physalis peruviana
2. Cape gooseberry – 2. Datura stramonium
3. Deadly nightshade – 3. Solanum melongena
4. Jimsonweed – 4. Atropa belladonna
5. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
6. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
7. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
8. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1

Explanation

Solanum melongena (brinjal), Atropa belladonna (deadly nightshade), Datura stramonium (Jimsonweed) and Physalis peruviana (cape gooseberry).

24. Which among the following is the scientific name of tobacco

1. Cestrum diurnum
2. Schizanthus pinnatus
3. Nicotiana tabacum
4. Withania somnifera

Explanation

The scientific name of tobacco is Nicotiana tabacum.

25. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Ashwagandh – 1. Withania somnifera
2. Day Jasmine – 2. Cestrum diurnum
3. Night Jasmine – 3. Cestrum nocturnum
4. Tutuvalai – 4. Solanum trilobatum
5. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
6. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
7. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
8. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1

Explanation

Solanum trilobatum (Tutuvalai), Withania somnifera (Ashwagandha), Cestrum diurnum (Day Jasmine) Cestrum nocturnum (Night Jasmine).

26. What was the scientific name of Butterfly flower?

1. Schizanthus pinnatus
2. Allium sativum
3. Colchichum luteum
4. Phormium tenax

Explanation

The scientific name of butterfly flower is Schizanthus pinnatus.

27. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Onion – 1. Asparagus officinalis
2. Garlic – 2. Allium sativum
3. Sparrow grass – 3. Mentha spicata
4. Spearmint – 4. Allium cepa
5. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
6. 2 – 4 – 3 – 2
7. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
8. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3

Explanation

Onion – Allium cepa, Garlic – Allium sativum, sparrow grass – Asparagus officinalis and Spear mint – Mentha spicata.

28. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Shatavari – 1. Colchichum luteum
2. Suranjan – 2. Phormium tenax
3. Flame lily – 3. Gloriosa superba
4. New Zealand flax – 4. Asparagus racemosus
5. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4
6. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
7. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
8. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2

Explanation

Asparagus racemosus (Shatavari), Colchichum luteum (Suranjan), Gloriosa superba (Flame lily) and Phormium tenax (New Zealand flax).

29. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Indian squill – 1. Veratrum album
2. White hellebore – 2. Urginea indica
3. Aloe yucca – 3. Yucca alcifolia
4. Spanish dagger – 4. Yucca gloriosa
5. 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
6. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
7. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
8. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1

Explanation

Urginea indica (Indian squill), Veratrum album (White hellebore), Yucca alcifolia (Aloe Yucca) and Yucca gloriosa (Spanish dagger).

30. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. African Lily – 1. Ruscus aculeatus
2. Malabar glory lily – 2. Gloriosa superba
3. Giant Himalayan lily – 3. Lilium giganteum
4. Ruscus aculeatus – 4. Agapanthus africanus
5. 1 – 4 – 3 – 2
6. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
7. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
8. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1

Explanation

Agapanthus africanus (African Lily) Gloriosa superba (Malabar glory lily) Lilium giganteum (Giant Himalayan lily) and Ruscus aculeatus (Butchers Broom).

31. Which among the following is the scientific name of orange?

1. Citrus Limonium
2. Citrus Aurantium
3. Citrullus Vulgaris
4. Ananus Sativus

Explanation

The scientific name of orange is Citrus Aurantium.

32. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Lettuce – 1. Citrullus vulgaris
2. Radish – 2. Lactuca sativa
3. Watermelon – 3. Raphanus sativus
4. Banana – 4. Musa Paradisicum
5. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
6. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
7. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
8. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4

Explanation

Lettuce (Lactuca sativa), Radish (Raphanus sativus), Watermelon (Citrullus vulgaris) and Banana (Musa Paradisicum).

33. Which among the following plant is wrongly matched with its scientific name

1. Jowar – Cojonus cgjan
2. Wheat – Triticum aestivum
3. Red gram – Sorghum vulgare
4. Only 1
5. Only 3
6. Both 1 and 2
7. Both 1 and 3

Explanation

Jowar – sorghum vulgare, Red gram – Cojonus cgjan.

34. Match the following plants with scientific name

1. Ginger – 1. Curcuma longa
2. Black pepper – 2. Syzygium aromaticum
3. Turmeric – 3. Zingiber officinale
4. Clove – 4. Piper nigrum
5. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
8. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

Explanation

Ginger (Zingiber officinale), Black pepper (Piper nigrum), Turmeric (Curcuma longa) and Clove (Syzygium aromaticum).

35. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Banyan – 1. Nicotina tobaccum
2. Tobacco – 2. Ficus benghalensis
3. Bamboo – 3. Azadhirachta indica
4. Neem – 4. Bamboosa aridinarifolia
5. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4
6. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
7. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
8. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3

Explanation

Banyan (Ficus benghalensis), Tobacco (Nicotina tobaccum), Bamboo (Bamboosa aridinarifolia) and Neem (Azadhirachta indica).

36. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Drumstick – 1. Ocimum sanctum
2. Tulsi – 2. Gossypium herbaceum
3. Sandalwood – 3. Santalum album
4. Cotton – 4. Moringa oleifera
5. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
6. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
7. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
8. 1 – 4 – 3 – 2

Explanation

Drumstick (Moringa oleifera), Tulsi (Ocimum sanctum), Sandalwood (Santalum album) and Cooton (Gossypium herbaceum).

37. Which among the following is the scientific name of Henna (mehndi)

1. Murraya koenigii
2. Mentha arvensis
3. Lawsonia inermis
4. Coriandrum sativum

Explanation

The scientific name of Henna (mehndi) is Lawsonia inermis.

38. Match the following plants with its scientific name

1. Curry plant – 1. Epipremnum aureum
2. Mint – 2. Mentha arvensis
3. Money plant – 3. Murraya koenigii
4. Coriander – 4. Coriandrum sativum
5. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
8. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4

Explanation

Curry plant (Murraya koenigii), Mint (Mentha arvensis), Money plant (Epipremnum aureum) and Coriander (Coriandrum sativum).

39. Which among the following plant is correctly matched with its scientific name

1. Barley – Pyrus malus
2. Peepal – Pisum sativam
3. Tomato – Lycopersican esculentum
4. Only 1
5. Only 3
6. Both 1 and 2
7. Both 1 and 3

Explanation

Barley – Hordeum vulgare, Peepal – Ficus religiosa Linn and Tomato – Lycopersican esculentum.

40. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Calla lily – 1. Lathyrus
2. Jersey lily – 2. Alchemilla
3. Lady’s mantle – 3. Amaryllis Belladonna
4. Sweet pea – Zantedeschia
5. 4 – 3 – 2 – 1
6. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
7. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
8. 1 – 2 – 3 – 4

Explanation

Calla lily (Zantedeschia), Jersey lily (Amaryllis Belladonna), Lady’s mantle (Alchemilla) and Sweet pea (Lathyrus).

41. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Wild rye – 1. Acer rubrum
2. Wild oats – 2. Elymus sp.
3. Red maple – 3. Eleusine coracana
4. Finger millet – 4. Avena fatua
5. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
8. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

Explanation

Wild rye (Elymus sp.), Wild oats (Avena fatua), Red maple (Acer rubrum) and Finger millet (Eleusine coracana).

42. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Apache Plume – 1. Hylocereus undutus
2. Aplle Blossom Grass – 2. Ananas comosus
3. Dragon fruit – 3. Fallugia paradoxa
4. Pine apple – 4. Gaura
5. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
8. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3

Explanation

Apache Plume (Fallugia paradoxa), Aplle Blossom Grass (Gaura), Dragon fruit (Hylocereus undutus) and Pine apple (Ananas comosus).

43. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Amaryllis – 1. Saintpaulia
2. African violet – 2. Impatiens Walleriana
3. Busy lizzie – 3. Hippeastrum
4. Barberton daisy – 4. Gerbera Jamesonii
5. 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
6. 4 – 3 – 1 – 2
7. 2 – 4 – 3 – 1
8. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4

Explanation

Amaryllis (Hippeastrum), African violet (Saintpaulia), Busy lizzie (Impatiens Walleriana) and Barberton daisy (Gerbera Jamesonii).

44. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Coral berry – 1. Ardisia Crenata
2. Corsage orchid – 2. Cattleya
3. Flaming sword – 3. Oxalis Triangularis
4. False shamrock – 4. Vriesea Splendens
5. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
6. 1 – 2 – 4 – 3
7. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
8. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Coral berry (Ardisia Crenata), Corsage orchid (Cattleya), Flaming sword (Vriesea Splendens) and False shamrock (Oxalis Triangularis).

45. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Madagascar Jasmine – 1. Hibiscus Rosa Sinensis
2. Moth orchid – 2. Phalaenopsis
3. Rose of China – 3. Billbergia Nutans
4. Queens tears – 4. Stephanotis Floribunda
5. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
6. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
7. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
8. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

Explanation

Madagascar Jasmine (Stephanotis Floribunda), Moth orchid (Phalaenopsis), Rose of China (Hibiscus Rosa Sinensis) and Queens tears (Billbergia Nutans).

46. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Peace lily – 1. Euphorbia pulcherrima
2. Poinsettia – 2. Primula obconica
3. Poison primrose – 3. Pachystachys lutea
4. Lollipop plant – 4. Spathiphyllum wallisii
5. 4 – 1 – 2 – 3
6. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
7. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
8. 1 – 4 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Peace lily (Spathiphyllum wallisii), Poinsettia (Euphorbia pulcherrima), Poison primrose (Primula obconica) and Lollipop plant (Pachystachys lutea).

47. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Almond – 1. Amomum Subulatum Roxb
2. Amla – 2. Phyllanthus Emblica
3. Cardamon – 3. Foeniculum Vulgare L
4. Fennel – 4. Prunus Dulcis
5. 4 – 2 – 1 – 3
6. 2 – 1 – 3 – 4
7. 1 – 4 – 2 – 3
8. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4

Explanation

Almond (Prunus Dulcis), Amla (Phyllanthus Emblica), Cardamon (Amomum Subulatum Roxb) and Fennel (Foeniculum Vulgare L.).

48. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Bay leaf – 1. Papaver somniferum
2. Lovage – 2. Laurus nobilis
3. Basil – 3. Levisticum officinale
4. Poppy seed – 4. Ocimum basilium
5. 4 – 1 – 3 – 2
6. 3 – 4 – 2 – 1
7. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
8. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1

Explanation

Bay leaf (Laurus nobilis), Lovage (Levisticum officinale), Basil (Ocimum basilium) and Poppy seed (Papaver somniferum).

49. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Aluminium plant – 1. Pilea cadierei
2. Areca palm – 2. Aglaonema
3. Chinese evergreen – 3. Nertera granadensis
4. Coral bead – 4. Dypsis lytescens
5. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1
6. 3 – 1 – 2 – 4
7. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
8. 1 – 4 – 2 – 3

Explanation

Aluminium plant (Pilea cadierei), Areca palm (Dypsis lytescens), Chinese evergreen (Aglaonema) and Coral bead (Nertera granadensis).

50. Match the following plant with its scientific name

1. Sage – 1. Satureja hortensis
2. Savory – 2. Garcinia indica
3. Arrow head – 3. Salvia officinalis
4. Kokam – 4. Syngonium podophyllum
5. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
6. 4 – 2 – 3 – 1
7. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3
8. 1 – 3 – 2 – 4

Explanation

Sage (Salvia officinalis), Savory (Satureja hortensis), Arrow head (Syngonium podophyllum) and Kokam (Garcinia indica).