6th Std Science Lesson Wise Questions in English – Part 2

6th Science Lesson 9 Questions in English

9] Changes Around Us

1. Which of the following is correct?

1. Change is the observable difference between initial state and the final state of any substance.
2. Change is the Law of Nature.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Change is the Law of Nature. It is the observable difference between initial state and the final state of any substance.

2. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Weather changes periodically (daily/ seasonly)
2. Seasons changes periodically
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Change is the Law of Nature. In our day – to – day life we see many changes around us. Weather changes periodically (daily/ seasonly), Seasons changes periodically.

3. It takes a few___ for milk to turn into curd

1. Hours
2. Days
3. Weeks
4. Months

Explanation

A paper burns readily while it takes a few days for an iron nail to rust. It takes a few hours for milk to turn into curd but vegetables get softened in a few minutes when cooked.

4. Which of the following property of matter changes?

1. Shape
2. Temperature
3. Position
4. Composition
5. 1, 2
6. 2, 3
7. 3, 4
8. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

The said changes are accompanied by change in properties like shape, colour, temperature, position and composition. Some changes can be observed while some are not possible to notice.

5. Which of the following is correct about Changes?

1. Some changes take place very quickly while others take hours, days or even years.
2. Some changes are temporary while some others are permanent.
3. Some changes produce new substances while others do not
4. All the above

Explanation

There are different types of changes observed in nature that occurs around us. Some changes take place very quickly while others take hours, days or even years. Some changes are temporary while some others are permanent. Some changes produce new substances while others do not. Some changes are natural while others are made by human beings.

6. Which of the following are the basis of certain similarities and differences of Changes?

1. Slow and fast
2. Reversible and irreversible
3. Desirable and undesirable
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

We shall now try to classify changes on the basis of certain similarities and differences. ϖ slow and fast ϖ reversible and irreversible ϖ physical and chemical changes ϖ desirable and undesirable ϖ natural and man – made

7. Which of the following is an example of slow change?

1. growth of nail and hair
2. germination of seed
3. bursting of fire crackers
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Changes which take place over a long period of time (hours / days / months / years) are known as Slow changes. Examples: growth of nail and hair, change of seasons, germination of seed.

8. What’s the time taken by Slow changes to take place?

1. Hours
2. Days
3. Months
4. All the above

Explanation

Changes which take place over a long period of time (hours / days / months / years ) are known as Slow changes. Examples: growth of nail and hair, change of seasons, germination of seed.

9. What’s the time taken by Fast changes to take place?

1. Seconds
2. Minutes
3. a or b
4. none

Explanation

Changes which take place within a short period of time (seconds or minutes) are known as fast changes. Examples: Bursting of balloon, breaking of glass, bursting of fire crackers, burning of paper.

10. Which of the following is an example of fast change?

1. Bursting of balloon
2. breaking of glass
3. burning of paper
4. all the above

Explanation

Changes which take place within a short period of time (seconds or minutes) are known as fast changes. Examples: Bursting of balloon, breaking of glass, bursting of fire crackers, burning of paper.

11. Which of the following is an example of Reversible change?

1. Touch me not plant
2. stretching of rubber band
3. melting of ice
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 2, 3
7. None

Explanation

Changes which can be reversed (to get back the original state) are known as reversible changes. Examples: Touch me not plant (Responding to touch), stretching of rubber band, melting of ice.

12. Which of the following is incorrect about Reversible change?

1. Changes which cannot be reversed are known as reversible changes.
2. making idly from batter is an example of reversible change
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Changes which can be reversed (to get back the original state) are known as reversible changes. Examples: Touch me not plant (Responding to touch), stretching of rubber band, melting of ice.

13. Which of the following is an example of Irreversible change?

1. Change of milk into curd
2. melting of ice
3. making idly from batter
4. 1, 3
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 2, 3
7. None

Explanation

Changes which cannot be reversed or to get back the original state are known as Irreversible changes.

Examples: Change of milk into curd, digestion of food, making idly from batter

14. Which of the following is correct about Irreversible changes?

1. Changes which cannot be reversed or to get back the original state are known as Irreversible changes.
2. Change of milk into curd is an example of Irreversible change
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Changes which cannot be reversed or to get back the original state are known as Irreversible changes.

Examples: Change of milk into curd, digestion of food, making idly from batter

15. Change of colour of cut apple is___ change

1. Physical
2. Chemical
3. Electrical
4. None

Explanation

Cut one half into pieces and share it with your friends. You can see brown patches formed on the cut surface because of the reaction between some substances in the apple and the air around it. This is a Chemical change.

16. The change in shape of cut apple is called as____ change

1. Physical
2. Chemical
3. Biological
4. None

Explanation

Cut one half into pieces and share it with your friends, only the shape and size have changed. This can be called a physical change.

17. Physical changes are the____ changes

1. Temporary
2. Permanent
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

Physical changes are the temporary changes in which there is change in the physical appearance of the substance but not in its chemical composition. Here no new substance is formed.

18. Which of the following is correct about physical change?

1. No change in chemical composition
2. New substance is formed
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Physical changes are the temporary changes in which there is change in the physical appearance of the substance but not in its chemical composition. Here no new substance is formed.

19. Which of the following is an example of Physical change?

1. Melting of ice
2. solution of salt or sugar
3. stretching of rubber band
4. 1, 2
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 3
7. 1, 3

Explanation

Physical changes are the temporary changes in which there is change in the physical appearance of the substance but not in its chemical composition. Here no new substance is formed. Example: Melting of ice, the solution of salt or sugar, stretching of rubber band.

20. Which of the following are correctly matched?

1. water into steam on heating – vapourisation
2. water into ice on cooling – melting
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Ice into water on heating – melting

Water into steam on heating – vapourisation

Steam into water on cooling – condensation

Water into ice on cooling – freezing

21. Which of the following are incorrectly matched?

1. Steam into water on cooling – condensation
2. Ice into water on heating – melting
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Ice into water on heating – melting

Water into steam on heating – vapourisation

Steam into water on cooling – condensation

Water into ice on cooling – freezing

22. Water exists in three states as______

1. Solid
2. Liquid
3. Gas
4. 1, 2
5. 2 alone
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 2, 3

Explanation

Water exists in three states as solid, liquid and gas. Change of state takes place either by heating or cooling. By heating energy is supplied and by cooling energy is taken away. These are the reasons for the changes.

23. Which of the following is correct?

1. Change of state takes place either by heating or cooling.
2. By heating energy is supplied and by cooling energy is taken away.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Water exists in three states as solid, liquid and gas. Change of state takes place either by heating or cooling. By heating energy is supplied and by cooling energy is taken away. These are the reasons for the changes.

24. The change of state from solid to gas directly is called_____

1. Melting
2. Sublimation
3. Condensation
4. None

Explanation

The change of state from solid to gas directly is called Sublimation.

Example: Camphor

25. Which of the following is an example of Sublimation?

1. Ice
2. NaCl
3. Camphor
4. All the above

Explanation

The change of state from solid to gas directly is called Sublimation. Example: Camphor

26. The spreading of the solid particles among the liquid molecules is called as___

1. Dissolution
2. Condensation
3. Sublimation
4. All the above

Explanation

The spreading of the solid particles (broken into individual molecules) among the liquid molecules is called as dissolution.

27. Which of the following is the correct statement?

1. Solute is a substance that dissolves the solvent.
2. Solute is a substance that is dissolved in a solvent to make a solution.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Solvent is a substance that dissolves the solute. Solute is a substance that is dissolved in a solvent to make a solution. When solute is dissolved in a solvent it forms a solution.

28.____ is known as the universal solvent.

1. Water
2. Kerosene
3. Methane
4. Ethane

Explanation

Water is known as the universal solvent. It dissolves a wide range of substance.

29.____ dissolves a wide range of substance.

1. Methane
2. Ethane
3. Kerosene
4. Water

Explanation

Water is known as the universal solvent. It dissolves a wide range of substance.

30. Chemical changes are the_____ changes

1. Temporary
2. Permanent
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

Chemical changes are the permanent changes in which there is change in the chemical composition and new substance is formed.

31. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Chemical changes are the permanent changes in which there is change in the chemical composition
2. No new substance is formed.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Chemical changes are the permanent changes in which there is change in the chemical composition and new substance is formed. Examples: Burning of wood, Popping of popcorn, Blackening of silver ornaments, and Rusting of iron.

32. Which of the following is not an example of chemical change?

1. Burning of wood
2. Popping of popcorn
3. Rusting of iron
4. None

Explanation

Chemical changes are the permanent changes in which there is change in the chemical composition and new substance is formed. Examples: Burning of wood, Popping of popcorn, Blackening of silver ornaments, and Rusting of iron.

33. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Physical Change is reversible
2. Chemical Change is irreversible
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

34. Which of the following is an example of Desirable changes?

1. Ripening of fruit
2. growth of plants
3. milk changing to curd
4. all the above

Explanation

The changes which are useful, not harmful to our environment and desired by us are known as desirable changes. Examples: Ripening of fruit, growth of plants, cooking of food, milk changing to curd.

35. The changes which are useful, not harmful to our environment and desired by us are known as____

1. Desirable changes
2. Undesirable changes
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

The changes which are useful, not harmful to our environment and desired by us are known as desirable changes. Examples: Ripening of fruit, growth of plants, cooking of food, milk changing to curd.

36. Which of the following is an example of undesirable change?

1. Ripening of fruit
2. cooking of food
3. Deforestation
4. milk changing to curd

Explanation

The changes which are harmful to our environment and not desired by us are known as Undesirable changes. Examples: Deforestation, decaying of fruit, rusting of iron.

37. The changes which are harmful to our environment and not desired by us are known as__

1. Desirable change
2. Undesirable change
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

The changes which are harmful to our environment and not desired by us are known as Undesirable changes. Examples: Deforestation, decaying of fruit, rusting of iron.

38. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Changes which take place in nature on their own and are beyond the control of human beings are known as Natural changes
2. The changes which are brought about by human beings are known as human made or artificial changes
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Changes which take place in nature on their own and are beyond the control of human beings are known as Natural changes. Examples: Rotation of the earth, Changing phases of the Moon, Rain.

The changes which are brought about by human beings are known as human made or artificial changes. They will not happen on their own. Examples: Cooking, Deforestation, Cultivating crops, construction of buildings.

39. Which of the following is an example of Natural changes?

1. Rotation of the earth
2. Changing phases of the Moon
3. Rain
4. All the above

Explanation

Changes which take place in nature on their own and are beyond the control of human beings are known as Natural changes. Examples: Rotation of the earth, Changing phases of the Moon, Rain.

40. Which of the following is not an example of Human made change?

1. Rain
2. Cooking
3. Deforestation
4. All the above

Explanation

The changes which are brought about by human beings are known as human made or artificial changes. They will not happen on their own. Examples: Cooking, Deforestation, Cultivating crops, construction of buildings.

41. Which of changes will not take place on their own?

1. artificial changes
2. Natural changes
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

The changes which are brought about by human beings are known as human made or artificial changes. They will not happen on their own. Examples: Cooking, Deforestation, Cultivating crops, construction of buildings.

6th Science Lesson 10 Questions in English

10] Air

1. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Air is present everywhere around us.
2. We cannot see, touch or taste air but we can feel it.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Air is present everywhere around us. We cannot see air. But we can feel its presence in so many ways. For example, we feel air when the trees rustle, clothes hanging on a clothes-line sway, pages of an open book flutters when the fan is switched on, when kites fly in the sky. We cannot see, touch or taste air but we can feel it. It is the air that makes all these movements possible. Thus, we can understand that air is present all around us.

2. Our earth is surrounded by a huge envelope of air called______

1. Biosphere
2. Atmosphere
3. Mesosphere
4. None

Explanation

Our earth is surrounded by a huge envelope of air called the atmosphere. Atmosphere extends to more than 800km above the surface of earth and is held in place by the earth’s gravity.

3. Atmosphere extends to more than____ km above the surface of earth

1. 2000
2. 800
3. 244
4. 500

Explanation

Our earth is surrounded by a huge envelope of air called the atmosphere. Atmosphere extends to more than 800km above the surface of earth and is held in place by the earth’s gravity.

4. Which of the following is correct about atmosphere?

1. The atmosphere protects us from many harmful rays coming from the sun.
2. The air envelope is thicker near the earth’s surface and as we go higher the density and the availability of air gradually decreases
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The atmosphere protects us from many harmful rays coming from the sun. The air envelope is thicker near the earth’s surface and as we go higher the density and the availability of air gradually decreases.

5. The decrease in the density of air as we go higher is due to_____

1. Reduction in the force of gravity
2. Increase in the force of gravity
3. Cosmic rays
4. None

Explanation

The air envelope is thicker near the earth’s surface and as we go higher the density and the availability of air gradually decreases. This is because, as we go higher, the force of gravity decreases, so it is not able to hold large amount of air.

6. The atmosphere is made of____ different layers

1. 4
2. 5
3. 6
4. 3

Explanation

The atmosphere is made of five different layers – the troposphere, the stratosphere, the mesosphere, the ionosphere and the exosphere.

7. Arrange the following from top to bottom

1. Troposphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Stratosphere
4. 2, 3, 1
5. 2, 1, 3
6. 1, 3, 2
7. 3, 2, 1

Explanation

The atmosphere is made of five different layers – the troposphere, the stratosphere, the mesosphere, the ionosphere and the exosphere.

8. _____ layer is closest to earth

1. Troposphere
2. Stratosphere
3. Ionosphere
4. Exosphere

Explanation

The troposphere is the layer closest to the earth. It is the layer in which we live. It extends upwards for about 16km above the surface of the earth.

9. Troposphere extends upwards for about________km above the surface of the earth

1. 26
2. 16
3. 36
4. 12

Explanation

The troposphere is the layer closest to the earth. It is the layer in which we live. It extends upwards for about 16km above the surface of the earth

10. Movement of wind takes place in____ layer

1. Troposphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Stratosphere
4. Exosphere

Explanation

The troposphere is the layer closest to the earth. It is the layer in which we live. It extends upwards for about 16km above the surface of the earth. Movement of wind takes place in this layer.

11. Which of the following is incorrect?

1. Troposphere contains water vapour, which is responsible for making clouds.
2. Exosphere is responsible for the weather we experience on earth.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The troposphere is the layer closest to the earth. It is the layer in which we live. It extends upwards for about 16km above the surface of the earth. Movement of wind takes place in this layer. It also contains water vapour, which is responsible for making clouds. This layer is responsible for the weather we experience on earth.

12. Aircrafts usually fly above_____ layer to avoid strong winds and bad weather.

1. Stratosphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Exosphere
4. Troposphere

Explanation

The troposphere is the layer closest to the earth. It is the layer in which we live. It extends upwards for about 16km above the surface of the earth. Movement of wind takes place in this layer. It also contains water vapour, which is responsible for making clouds. This layer is responsible for the weather we experience on earth. Aircrafts usually fly above this layer to avoid strong winds and bad weather.

13. The stratosphere lies above______

1. Troposphere
2. Mesosphere
3. Stratosphere
4. Ionosphere

Explanation

The stratosphere lies above the troposphere. This layer has the ozone layer in it. The ozone layer protects all life on earth from the harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun

14. In which layer ozone layer is located?

1. Stratosphere
2. Troposphere
3. Mesosphere
4. Exosphere

Explanation

The stratosphere lies above the troposphere. This layer has the ozone layer in it. The ozone layer protects all life on earth from the harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun.

15. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The ozone layer protects all life on earth from the harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun.
2. Troposphere layer has the ozone layer in it
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The stratosphere lies above the troposphere. This layer has the ozone layer in it. The ozone layer protects all life on earth from the harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun.

16. A weathercock shows_____

1. Direction of wind
2. Direction opposite to wind
3. Direction of sunset
4. Direction of sunrise

Explanation

A weathercock shows the direction in which the air is moving at a particular place. You can also make a wind sock to find the direction of the wind.

17. Until____ century, human thought ‘air’ as a fundamental constituent of matte

1. 13^th
2. 18^th
3. 17^th
4. 15^th

Explanation

For long time, that is, until eighteenth century, human thought ‘air’ as a fundamental constituent of matter. However, an ingenious experiment conducted by Joseph Priestley in 1774 showed that “air is not an elementary substance, but a composition,” or mixture of gases.

18. Joseph Priestley in______ showed that “air is not an elementary substance, but a

composition,” or mixture of gases.

1. 1774
2. 1894
3. 1783
4. 1974

Explanation

For long time, that is, until eighteenth century, human thought ‘air’ as a fundamental constituent of matter. However, an ingenious experiment conducted by Joseph Priestley in 1774 showed that “air is not an elementary substance, but a composition,” or mixture of gases.

19. Priestley was also able to identify a colourless and highly reactive gas which was later Named____ by the great French chemist Antoine Lavoisier

1. Nitrogen
2. CO2
3. Hydrogen
4. Oxygen

Explanation

For long time, that is, until eighteenth century, human thought ‘air’ as a fundamental constituent of matter. However, an ingenious experiment conducted by Joseph Priestley in 1774 showed that “air is not an elementary substance, but a composition,” or mixture of gases. He was also able to identify a colourless and highly reactive gas which was later named ‘oxygen’ by the great French chemist Antoine Lavoisier.

20.______ showed that sunlight is essential to the plant to carry out photosynthesis

1. Joseph Priestley
2. Antoine Lavoisier
3. Jan Ingenhousz
4. All the above

Explanation

During 1730 – 1799, Jan Ingenhousz showed that sunlight is essential to the plant to carry out photosynthesis and also to purify air that is fouled by breathing animals or by burning candles.

21. Daniel Rutherford, a Scottish chemist, discovered______

1. Oxygen
2. Nitrogen
3. Hydrogen
4. CO2

Explanation

Daniel Rutherford, a Scottish chemist, discovered nitrogen. He removed oxygen and converted it into carbon-di-oxide using an inverted bell jar using a burning candle.

22. Who was able to produce a gas, which showed the same property of the air without oxygen and carbon-di-oxide?

1. Jan Ingenhousz
2. Daniel Rutherford
3. Antoine Lavoisier
4. None

Explanation

Daniel Rutherford was able to produce a gas, which showed the same property of the air without oxygen and carbon-di-oxide. Hence this gas was named ‘nitrogen’.

23. Bubble some air using a straw through the limewater, lime water will produce a white Precipitate, this shows the presence of________

1. Nitrogen
2. Oxygen
3. Co2
4. Hydrogen

Explanation

Pour some lime water in a glass tumbler. Bubble some air using a straw through the limewater. After a few minutes, look at the lime water carefully. The lime water will produce a white precipitate and that the lime water will eventually turn to a milky white solution. This shows the presence of carbon-di-oxide in air.

24. The major component of air is____

1. Nitrogen
2. Oxygen
3. Co2
4. Hydrogen

Explanation

The major component of air is nitrogen. Almost four – fifth of air is nitrogen. The second major component of air is oxygen. About one – fifth of air is oxygen. In addition to nitrogen and oxygen gases, air also contains small amount of carbon–di– oxide, water vapour and some other gases like argon, helium etc. The air may also contain some dust particles.

25. Almost____ of air is nitrogen.

1. 4/5^th
2. 1/3^rd
3. 2/3^rd
4. 2/5^th

Explanation

The major component of air is nitrogen. Almost four – fifth of air is nitrogen. The second major component of air is oxygen. About one – fifth of air is oxygen. In addition to nitrogen and oxygen gases, air also contains small amount of carbon–di– oxide, water vapour and some other gases like argon, helium etc. The air may also contain some dust particles.

26. About_____ of air is oxygen.

1. 1/3th
2. 1/5^th
3. 2/5^th
4. 4/5^th

Explanation

The major component of air is nitrogen. Almost four – fifth of air is nitrogen. The second major component of air is oxygen. About one – fifth of air is oxygen. In addition to nitrogen and oxygen gases, air also contains small amount of carbon–di– oxide, water vapour and some other gases like argon, helium etc. The air may also contain some dust particles.

27. What is the % of nitrogen?

1. 21
2. 78
3. 1
4. None

Explanation

28. What is the % of Co2 inhaled during respiration?

1. 4
2. 0.04
3. 0.03
4. 3

Explanation

29. What is the % of Co2, Ar, water vapour and other gases?

1. 21
2. 1
3. 78
4. 5

Explanation

30. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Air in coastal areas may have more water vapour than inland areas.
2. Air also contains more water vapour in rainy season.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The composition of air changes slightly from place to place and also from season to season. For example, ϖ Air over industrial cities usually has a higher amount of carbon-di-oxide in it than the air over open spaces. ϖ Air in coastal areas may have more water vapour than inland areas. ϖ Air also contains more water vapour in rainy season. ϖ The amount of dust in the air is more in windy places than other areas.

31. Which of the following is correct?

1. When we burn a candle, paper, kerosene, coal, wood or cooking gas (LPG), oxygen is needed.
2. The oxygen needed for the burning of candle, paper, kerosene, coal, wood and cooking gas comes from the air around us.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

When we burn a candle, paper, kerosene, coal, wood or cooking gas (LPG), oxygen is needed. The oxygen needed for the burning of candle, paper, kerosene, coal, wood and cooking gas comes from the air around us.

32. Which of the following is incorrect?

1. For burning a substance continuously so as to make fire, a continuous supply of fresh air is needed
2. If we cut off the supply of fresh air to a burning substance, then the burning substance will not get oxygen necessary for burning to continue and hence the substance will stop burning.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

For burning a substance continuously so as to make fire, a continuous supply of fresh air is needed. If we cut off the supply of fresh air to a burning substance, then the burning substance will not get oxygen necessary for burning to continue and hence the substance will stop burning.

33. If the process does not emit flame then it is called______

1. Burning
2. Combustion
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

The process of burning of a substance in the presence of oxygen and releasing a large amount of light and heat is called burning. If the process does not emit flame then it is called combustion.

34. The process of burning of a substance in the presence of oxygen and releasing a large

amount of light and heat is called_____

1. Combustion
2. Burning
3. Both a and b
4. None

Explanation

The process of burning of a substance in the presence of oxygen and releasing a large amount of light and heat is called burning. If the process does not emit flame then it is called combustion.

35. In rockets along with the fuel___ is also carried for combustion.

1. Nitrogen
2. Oxygen
3. Hydrogen
4. None

Explanation

In rockets, as they go high in the atmosphere, the availability of oxygen is considerably reduced. Therefore, in rockets along with the fuel, oxygen is also carried for combustion.

36. Which of the following is correct?

1. Plants require energy for their growth and hence respiration also occurs in plants.
2. During respiration, plants take in oxygen and release carbon–di–oxide, just as animals do.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Plants require energy for their growth and hence respiration also occurs in plants. During respiration, plants take in oxygen and release carbon–di–oxide, just as animals do.

37. Gaseous exchange with air in atmosphere takes place in plants with the help of tiny holes

called__________

1. Root
2. Stem
3. Stomata
4. All the above

Explanation

Gaseous exchange with air in atmosphere takes place in plants with the help of tiny holes called stomata present on their leaves.

38. Plants manufacture food by a process called______

1. Respiration
2. Anaerobic
3. Aerobic
4. Photosynthesis

Explanation

Plants manufacture food by a process called photosynthesis. During photosynthesis, Carbon-di-oxide from the air and water from the soil react in the presence of sunlight to produce food.

39. Most plants possess a_____ pigment called chlorophyll

1. Blue
2. Green
3. Red
4. Yellow

Explanation

Most plants possess a green pigment called chlorophyll and it is also used-up in the process of photosynthesis.

40. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Plants release oxygen during photosynthesis which is much more than the oxygen consumed by the plants, during respiration.
2. Most plants possess a green pigment called chlorophyll and it is also used-up in the process of photosynthesis.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Most plants possess a green pigment called chlorophyll and it is also used-up in the process of photosynthesis. Plants release oxygen during photosynthesis which is much more than the oxygen consumed by the plants, during respiration.

41. Energy is required to carry out many processes in the body such as

1. Growth
2. Movement
3. Repair
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 1, 3

Explanation

When we breathe in air, the oxygen present in the air reacts chemically with digested food within the body to produce carbon-di-oxide gas, water vapour and energy. This energy is required to carry out many processes in the body such as movement, growth and repair.

42. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Process by which oxygen reacts with digested food to form carbon-di-oxide, water vapour and energy is called respiration.
2. Carbon-di-oxide formed during respiration dissolves in the blood and is exhaled out of the body through the heart
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

When we breathe in air, the oxygen present in the air reacts chemically with digested food within the body to produce carbon-di-oxide gas, water vapour and energy. This energy is required to carry out many processes in the body such as movement, growth and repair. This process by which oxygen reacts with digested food to form carbon-di-oxide, water vapour and energy is called respiration. Carbon-di-oxide formed during respiration dissolves in the blood and is exhaled out of the body through the lungs.

43. Food + Oxygen 🡪

1. C0₂
2. Water
3. Energy
4. N₂
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 1, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 3
8. 2, 3, 4

Explanation

Food + Oxygen 🡪 Carbon-di-oxide + water + Energy

The food we intake combine with the oxygen and gets burned and produce energy and with Co₂ and H₂O as wastes.

44. Inhaled air contains more___ while the exhaled air contains more_____

1. O₂, Co₂
2. Co₂, Co₂
3. O₂, O₂
4. C0₂, O₂

Explanation

Inhaled air contains more oxygen while the exhaled air contains more carbon-di-oxide. Since, the process of requires oxygen and expels carbon dioxide.

45. Which of the following statemen is correct?

1. The water of ponds, lakes, rivers and seas have some amount of dissolved air containing oxygen in it.
2. The plants and animals that live in water use the oxygen dissolved in water for breathing
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The water of ponds, lakes, rivers and seas have some amount of dissolved air containing oxygen in it. The plants and animals that live in water use the oxygen dissolved in water for breathing. For example, frogs respire through their skin, fish respire using their gills.

46. When carbon-di-oxide is cooled to___ degree C, it directly becomes a solid, without

changing to its liquid state?

1. 57
2. -57
3. 0
4. -37

Explanation

When carbon-di-oxide is cooled to -57 degree C, it directly becomes a solid, without changing to its liquid state. It is called dry ice and is a good refrigerating agent.

47. Which of the following is called as dry ice?

1. Cooled O₂
2. Cooled Co₂
3. Cooled N₂
4. Cooled Argon

Explanation

Cooled Co₂ is called as dry ice and is a good refrigerating agent. Dry ice is used in trucks or freight cars for refrigerating perishable items such as meat and fish while transporting them

48. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Compressed air is used to fill tyres of various kinds of vehicles
2. Air plays an important role in maintaining the water cycle in the nature.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Compressed air is used to fill tyres of various kinds of vehicles. Air plays an important role in maintaining the water cycle in the nature.

6th Science Lesson 11 Questions in English

11] The Cell

1. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of every living organism
2. The cell is self-sufficient to carry out all the fundamental and essential functions of an organism
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Like a brick wall, your body is composed of basic building blocks, and are named as “Cells”. The cell is the basic structural and functional unit of every living organism. The cell is self-sufficient to carry out all the fundamental and essential functions of an organism.

2. Who built a compound microscope?

1. Robert Hooke
2. Robert Brown
3. William Brown
4. John Oram

Explanation

The Englishman Robert Hooke was a scientist, mathematician, and inventor. He improved microscope which was used in those days, and built a compound microscope.

3. Robert Hooke placed______ beside the microscope to focus the light from an oil-lamp on

specimens to illuminate them brightly.

1. Concave lens
2. Convex Mirror
3. Water lens
4. Concave mirror

Explanation

Robert Hooke placed water-lens beside the microscope to focus the light from an oil-lamp on specimens to illuminate them brightly. So that he able to see the minute parts of the objects clearly.

4. In which book Robert Hooke used the term cell for the first time?

1. Micrographia
2. The Cell
3. Molecular Biology
4. Cell Biology

Explanation

Based on the observations made by him Hooke published a book named Micrographia in the year 1665, where he first used the term Cell. He described the structure of tissue using the term cell.

5. The branch of science that deals with the study of cells is called______

1. Molecular Biology
2. Cell Biology
3. Cellulogy
4. Micrology

Explanation

In Latin the word ‘cellua’ means a small chamber. The branch of science that deals with the study of cells is called ‘Cell Biology’.

6. A typical cell consists of_____ major parts

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Explanation

A typical cell consists of three major parts:

1. An outer cell membrane.

2. A liquid cytoplasm.

3. A nucleus.

7. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The size of cells may vary from a Macro-meter (a million of a metre) to a few Centi-meters.
2. Most cells are microscopic and cannot be seen with the naked eye
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The size of cells may vary from a Micro-meter (a million of a metre) to a few Centi-meters. Most cells are microscopic and cannot be seen with the naked eye. They can be observed only through the Microscope.

8. The size of the bacterial cell ranges from______

1. 0.01 micro meter to 0.5 micro meter
2. 0.1 micro meter to 0.5 micro meter
3. 0.01 micro meter to 0.05 micro meter
4. 0.01 micro meter to 0.1 micro meter

Explanation

Smallest size of the cell is present in Bacteria. The size of the bacterial cell ranges from 0.01 micro meter to 0.5 micro meter.

9. What is the width of largest cell in egg of an ostrich?

1. 170 milli meter
2. 150 milli meter
3. 120 milli meter
4. 17 milli meter

Explanation

On the other-hand the largest cell is the egg of an ostrich with 170 milli meter width. We can see this with the naked eye.

10. What is the longest cell in Human body?

1. nerve cells
2. Red blood cells
3. White blood cells
4. Platelets

Explanation

In Human body the nerve cells are believed to be the longest cells. They can be observed only through the Microscope.

11. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Cell size has relation to the size of an organism.
2. It is not necessary that the cells of, say an elephant be much larger than those of a mouse
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Cell size has no relation to the size of an organism. It is not necessary that the cells of, say an elephant be much larger than those of a mouse.

12. Which of the following organism is unicellular?

1. Bacteria
2. Amoeba
3. Chlamydomonas
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 1, 3

Explanation

Organisms may be either unicellular (single cell) or multicellular. Organisms such as Bacteria, Amoeba, Chlamydomonas, and Yeast are unicellular.

13. Which of the following organism is not multicellular?

1. Spirogyra
2. Mango
3. Yeast
4. Human

Explanation

Organisms such as Spirogyra, Mango, and Human beings are multicellular. (i.e) made up of a few hundreds to million cells.

14. Approximate number of cells in the human body is______

1. 3.7 X10^13
2. 3.7 X10^16
3. 3.7 X10^19
4. 3.7 X10^10

Explanation

The number of cells present in different organisms may vary. Approximate number of cells in the human body is 3.7 X10^13 or 37,000,000,000,000.

15. Based on Cell size arrange the following in Ascending order?

1. Bacterium Cell
2. Virus
3. Plant Cell
4. 2, 1, 3
5. 3, 2, 1
6. 2, 3, 1
7. 1, 3, 2

Explanation

16. Which of the following is correct statement about cell?

1. Prokaryotic cell has True nucleus consisting of nuclear membrane
2. Eukaryotic cell has No true nucleus consisting of no nuclear membrane
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Generally, cells are classified into two types. First one is Prokaryotic cell. It has No true nucleus consisting of no nuclear membrane. Another one is Eukaryotic cell. It has True nucleus consisting of nuclear membrane.

17. Which of the following is an example Prokaryotic cells?

1. Bacteria
2. Plants
3. Fungi
4. Algae

Explanation

The unicellular organisms like Bacteria has Prokaryotic cells. It has No true nucleus. This type of nucleus is called as nucleoid. No nuclear membrane is around this nucleoid.

18. Which of the is the 1^st life form on earth?

1. Fungi
2. Virus
3. Bacteria
4. Algae

Explanation

Bacterial cells were the first form of life on earth. It is ranging from 0.003 to 2.0 micro meter in diameter. Eg. Eschericia coil bacteria.

19. Which of the following is an example of Eukaryotic cell?

1. Plants
2. Animals
3. Most of the fungi
4. All the above

Explanation

Cells which has true nucleus is called as eukaryotic cell. It is bigger than prokaryotic cells. It’s organelles bounded by membrane. Ex. Plants, animals, most of the fungi and algae.

20. Which of the following is correctly matched?

1. Prokaryotic cell – diameter ranges from 1 to 2 micron
2. Eukaryotic cell – diameter ranges from 10 t0 100 micron
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

21. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Both plant and animals are made up of cells.
2. Both cells are eukaryotic in nature, having a well defined membrane – bound nucleus
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Both plant and animals are made up of cells. Both cells are eukaryotic in nature, having a well defined membrane – bound nucleus.

22. Which of the following is/are the features of plant cell?

1. larger in size
2. hard in nature
3. Centrioles are absent.
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1 alone
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Plant cell

* It is usually larger in size. It is hard in nature. * Plant cell have a cell wall in addition to their cell membrane. * Plant cell have chloroplast which contain chlorophyll * Plant cells have large vacuoles. Centrioles are absent.

23. Which of the following is/are the feature of animal cell?

1. Cell wall is absent
2. Chloroplast is usually present
3. Animal cells are generally smaller than plant cells
4. 1 alone
5. 1, 3
6. 1, 2
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Animal cell * Animal cells are generally smaller than plant cells. It is not so hard as plant cell. * A cell wall is absent. * Chloroplast is usually absent. * An animal cell may have many small vacuoles. * Centrioles are found in animal cells.

24. What is the function of Cell wall?

1. protects the cell
2. Produce energy for the cell
3. Store food
4. All the above

Explanation

Cell wall Surrounds and protects the cell, Make the cell stiff and strong. It has the special name as Supporter and protector.

25. What is the special name for Cell membrane?

1. Supporter and protector
2. Gate of the cell
3. Area of movement
4. Power house of the cell

Explanation

Cell membrane Holds and protects the cell, Controls the movement of materials in and out of the cell. It has a special name as Gate of the cell.

26. ______ is a gel-like material in which cell parts move

1. Cytoplasm
2. Cell membrane
3. Mitochondria
4. Vacuoles

Explanation

Cytoplasm is a watery, gel-like material in which cell parts move. It is also called as Area of movement.

27. Which of the following is called as Power house of the cell?

1. Cytoplasm
2. Mitochondria
3. Chloroplasts
4. Nucleus

Explanation

Mitochondria Produce and supply most of the energy for the cell. It is called as Power house of the cell.

28._______ Capture the energy of sunlight and use it to produce food for the cell by Photosynthesis

1. Cytoplasm
2. Mitochondria
3. Chloroplast
4. Vacuoles

Explanation

Chloroplasts Contain green pigment chlorophyll and Capture the energy of sunlight and use it to produce food for the cell by photosynthesis. It is called as Food producers for the cell (Plant cell).

29. Vacuoles are called as_________

1. Storage tanks
2. Control centre
3. Gate of the nucleus
4. Power house of the cell

Explanation

Vacuoles Store food, water, and chemicals. It has a special name called as Storage tanks. IT is scattered over the cytoplasm.

30.______ acts the brain of cell.

1. Nucleus
2. Vacuoles
3. Cytoplasm
4. Mitochondria

Explanation

Nucleus acts as ‘brain’ of the cell. It Regulates and controls all the cell activities. It is also called as Control centre.

31. Which of the following is the gateway of Nucleus?

1. Nuclear membrane
2. Cytoplasm
3. Mitochondria
4. Protoplasm

Explanation

Nucleus membrane Surrounds and protects the nucleus control the movement of materials in and out of the nucleus. It is the Gate of the nucleus.

6th Science Lesson 12 Questions in English

12] Human Organ Systems

1. The Human body has____ major organ systems

1. 8
2. 6
3. 7
4. 9

Explanation

The Human body has eight major organ systems. They are * Skeletal System * Muscular System * Digestive System *Respiratory System * Circulatory System *Nervous System * Endocrine System * Excretory System.

2. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Organ systems are formed by the association of organs which are organized from tissues
2. A group of organs that work together to perform a particular function is known as an organ system.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Organ systems are formed by the association of organs which are organized from tissues. This kind of organization helps the organism to perform various activities more efficiently. A group of organs that work together to perform a particular function is known as an organ system.

3. Which of the following are the parts of Skeletal system?

1. Bones
2. Cartilages
3. Joints
4. 1, 3
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 1, 2

Explanation

The skeletal system consists of bones, cartilages and joints. Bones provide a frame work for the body. Bones along with muscles help in movements such as walking, running, chewing and dancing etc.,

4. The adult human skeletal system consists of _______ bones

1. 206
2. 210
3. 216
4. 205

Explanation

The adult human skeletal system consists of 206 bones and few cartilages, ligaments and tendons. Bones provide a frame work for the body.

5. Which of the following are matched correctly?

1. Ligaments – connect bone to muscle
2. Tendons – connecting bone to bone
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The adult human skeletal system consists of 206 bones and few cartilages, ligaments and tendons. Ligaments help in connecting bone to bone. Tendons connect bone to muscle.

6. Which of the following are included in Axial skeleton?

1. Skull
2. Vertebral column
3. Rib cage
4. pelvic girdles
5. 1, 2, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 3
8. 1, 3, 4

Explanation

The two major divisions of the skeletal system are Axial skeleton and Appendicular skeleton. Axial skeleton forms the upright axis of the body which includes Skull, Vertebral column, Rib cage.

7. Which of the following are included in Appendicular skeleton?

1. Pectoral girdles
2. Pelvic girdles
3. Bones of the limbs
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

The two major divisions of the skeletal system are Axial skeleton and Appendicular skeleton. Appendicular skeleton consists of the bones of the limbs along with their pectoral and pelvic girdles.

8. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The skull is made up of cranial bones and facial bones.
2. It protects the brain and the structures of the face.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The skull is made up of cranial bones and facial bones. It protects the brain and the structures of the face. The hyoid bone present at the base of the buccal cavity and the auditory ossicles (Malleus, Incus and Stapes) are also included in the skull.

9. Which of the following are auditory ossicles?

1. Malleus
2. Incus
3. Stapes
4. 1, 3
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 1, 2

Explanation

The skull is made up of cranial bones and facial bones. It protects the brain and the structures of the face. The hyoid bone present at the base of the buccal cavity and the auditory ossicles (Malleus, Incus and Stapes) are also included in the skull.

10. Which of the following bone is largest and strongest bone in the human face?

1. Buccal cavity
2. Auditory ossicles
3. Lower jaw bone
4. Upper jaw bone

Explanation

The skull is made up of cranial bones and facial bones. It protects the brain and the structures of the face. The hyoid bone present at the base of the buccal cavity and the auditory ossicles (Malleus, Incus and Stapes) are also included in the skull. Lower jaw bone is the largest and strongest bone in the human face.

11. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Vertebral column extends from the base of the skull
2. It is formed by a number of serially arranged small bones called vertebrae
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Vertebral column extends from the base of the skull. It protects the spinal cord. It is formed by a number of serially arranged small bones called vertebrae (singular: vertebra)

12. The rib cage is made up of____ pairs of curved, flat rib bones

1. 13
2. 12
3. 24
4. 26

Explanation

The rib cage is made up of 12 pairs of curved, flat rib bones. It protects the delicate vital organs such as heart and lungs.

13. Which of the following is used for walking and sitting?

1. Fore limb
2. Hind limb
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Man has two pairs of limbs namely upper limbs (fore limbs) and lower limbs (hindlimbs). Fore limbs are used for holding, writing etc., while hind limbs are used for walking, sitting etc.,

14. With the help of_________ fore limbs and hind limbs are attached to the axial skeleton

1. Pectoral Girdle
2. Pelvic girdle
3. Thoracic Cavity
4. Both a and b

Explanation

The fore limbs and hind limbs are attached to the axial skeleton with the help of pectoral and pelvic girdle respectively.

15. The smallest bone in our body is_______

1. Femur
2. Stapes
3. Ulna
4. Tibia

Explanation

The smallest bone in our body is present inside the ear. It is called Stapes. It is only 2.8 milli meters long (average length).

16. The longest bone in the body is_________

1. Rib
2. Spinal Cord
3. Ulna
4. Femur

Explanation

The longest bone in the body is the thigh bone. (Femur). The smallest bone in our body is present inside the ear. It is called Stapes. It is only 2.8 milli meters long (average length).

17. A new born baby has_____ bones

1. 300
2. More than 300
3. 250
4. More than 250

Explanation

A new born baby has more than 300 bones. As the baby grow, some bones are joined together, hence the skeleton of an adult has 206 bones.

18._______ is responsible for the body movements.

1. Muscular system
2. Skeletal system
3. Nervous system
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 1, 3

Explanation

In the body, muscular system along with the skeletal and nervous system, is responsible for the body movements.

19. How many types of muscles are there?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 2

Explanation

Muscles can contract and therefore, help in moving other parts of the body. It maintains the posture and body position. There are three types of muscles namely * Skeletal muscle * Smooth muscle * Cardiac muscle.

20. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Muscles of the body can only pull and they cannot push.
2. When one muscle contracts, the other muscle relaxes.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Muscles of the body can only pull and they cannot push. Two muscles are required to move a bone at a joint. When one muscle contracts, the other muscle relaxes.

21. Which of the following are required to move ‘the lower arm up and down?

1. Biceps
2. Triceps
3. Tibia
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 1, 3

Explanation

Two muscles are required to move a bone at a joint. To move ‘the lower arm up and down two type of muscles called biceps and triceps are required.

22. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. When we raise our lower hand, the biceps in front become short by Expanding and the triceps at the back stretch to pull up the arm.
2. When we lower our arm, the triceps at the back contract and biceps stretch to pull the arm down
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

When we raise our lower hand, the biceps in front become short by contraction and the triceps at the back stretch to pull up the arm. When we lower our arm, the triceps at the back contract and biceps stretch to pull the arm down.

23. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Skeletal muscles of our body are attached to the bones.
2. They are called Involuntary muscles
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Skeletal muscles of our body are attached to the bones. They are called Voluntary muscles because they can be controlled by our will. Example: Muscles of arm.

24. Smooth muscles are found in_____

1. Heart
2. Pacemaker
3. Walls of the digestive tract
4. All the above

Explanation

Smooth muscles are found in the walls of the digestive tract, urinary bladder, arteries and other internal organs. They are called ‘Involuntary muscles’ because they are not controlled by our will.

25. Which of the following are capable by Cardiac muscles?

1. Rhythmic
2. Contraction continuously
3. Involuntary
4. 1 alone
5. 1, 2
6. 1, 3
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

The walls of the heart is made up of cardiac muscles. They are capable of rhythmic, contraction continuously and involuntary in nature.

26. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Digestive system consists of the alimentary canal and associated glands.
2. This system is involved in the conversion of complex food substances into simple forms and absorption of digested food.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Digestive system consists of the alimentary canal and associated glands. This system is involved in the conversion of complex food substances into simple forms and absorption of digested food.

27. Which of the following are associated with alimentary canal that secrete enzyme?

1. Salivary glands
2. Liver
3. Pancreas
4. All the above

Explanation

The digestive glands associated with the alimentary canal are salivary glands, liver, and pancreas. They secrete enzymes which help in the process of digestion of food in the digestive tract or alimentary canal.

28. What is the length of alimentary canal?

1. 9m
2. 18m
3. 8m
4. 19m

Explanation

The alimentary canal is about 9 meters long. Stomach is a major organ for digestion of food materials. Absorption of digested food occurs in the small intestine.

29. Which of the following is not a part of Alimentary canal?

1. Mouth
2. Pharynx
3. Larynx
4. Anus

Explanation

30. Which of the following is/are Associated glands for digestion?

1. Salivary glands
2. Gastric glands
3. Intestinal glands
4. All the above

Explanation

31. Which of the following part stores, mixes and digest food with gastric juice it produces?

1. Liver
2. Large intestine
3. Stomach
4. Mouth

Explanation

32. Which of the following is not a part of human respiratory system?

1. Trachea
2. Larynx
3. Nostrils
4. Spleen

Explanation

Respiratory system is involved in exchange of respiratory gases and there by helps us to breathe. The human respiratory system consists of nostrils, nasal cavity, pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs. It helps in the movement of air in and out of the body.

33. The entry of food into the wind pipe is prevented by a flap like structure called______

1. Pleura
2. Alveoli
3. Epiglottis
4. Tongue

Explanation

Respiratory system is involved in exchange of respiratory gases and there by helps us to breathe. The entry of food into the wind pipe is prevented by a flap like structure called Epiglottis.

34. Exchange of O₂ and CO₂ occurs between air in_______

1. Blood and lung
2. Lung and blood
3. heart and Spleen
4. Spleen and heart

Explanation

Exchange of O₂ and CO₂ occurs between air in the lung and blood. The entry of food into the wind pipe is prevented by a flap like structure called Epiglottis.

35. _____ connects the pharynx and larynx to the lungs

1. Pleura
2. Alveoli
3. Trachea
4. All the above

Explanation

Lungs are the main respiratory organ. They are located within the chest cavity. The trachea, commonly called windpipe, is a tube supported by cartilaginous rings that connects the pharynx and larynx to the lungs, allowing the passage of air.

36. The trachea divides into______

1. Bronchi
2. Alveoli
3. Pleura
4. Larynx

Explanation

The trachea, commonly called windpipe, is a tube supported by cartilaginous rings that connects the pharynx and larynx to the lungs, allowing the passage of air. The trachea divides into right and left bronchi and enter into the lungs.

37. The lungs are covered by a double layered_____

1. Bronchi
2. Alveoli
3. Pleura
4. Larynx

Explanation

The trachea divides into right and left bronchi and enter into the lungs. They divide further and ends in small air sacs called alveoli. The lungs are covered by a double layered pleura. Diffusion of gases (O₂ and CO₂) occurs across the alveolar membrane.

38. Arrange the following in order

1. Nostrils
2. Alveolus
3. Larynx
4. Nasal cavity
5. 1, 3, 4, 2
6. 1, 4, 3, 2
7. 2, 3, 4, 1
8. 2, 1, 3, 4

Explanation

39. Which of the following statement is correct about Internal Respiration?

1. Taking in of Co₂ and giving out Oxygen.
2. Haemoglobin in the red blood cells (RBCs) transport O₂ and CO₂.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Internal Respiration: Taking in of oxygen and giving out CO2. The circulatory system transports O2 and CO2 to and from all parts of the body. Haemoglobin in the red blood cells (RBCs) transport O2 and CO2.

40. Which of the following is correctly matched?

1. External Respiration – Intake of O₂ from the air and releasing of CO₂ from the lungs occurs through nostrils.
2. Cellular Respiration – Cells take in CO₂ and release O₂
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

External Respiration: Intake of O₂ from the air and releasing of CO₂ from the lungs occurs through nostrils.

Cellular Respiration: Cells take in O₂ and release CO₂

41. Each lung has about________ million air sacs

1. 300 million
2. 300 billion
3. 200 million
4. 200 billion

Explanation

Each lung has about 300 million air sacs or alveoli. Yawning helps us to take in more amount of O₂ and to give out CO₂.

42. Which of the following are transported through circulatory system?

1. respiratory gases
2. hormones
3. waste materials in body
4. all the above

Explanation

The circulatory system is one of the important systems consisting of heart, blood vessels and blood. It transports respiratory gases, nutrients, hormones and waste materials within the body. It protects the body from harmful pathogens and also regulates the body temperature.

43. Heart is located in the__________

1. Buccal Cavity
2. Thoracic Cavity
3. Lumbar region
4. None

Explanation

Heart is located in the thoracic cavity between the two lungs. The circulatory system is one of the important systems consisting of heart, blood vessels and blood.

44. The double layered membrane of heart is called as_________

1. Pericardium
2. Monocardium
3. Epicardium
4. None

Explanation

The heart is four chambered and is surrounded by a double layered membrane called pericardium. The heart pumps blood continuously throughout our life time.

45. How many types of blood vessels are present in the body?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 5
4. 2

Explanation

Three types of blood vessels are present in the body. They are arteries, veins and capillaries. They form a closed network through which the blood is circulated.

46. RBCs are produced in______

1. Spleen
2. Liver
3. Heart
4. Bone marrow

Explanation

There are three types of blood cells namely, Red blood corpuscles (RBCs), White Blood corpuscles (WBCs) and Blood Platelets. RBCs are produced in the bone marrow.

47._____ is a fluid connective tissue of red colour containing plasma and blood cells

1. Adenosine
2. Blood
3. Saliva
4. HCl

Explanation

Blood is a fluid connective tissue of red colour containing plasma and blood cells. There are three types of blood cells namely, Red blood corpuscles (RBCs), White Blood corpuscles (WBCs) and Blood Platelets. RBCs are produced in the bone marrow.

48._______ carries blood from right ventricle to lungs

1. Inferior vena cava
2. Pulmonary artery
3. Pulmonary vein
4. Aorta

Explanation

Pulmonary artery carries blood from right ventricle to lungs. Pulmonary vein carries blood from lungs to heart.

49. Except which all the other artery carries oxygenated blood?

1. Aorta
2. Superior vena cava
3. Inferior vena cava
4. Pulmonary artery

Explanation

Arteries carries the blood from heart to all parts of the body. Except Pulmonary artery all the other artery carries Oxygenated blood.

50. Except which vein all the other vein carries blood depleted of oxygen?

1. Aorta
2. Superior vena cava
3. Inferior vena cava
4. Pulmonary vein

Explanation

Veins carries blood from all parts of the body to heart. Except Pulmonary vein all the other veins carry blood depleted of oxygen.

51. A resting person usually has a pulse rate between_________ beats per minute

1. 80 to 120
2. 72 to 80
3. 85 to 95
4. 72 to 92

Explanation

The number of beats per minute is called the Pulse rate. A resting person usually has a pulse rate between 72 to 80 beats per minute.

52. Every healthy person over_________ years of age can donate blood.

1. 20
2. 21
3. 18
4. 24

Explanation

Hospitals have blood banks where blood can be temporarily stored before it is given to the patients in need. Every healthy person over 18 years of age can donate blood. So that, it can be given to persons in need during emergencies of accidents or operations. Blood donation saves their life.

53. Which of the following is not included in Nervous system?

1. Brain
2. Tongue
3. Nerves
4. Heart

Explanation

Nervous system is well developed in human and is composed of neurons or nerve cells. This system includes brain, spinal cord, sensory organs and nerves.

54. Which of the following is the function of Nervous System?

1. Conduction
2. Coordination
3. Convection
4. 1, 3
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 2
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

The two important functions of the nervous system along with the endocrine system are conduction and coordination.

55. Which of the following is correct about brain?

1. It is the part of the central nervous system
2. It is the site of consciousness and memory
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Brain is the part of the central nervous system that regulates and controls activities throughout the body; the site of consciousness and memory.

56. _______ conducts signals to and from the brain

1. Bone marrow
2. Spinal cord
3. Peripheral nerves
4. All the above

Explanation

Spinal cord is a bundle of nerves extending from the brain stem through the backbone; conducts signals to and from the brain.

57. Which of the following are Peripheral nerves?

1. Intercostal nerves
2. Radial nerve
3. Femoral nerve
4. 1, 3
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 1, 2

Explanation

58. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The brain is a complex organ which is placed inside the cranium
2. Brain has three regions namely fore brain, mid brain and hind brain
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

The brain is a complex organ which is placed inside the cranium. It is protected by a three layered tissue coverings called meninges. Brain has three regions namely fore brain, mid brain and hind brain. It is the controlling centre of the body.

59. Spinal cord is the extension of________

1. Cerebrum
2. Cerebellum
3. Medulla oblongata
4. Hypothalamus

Explanation

Spinal cord is the extension of medulla oblongata of the hind brain and is enclosed within the vertebral column. Spinal cord connects the brain to different part of the body through nerves.

60. Which of the following are matched correctly?

1. Sensory Input – interpretation of the sensory signals and the formulation of responses.
2. Motor output – conduction of signals from the brain and spinal cord to effectors, such as muscle and gland cells.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

1. Sensory Input: The conduction of signals from sensory receptors.

2. Integration: The interpretation of the sensory signals and the formulation of responses.

3. Motor output: The conduction of signals from the brain and spinal cord to effectors, such as muscle and gland cells.

61. Brain is said to store as many as_______ of information in a life time.

1. 10gb
2. 100 million bits
3. 10 million bits
4. 1gb

Explanation

The brain is a complex organ which is placed inside the cranium. Brain is said to store as many as 100 million bits of information in a life time.

62. There are________ sense organs in our body

1. 6
2. 5
3. 9
4. 7

Explanation

Sense organs are like the windows to the outside world. There are five sense organs in our body such as eyes, ears, nose, tongue and skin. They make us aware of our surroundings. We are able to see, hear, smell, taste and feel, only through sense organs.

63. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. The eyelids and eyelashes keep the eyes safe.
2. The eye has three main parts namely cornea, iris and pupil
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Eyes help us to see things around us i.e., their colour, shape, size whether they are near or far, moving or at rest. The eyelids and eyelashes keep the eyes safe. The eye has three main parts namely cornea, iris and pupil.

64. Which of the following is/are maintained with the help of ears?

1. Walking
2. Running
3. Climbing
4. All the above

Explanation

Ears help to hear and differentiate sounds around us. The ears also help us in maintaining the balance of the body when we are walking, running or climbing.

65. The outer ear in human beings is made up of an external flap called________

1. Alveoli
2. Bronchi
3. Pinna
4. None

Explanation

The ear has three major parts, the outer ear, the middle ear and the inner ear. The outer ear in human beings is made up of an external flap called pinna.

66. __________ is the largest sense organ as it covers the whole body.

1. Tongue
2. Nose
3. Skin
4. Eyes

Explanation

Skin is the largest sense organ as it covers the whole body. The skin helps to feel the things around us by touching, that is whether they are hot or cold, smooth or rough, dry or wet, hard or soft. Skin covers the body and protects it from germs. It also keeps the body moist and regulates the body temperature.

67. Skin helps us to synthesize vitamin _______ using sunlight.

1. K
2. D
3. A
4. B12

Explanation

Functions of the skin

1. Skin forms an effective barrier against infection by microbes and pathogens.
2. Skin helps us to synthesize vitamin D using sunlight.

68. Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Endocrine system regulates various functions of the body and maintains the internal environment.
2. Exocrine glands are present in the body, produce chemical substances called hormones.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Endocrine system regulates various functions of the body and maintains the internal environment. Endocrine glands are present in the body, produce chemical substances called hormones.

69. Match the following correctly?

1. Pituitary gland – 1. Chest
2. Thymus Gland – 2. At the base of brain
3. Adrenal Gland – 3. Pelvic cavity
4. Gonads – 4. Above the kidney
5. 2, 4, 3, 1
6. 2, 1, 3, 4
7. 2, 1, 4, 3
8. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

70. _________ wastes are removed from the body by the excretory system

1. Carbon
2. Nitrogen
3. Calcium
4. All the above

Explanation

The nitrogenous wastes are removed from the body by the excretory system. It is composed of kidneys, ureters, urinary bladder and urethra.

71. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

1. Kidneys are bean shaped structures present in the abdominal cavity.
2. The functional units of the kidney are called Neurons which filter the blood and form the urine.
3. 1 alone
4. 2 alone
5. 1, 2
6. None

Explanation

Kidneys are bean shaped structures present in the abdominal cavity. The functional units of the kidney are called Nephrons which filter the blood and form the urine.

72. Grey matter of the brain_________ % of water

1. 15
2. 80
3. 85
4. 45

Explanation

Our body contains about 70% water. Some parts have more water like the grey matter of the brain (about 85%) and some less, like fat cell (about 15%). We normally consume 1.5 to 3.5 litres of water every day in the form of food and water.

73. The tube through which urine discharged from body is________

1. Urethra
2. Urinary bladder
3. Ureter
4. Renal vein

Explanation

Urethra is the tube through which urine is discharged from the body and it is surrounded by muscles that allow to control urination.

74. ________ carries urine from kidney to urinary bladder

1. Urethra
2. Ureter
3. Renal vein
4. Urinary bladder

Explanation

Ureter carries urine from kidney to urinary bladder. Renal vein brings filtered blood from kidneys to inferior vena cava.

75. _________ bring blood containing oxygen and urea from the aorta to kidney

1. Renal artery
2. Renal vein
3. Superior vena cava
4. Inferior vena cava

Explanation

Renal artery bring the blood containing oxygen and urea from the aorta to the kidneys. Urinary bladder is an expandable muscular sac that retains urine until it is discharged from the body.

6th Science Lesson 13 Questions in English

13] Magnetism

1. In which form Magnets were found naturally?

a) Soil

b) Rocks

c) Ore

d) Gaseous

Explanation

About 2500 years ago magnetic rocks were found in a place called Magnesia. Those rocks were attracted to iron materials. More of these rocks were found worldwide.

2. The ore of magnets are called as?

a) Magnus

b) Magnetite

c) Magnesia

d) Magnum

Explanation

The magnetic rocks found naturally are called as magnets. The ore is called as magnetite which was named after the boy Magnus and the place Magnesia where it was found.

3. What are the other names of the Natural Magnets?

a) Magnetic Stones

b) Leading stones

c) Lode stones

d) All the above

Explanation

Magnetite was the ore with the attracting property and it is called as Natural Magnets. These are also called as Natural Magnets, Leading Stones, and lode stones.

4. Which of the following is not an artificial magnet?

a) Bar-magnet

b) Ring magnet

c) Ferrite magnet

d) Needle magnet

Explanation

Bar-magnet, Horseshoe magnet, Ring magnet and Needle magnet are generally used artificial magnets.

5. Which of the following statement is/are wrong?

i) Natural magnets used to find the directions

ii) Natural magnets have a defined shape

iii) These ores have attracting property

a) i only

b) i and iii

c) ii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Natural magnets or magnetite are the ore with attracting property. These do not have a defined shape and it is mainly used for finding the directions.

6. Name the process of changing the piece of iron into magnets?

a) Galvanization

b) Magnetization

c) Ionization

d) Carbonization

Explanation

The Method of converting the iron piece into magnet artificially is called as Magnetization. Magnets of these types are called as Artificial Magnets.

7. Assertion (A): Papers and plastics materials are called as non-magnetic substances.

Reasoning(R): Non-magnetic substances are not attracted by magnets.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False

Explanation

Substances which are not attracted by magnet are called non-magnetic substances. Paper, plastic are called non-magnetic substances.

8. Match the following

i) Magnetic substances A. Ring magnets

ii) Non-Magnetic Substances B. Lode stone

iii) Artificial Magnets C. Plastic

iv) Natural Magnets D. Iron

a) BDCA

b) DCAB

c) ABDC

d) CDAB

Explanation

Magnetic substances are attracted by Magnets (Iron, Cobalt, and Nickel). A Non-magnetic substance is not attracted by magnets (Paper, plastic). Artificial Magnets are available in various form and shapes like Horse shoe, Needle, Ring, Oval, Bar, Disc. Natural magnets are also called as Lead stones and Lode stones.

9. The Magnets has high attractive forces near the,

a) Two ends

b) Parallel ends

c) Center part

d) Edges

Explanation

The Attractive forces of the magnets are very large near the two ends of the magnet which are called as poles.

10. In which direction a freely suspended magnet always come to rest position?

a) West-East

b) South-North

c) North-South

d) East-West

Explanation

The Magnets comes to rest position roughly in North-South direction when it is suspended freely. The end points are called as North and South Poles.

11. Which country navigators used the load stone to find directions?

a) Romans

b) Chinese

c) Egyptians

d) Sumerians

Explanation

Around 800 years ago, the Chinese discovered the directive property of magnets. They used load stones in their boats to find directions during storm and mist.

12. The Marked end of the needle in a magnetic compass is the ____ pole of the magnet.

a) North

b) South

c) West

d) East

Explanation

A Compass is an instrument which is used to find directions in ships and airplanes. It has a magnetic needle that can rotate easily. The marked end of the needle denotes the north pole of the magnet.

13. In which of these applications compass is used?

a) Ships

b) Airplanes

c) Mountain climbers

d) All the above

Explanation

A compass is an instrument which is used to find directions. It is mostly used in ships and airplanes. As a rule, mountaineers also carry a compass with them so that they do not lose their way in unknown places.

14. Which of the following statements is not true?

a) The Unlike poles of two magnet always Repel each other.

b) Repulsion occurs at same poles of different magnets.

c) The similar poles of different magnet attract towards each other.

d) Attraction occurs at unlike poles of different magnets.

Explanation

The Opposite poles of different magnets attract each other similarly the same poles repel each other. These properties are called as Attraction and Repulsion nature of magnets.

15. When the magnets will lose their properties?

a) Heated

b) Galvanized

c) Carbonized

d) Electrolysis

Explanation

Magnets lose their properties if they are heated, hammered, Dropped from heights and placed near the cellphone, Computer.

16. Which is used as a magnetic keeper to store the magnets properly?

a) Soft iron

b) Coal

c) Copper

d) Tin

Explanation

Proper storage of magnets is also needed to preserve their properties. Soft iron should be placed across their ends.

17. What are the applications of magnets?

a) Speakers

b) Toys

c) Small motors

d) All the above

Explanation

Magnets are used in various equipment’s in day to day life. Speakers, Toys, bags, Compass, Magnetic crane, Medical field, Stickers and Door Locks.

18. Which train uses the levitation technique of magnets?

a) Maglev

b) Light rail

c) High speed trains

d) Metro

Explanation

Maglev is Magnetic Levitation which uses the property of magnetic attraction and repulsion to run these super-fast electromagnetic trains.

19. Name the country which uses the Maglev train for public transport?

a) North Korea

b) Europe

c) Japan

d) America

Explanation

Many of the countries are trying to use the Maglev train for public transport. Mainly China, Japan, South Korea currently using this train for transports.

20. Electromagnetic train is also called as

i) Suspension train

ii) Electric train

iii) Flying train

iv) Monorail

a) i and ii

b) i and iii

c) ii and iv

d) i and iv

Explanation

Electromagnetic train works under the concept of the levitation of magnets. It does not require petrol or diesel. This Electromagnetic train also called as Suspension train or Flying train.2

21. Which is used to change the direction of poles in an electromagnetic train?

a) Current

b) Voltage

c) Magnetic Field

d) Power

Explanation

The Electro magnets used in the electromagnetic trains are magnetized by the current flown through that. When the direction of this current flow is changed the poles are also changed.

22. How the Electromagnetic trains achieve high speed compared to other trains?

a) High Current flow

b) Magnetic Fields

c) No Friction

d) Power Gain

Explanation

The Magnets of the electromagnetic train are controlled by the current passing through it. These magnets are attached on sides of the track and in the bottom sideway of the train. As there are no moving parts there is no friction so the train can attain high speed than other techniques.

23. What are the features of Electromagnetic trains?

a) No Friction

b) Less noise

c) Less energy

d) All the above

Explanation

Electromagnetic trains are known for their high speed because of No friction and it is also produce less noise and it is Eco friendly. It requires very less energy for its operation.

24. Which one is the not associated with the property of magnets?

a) Attraction

b) Repulsion

c) Direction

d) Fluctuation

Explanation

The Magnets are used for finding the direction. The unlike poles of any two different magnets attract each other and the same poles attracted towards each other. Using these principles electromagnetic train is operated.

25. Which is not a magnetic material?

a) Wood

b) Iron

c) Needle

d) Nickel

Explanation

Wood is not attracted to magnets and it is not a magnetic material. All other materials listed above have the tendency to attract towards magnet.

26. Which of the following does not affect the properties of a magnet?

a) Computer

b) Television

c) Cork

d) Speaker systems

Explanation

Magnets lose their properties when they are placed near Cellphone, Computer, DVDs. These objects will also get affected by magnetic field.

27. Which of these will make the magnet to lose their properties?

a) Improper storage

b) Heating a magnet

c) Hitting with a hammer

d) All the above

Explanation

Improper storage can also cause magnets to lose their properties. To keep them safe, bar magnets should be kept in pairs with their unlike poles on the same side. They must be separated by a piece of wood and two pieces of soft iron should be placed across their ends. Magnets lose their properties if they are heated or dropped from a height or hit with a hammer.

6th Science Lesson 14 Questions in English

14] Water

1. By which of these the temperature of earth is regulated?

a) Atmosphere

b) Sun

c) Water

d) Revolution

Explanation

The Important basic substance of earth is water. It is used to regulate the temperature of earth and the temperature of living organisms.

2. In how many natural forms water is available in earth?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 5

Explanation

Water is available in nature in three forms namely solid, liquid and vapor. Ice bergs and ice caps in solid and oceans, sea, lake and rivers are liquid forms of water. It is found in air as gaseous form.

3. Match the distribution of fresh water in various forms.

1. Glaciers A. 0.3%

2. Surface water B. 30.1%

3. Ground water C. 68.7%

a) CAB

b) BAC

c) ABC

d) ACB

Explanation

Water is available in two forms Salty water and Fresh water. Fresh water is used for daily purpose. Totally 3% of available water in earth is fresh water. Fresh water is available in various sources like glaciers, Ground water and Surface water and other sources.

4. State the correct statements given below

i) Saline water is suitable for drinking.

ii) It has large amount of dissolved solids.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) i and ii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Ocean and sea water are dissolved with huge amount of salts and minerals. This is called as saline water which is not suitable for human consumption.

5. Define the qualities of water.

a) Transparent

b) Tasteless

c) Odorless

d) All the above

Explanation

Water is chemical substance with two hydrogen atom and one oxygen atom. Basically water is transparent, tasteless and odorless substance. The physical composition of water changes from place to place.

6. How many categories of water are classified based on its salinity?

a) 3

b) 5

c) 4

d) 2

Explanation

The amount of salt in water is termed as salinity. Based on its salinity water is classified into three main categories such as freshwater, brackish water and sea water.

7. Which of these salts is not present in the Ocean water?

a) Calcium chloride

b) Magnesium chloride

c) Ammonium chloride

d) Sodium chloride

Explanation

Ocean water is composed of many substances. The salts include sodium chloride, magnesium chloride and calcium chloride.

8. What is the freezing temperature of water at normal pressure?

a) 0 ^oC

b) 273 ^o C

c) -273 ^o C

d) 100 ^o C

Explanation

Water freezes at 0^o Celsius at normal pressure. The boiling point of water is 100 deg Celsius.

9. Which of these substances may dissolve in the water?

a) Chalk powder

b) Charcoal

c) Copper sulphate

d) Sand

Explanation

The Common salt and copper sulphate dissolve in water and contribute their properties like color and other properties to water but sand, chalk powder and charcoal powder do not dissolve in water.

10. What is the other name of water cycle?

a) Renewal Cycle

b) Hydrological cycle

c) Purity cycle

d) Neutral cycle

Explanation

Water cycle is a continuous process which involves three major steps. It is a natural process by which water gets renewed and the other name of water cycle is Hydrological cycle.

11. Match

Classification Amount of salt

i) Fresh water A. upto 3%

ii) Brackish water B. > 3%

iii) Sea water C. 0.05% to 1%

a) CAB

b) BCA

c) ABC

d) CBA

Explanation

The amount of salt in water is termed as salinity. Based on salinity water is classified into three main categories as Fresh water, Brackish water and Sea water.

Fresh water contains 0.05% to 1% of salt. Brackish water contains upto 3% of salt and seawater contains more than 3% of salt.

12. Assertion (A): Salinity is defined as the amount of salt present in the water.

Reasoning(R): The physical composition of water remains the same in all places.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is True but R is False.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

The physical composition of water changes from place to place. It can be clear or cloudy, oxygenated or not very oxygenated and it can be fresh or salty. The amount of salt in water is termed as salinity.

13. We can obtain surface water through _____ and _____.

a) Ponds and lake

b) Tanks and Tube wells

c) Taps and Rain water

d) Wells and springs

Explanation

Water obtained from ponds, rivers, wells are classified as Fresh Water which is used for human consumption. These are naturally available as Glaciers, Ground water and Surface water.

14. Rain water can be used for human consumption.

a) Yes, it can be used after appropriate method of filtering techniques.

b) No, it contains more chlorides which make it unusable for human consumption.

c) No, it can’t be used as it contains more salt.

d) None of the above

Explanation

Rain water is considered as the purest form of water. But it contains some impurities and particles present in atmosphere. These supplies may need to be filtered to ensure it for human consumption.

15. What is the source of energy for the water cycle?

a) Rain

b) Moon

c) Atmosphere

d) Sun

Explanation

The water on earth evaporates into atmosphere due to the heat of Sun. These Vapors forms clouds by which water reaches earth by rain or snow.

16. Most of the earth fresh water is available from?

a) Rivers

b) Oceans

c) Springs

d) Glaciers and ice caps

Explanation

The Total fresh water of earth is distributed among various forms like Glaciers, Ground water, Surface water. In that 68.7% of total fresh water is available from polar ice caps and glaciers.

17. How many stages are involved in Water cycle?

a) 2

b) 1

c) 4

d) 3

Explanation

Water cycle is a continuous process. It involves three stages- Evaporation, Condensation and Precipitation.

18. What is the process of loss of water from aerial parts of a plant in vapor form?

a) Transpiration

b) Ionization

c) Dissociation

d) Hydrogenation

Explanation

Transpiration is the process of loss of water from the aerial parts of plants in vapor form. Water evaporates from Lakes, rivers, Rain water and also from polar ice caps.

19. How many types of Natural sources of fresh water are available?

a) 2

b) 1

c) 3

d) 5

Explanation

Three types of natural sources of fresh water are available on earth. They are from Surface water, frozen water and Ground water.

20. Which is not categorized as a surface water source?

a) Lakes

b) Clouds

c) Streams

d) River

Explanation

Water present on the surface of the earth such as river, lake, ponds, streams or fresh water wetland is called surface water.

21. How much percentage of fresh water is available in frozen state?

a) 30.3%

b) 56%

c) 68.7%

d) 43%

Explanation

Water present in frozen form as polar ice-caps and glaciers are called as frozen water. About 68.7% of the total available fresh water is in frozen state.

22. Water levels in the reservoir are measured in _________

a) Liter

b) Gallon

c) TMC /feet

d) Milliliters

Explanation

Water levels in reservoirs are measured in TMC/feet. Water released from dams is measured in cusec (cubic feet/sec).

23. Gallon is used as a measure the ____ of liquids.

a) Capacity

b) Volume

c) Surface tension

d) Melting point

Explanation

Water is measured in liter and milliliter. Gallon is also a measure of volume of liquids. 1Gallon = 3.785 liter.

24. Assertion (A): During winter season Aquatic animals under the ice layer is alive.

Reasoning (R): Floating layer of ice acts as a protective coat.

a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is false but R is true

d) Both A and R is false.

Explanation

During winter season water in lakes and ponds in cold countries will be frozen and a solid layer of ice is formed on the surface of water. This layer does not permit heat to escape from water which is the reason for the existence of aquatic animals under the ice layer.

25. What are the reasons for the water scarcity?

a) Water availability on earth is low.

b) Because of monsoon changes Rain water is reduced.

c) Ocean evaporation level is increasing due to global warming.

d) Useful water for human and plants is decreasing day by day.

Explanation

The Total quantity of water available in earth is not changed. But the useful water which is essential for mankind and plants is decreasing day by day. This is known as water scarcity.

26. Water scarcity is prevented by ____ of water.

a) Conservation

b) Consumption

c) Alternate usage

d) Prevention

Explanation

The only method of preventing water scarcity is Conservation of water. Or else it is impossible for organisms to live on the earth.

27. In which year the Rain Water Harvesting movement was launched in Tamilnadu?

a) 2000

b) 2001

c) 2004

d) 1999

Explanation

Rain water harvesting is a methodology to collect the water from rainfall area and where it flows.

28. Which of these is the wetland meeting point of fresh water and sea water?

a) Estuaries

b) Ponds

c) River

d) Swamps

Explanation

Estuaries are wetlands where a water body meets the sea. It is the combination of fresh water from land meets the salty sea water.

29. Human body averagely requires _____ liters of water for proper functioning.

a) 1-2 liters

b) 2-3 liters

c) 1.5 to 2.5 liters

d) 3-4 liters

Explanation

Human body uses water for all its cells, Organs and tissues to regulate its temperature and other functions. Averagely human body requires 2-3 liters of water per day for proper functioning.

30. Match the location of swamps in India.

i) Pichavaram A. Odisha

ii) Bhitarkanika B. Chennai

iii) Pallikaranai C. West Bengal

iv) Sundarbans D. Chidambaram

a) ADBC

b) BDCA

c) DABC

d) CBAD

Explanation

Swamps are wetlands that occur along large river or on the shores of lakes. Swamps are important for fresh water and oxygen to all life. It is spread across various parts of India.

31. Which of these factors reduce the ground water pollution?

a) Minimizing the usage of chemical fertilizers.

b) Deforestation

c) Rainwater harvesting

d) Recycling

Explanation

Water is essential for healthy growth of farm crops and farm stock. But minimizing the use of chemical fertilizers in agriculture reduces the pollution of underground water.

32. The Swamp water may contain,

a) Fresh water

b) Brackish water

c) Sea water

d) All the above

Explanation

Swamps are forested wetlands. The water of swamp may be freshwater, brackish water or sea water.

33. What is the disinfectant chemicals used for cleaning the polluted water?

a) Chlorine

b) Sodium

c) Ammonia

d) a and c

Explanation

Sea water is distributed after passing through a treatment system which converts sea water to consumable fresh water. In this process water is filtered through sand filtration method and then sends to disinfection stage. This process removes the microorganisms present in it. Disinfection is done with chlorine and ammonia.

34. Who proved the Chemical composition of water?

a) Lavoisier

b) Dalton

c) Bohr

d) Einstein

Explanation

Lavoisier (1743-1794) conducted various experiments to conclude that air is a mixture it is not a basic element. Likewise he also proved that water is made up of oxygen and hydrogen.

35. Which of the following is used to regulate and distribute the water flow?

a) Canals

b) Well

c) Dam

d) Recycle units

Explanation

Several systems and methodologies are practiced to distribute the water in all level. Huge quantity of water is saved in reservoirs and dams to regulate the water supply and for proper distribution.

36. Which is the largest ice caps and glaciers source of India?

a) The Himalayas

b) The Western Ghats

c) The Ganges

d) The Eastern Ghats

Explanation

The Total fresh water is available mainly in the form of ice bergs and glaciers. The Himalayas contain ice caps and glaciers from which most of the Asian rivers originates.

37. How many types of Rain water harvesting methods are available?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 5

d) 4

Explanation

There are two methods followed for the conservation of water. One of the most important method is Rain water harvesting. In that two types of rain water harvesting is done (a) Collecting water from where it falls. (b) Collecting flowing rain water.

38. What is the total percentage of sea water found in oceans and seas?

a) 98%

b) 99%

c) 97%

d) 93%

Explanation

Water is most important component for all human beings, animals and plants. Water is available in various forms naturally. 97% of the total water on earth is found in seas and oceans.

39. In which year the Elements of chemistry was published?

a) 1788

b) 1789

c) 1777

d) 1776

Explanation

Lavoisier is a pioneer in the revolution of chemistry. He published the book “Elements of Chemistry“ in the year 1789 which was the foundation of Modern Chemistry.

40. The World water day is observed on,

a) June 5

b) July 22

c) May 20

d) March 22

Explanation

Every year march 22nd is observed as the world water day.

41. Which is not an industrial usage of water?

a) Solvent

b) Electricity generation

c) Cooking

d) Cleaning

Explanation

Industry depends on water at all levels of production. It is used as a material, a solvent and for generating electricity.

42. What are the Human bodily functions of water?

a) Temperature regulation

b) Food digestion

c) Toxin removal

d) All the above

Explanation

Our body uses water in all its cells, organs and tissues to help regulate its temperature and maintain other bodily functions. On an average, the human body requires 2 – 3 liters of water per day for proper functioning. Water helps in digestion of food and removal of toxins from the body.

43. Which of these is indicated by the moisture in the soil?

a) Salinity of water

b) Underground water

c) PH level

d) Total Surface water

Explanation

The moisture in the soil indicates the presence of underground water.

44. Which of these is not present in the Himalayas?

a) Glaciers

b) River

c) Streams

d) Ice caps

Explanation

The Himalayas contain ice caps, ice bergs and glaciers. Ten of Asia’s largest rivers flow from the Himalayas and more than a billion people’s livelihoods depend on those rivers.

45. Which of the human part has the minimum water content?

a) Bones

b) Blood

c) Brain

d) Lymph

Explanation

6th Science Lesson 15 Questions in English

15] Chemistry In Everyday Life

1. Which of this process change the substance?
2. Chemical change
3. Ionization
4. Physical change
5. None of the above

Explanation

Materials are subjected to have physical or chemical changes. Chemical changes of a material result in change of the substance.

1. Which of these is called as a Natural Indicator?
2. Chlorine
3. Iodine
4. Vegetable oil
5. Turmeric

Explanation

Turmeric is found to be a natural indicator. The color change indicates the acidic or the base nature of a material.

1. Identify the correct statements below
2. In Physical change only the size and shape of the matter changes.
3. Egg boiling process is an example of physical change of a matter.
4. i only
5. ii only
6. i and ii
7. None of the above

Explanation

The Physical changes in a material change the shape, size or volume and the state of a material. Boiling an egg is a chemical change as a new substance is formed and the process is irreversible.

1. Chemistry is the branch of science which deals with the study of _____ around us.
2. Matter
3. Particles
4. Resources
5. Process

Explanation

There are lots of studies that involved in Human evolution and understanding the substances around us. In that chemistry deals with the detailed study of various particles around human beings.

1. Which chemical is present in onion that causes irritation in our eyes?
2. Propanethial s-oxide
3. Solanum tuberosum
4. Myristic acid
5. 3-Methylethyl Butanoate

Explanation

The presence of chemical Propanethial s-oxide in onion gives irritation and tears in Human eyes. While cutting the onion the cells are damaged and the chemical changes into vapor and comes out. This causes irritation and tears in eyes.

1. Which of the following cause the fermentation of batter?
2. Fungus
3. Bacteria
4. Protozoa
5. None of the above

Explanation

In some food batters fermentation process is carried out by the bacteria present in it. These cause some chemical changes and make them soft and tastier.

1. What is the other name of soap making Sodium hydroxide?
2. Caustic soda
3. Aspirin
4. Gypsum
5. Potash alum

Explanation

Soaps are made by Lye (or) Sodium Hydroxide (or) Caustic soda with Coconut oil and water. Different soaps are prepared with different raw materials for various purposes.

1. Assertion (A): Depending on the nature of the alkali used in production soaps have distinct properties.

Reasoning (R): Potassium Hydroxide (KOH) is used for washing.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is True but R is False.
4. Both A and R are False.

Explanation

Soaps are salts made by combining an Alkali with fats or fatty acids. KOH is used to manufacture soft soaps which are useful for bathing.

1. Which of these are called as Principal Nutrients?
2. Nitrogen, Phosphorous, Potassium
3. Phosphorous, Potassium, Sodium
4. Nitrogen, Sodium, Chlorine
5. Magnesium, Potassium, Phosphorous

Explanation

Sunlight, Air and Water are needed for the growth of the plants. Apart from these some nutrients are also needed which are got from the soil. Nitrogen, Phosphorous and Potassium are three important nutrients which are called as Principal Nutrients.

1. How many types of Fertilizers are classified?
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2
5. 5

Explanation

Fertilizers are classified as Organic and Inorganic based on the materials they use and the process by which they are made.

1. Identify the incorrect statements given below.
2. Inorganic fertilizers are synthesized by micro-organisms.
3. Organic fertilizers are Urea, Ammonium Sulphate.
4. Organic fertilizers are very economical.
5. i only
6. i and ii only
7. iii only
8. ii and iii only

Explanation

Organic fertilizers are plants and animals based materials synthesized by microorganisms. They are also economical. Inorganic fertilizers are made in factories by chemical process. Urea , Ammonium Sulphate are some of the Inorganic fertilizers.

1. Earth worms take organic wastes as food and produce ______.
2. Compost castings
3. Inorganic fertilizers
4. Super phosphate
5. None of the above

Explanation

Earthworms take organic wastes as their food and produce compost castings. This compost is used to improve soil health.

1. Which plays the key role in controlling the rate of hardening the cement?
2. Gypsum
3. Water
4. Clay
5. Sand

Explanation

Cement becomes hard when water is added to it. Gypsum is used to control the rate of hardening of cement. Gypsum is added at the final process.

1. Match
2. Mortar A. Iron mesh
3. Concrete B. Binding Blocks
4. Reinforced Cement C. Bridges
5. CBA
6. ABC
7. BAC
8. BCA

Explanation

Mortar is a cement paste which is used to bind the building blocks. Concrete mixture is used to construct bridges and dams. Reinforced cement is a composite material which has iron mesh and cement mix.

1. In which year Joseph Aspdin invented cement?
2. 1823
3. 1824
4. 1829
5. 1880

Explanation

In 1824, Joseph Aspdin invented Portland cement by burning finely ground chalk and clay in kiln. It was also named as Portland cement.

1. Concrete is a mixture of
2. Cement, Sand and water
3. Cement, Sand and gravel
4. Cement , Iron mesh
5. None of the above

Explanation

Concrete is a mixture of Cement, Sand and Gravel. It is used in the construction of buildings, Dams and Bridges.

1. Identify the correct statements below.
2. Gypsum is hard, white mineral
3. It is naturally unavailable.
4. i only
5. ii only
6. i and ii
7. None of the above

Explanation

Gypsum is a soft white grey naturally available material. The chemical name of gypsum is Calcium Sulphate Dihydrate.

1. What is the chemical name of Gypsum?
2. Sodium Hydroxide
3. Calcium sulphate dihydrate
4. Potassium permanganate
5. Hydrogen sulfate

Explanation

The Chemical name of Gypsum is Calcium Sulphate Dihydrate. The molecular formula of gypsum is CaSo4.2H2O.

1. Usage of Epsom salts are,
2. Medicine for skin problems
3. Making of Plaster of Paris
4. Construction industry
5. Stress reliever
6. i, ii, iv only
7. ii and iii only
8. i and iv only
9. iii only

Explanation

Epsom salts is also called as Magnesium Sulphate Hydrate. Used for various purposes. It is used for stress reliever and for body relaxation. Also used as a medicine for skin problems.

1. Which is used in making casts for statues and toys?
2. Epsom
3. Plaster of Paris
4. Gypsum
5. None of the above

Explanation

Plaster of Paris which is named as it is found near Paris, France. It is prepared from the Gypsum. The Uses of plaster of Paris are in setting of fractured bones in surgeries for making casts for statues and toys.

1. Which Oil material is used for the cleaning purpose?
2. Phenol
3. Epsom
4. Gypsum
5. Mortar

Explanation

Phenol is a carbolic acid which is used for the cleaning purposes and as a disinfectant.

1. Identify the correct statements given below regarding Phenol.
2. It is a strong Acid.
3. It is Volatile.
4. Grey Crystalline Material.
5. Coloured solution
6. i and iv
7. ii and iii
8. ii only
9. iv only

Explanation

Phenol is a weak acid. It is a volatile white crystalline powder. It is a colorless solution.

1. To which color Phenol solution changes if dust is present?
2. White
3. Blue
4. Red
5. Green

Explanation

Phenol is basically a colorless solution which changes to Red color if any dust particles present in it.

1. Assertion (A): Phenol kills Microorganisms.

Reasoning (R): It is used as Surgical Antiseptic.

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
2. Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3. A is True but R is False.
4. Both A and R are False.

Explanation

Phenol is used in low concentrations in mouthwash and as a disinfectant for floor cleaning. As it kills the microorganisms it is also used as Surgical Antiseptic.

1. Adhesives are also known as,
2. Glue
3. Paste
4. Mucilage
5. All the above

Explanation

Adhesives are a paste like substance which is commonly known as Glue, mucilage or paste.

1. From which of the following the natural adhesive is made?
2. Starch
3. Oils
4. Minerals
5. Salts

Explanation

Natural adhesives are made from starch and artificial adhesives are made from chemicals.

1. Artificial Adhesive is classified based on their ______.
2. Making
3. Utilities
4. Chemical bonding
5. Availability

Explanation

Artificial adhesives are made from chemicals. They are classified in various ways depending on their utilities. They have various forms like paste, liquid, film, pellets and tape.

1. Which is used as a disinfectant and cleaner?
2. Gypsum
3. Diluted Phenol
4. Ethanol
5. Methyl alcohol

Explanation

The diluted form of phenol is mostly used as a disinfectant in household cleaners and also in mouthwash liquids.

1. Adhesives are used to ____ two or more components.
2. Transform
3. Join
4. Separate
5. Fold

Explanation

Adhesives are substances that are used to join two or more components together through attractive forces across the interfaces.

1. Which of the following substance gives irritation to human skin?
2. Iodine
3. Chlorine
4. Phenol
5. None of the above

Explanation

Phenol is a carbolic acid. It irritates when exposed to human skin. It has a wide usage in industrial process.

1. Which increases the adhesive capacity at the surfaces for proper binding?
2. Material
3. Pressure
4. Temperature
5. Force

Explanation

Pressure increases the adhesive capacity at both of the surfaces for binding. This proper pressure ensures the binding correctly.

1. Choose the correct statements.
2. Sunlight, water and air are essential for the growth of the plant.
3. Fertilizers are also essential for the growth of plants.
4. i only
5. ii only
6. i and ii only
7. None of the above

Explanation

Sunlight, Air and water are needed for the growth of the plant. Apart from these some nutrients from the soil is also essential for the growth of the plants.

1. Which of the following is used to produce a Basic Soap?
2. Hydrogen
3. Soda
4. Water
5. Acids

Explanation

A basic form of soap is made by mixing the fats or fatty acids with salts along with the water. Water is used to dissolve the salt content with the oil to begin the saponification process. Later some of the water evaporates and makes the soap harder.

1. According to which the nature of soaps is varied?
2. Usage
3. Process
4. Constituents
5. Color

Explanation

The Nature of the soap varies according to the constituents present in it.

1. Which of these are inorganic fertilizers?
2. Urea
3. Superphosphate
4. Sodium Nitrate
5. All the above

Explanation

Inorganic fertilizers are prepared by using natural elements to undergo some chemical changes in factories. Urea, Ammonium Sulphate, Sodium Nitrate and Super phosphate are some of the inorganic fertilizers.

1. Cement is manufactured by crushing natural materials like ____ , clay and Gypsum.
2. Water
3. Sand
4. Lime
5. Gravels

Explanation

The cement is manufactured by crushing of naturally occurring minerals like lime, clay and gypsum through milling process.

1. What is added to control the setting of the cement?
2. Water
3. Sand
4. Lime
5. Gypsum

Explanation

Gypsum plays a vital role in controlling the rate of hardening of the cement. A small amount of gypsum is added to the final grinding process to control the setting of the cement.

1. Match
2. Gypsum A. MgSo4.7H2O
3. Epsom B. C6H5OH
4. Plaster of Paris C. CaSO4.2H2O
5. Phenol D. CaSO4.1/2 H2O
6. BDCA
7. ADCB
8. CADB
9. ABCD

Explanation

The chemical name for gypsum is calcium sulphate dihydrate(Caso4.2H2O)

Epsom salt is Magnesium sulphate dihydrate (Mgso4.7H2O)

Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate (Caso4.1/2 H2O)

Phenol molecular formula is C6H5OH.

1. What type of compound is the Phenol?
2. Organic
3. Inorganic
4. Acidic
5. Natural

Explanation

Phenol is a carbolic acid of an organic compound. It is a volatile weak acid.

1. By which of this process cement is manufactured?
2. Heating
3. Mixing
4. Binding
5. Milling

Explanation

Cement is manufactured by crushing the natural minerals like Lime, Clay and Gypsum through milling process.

1. Which of these is indicated as the natural indicator by the chemists?

a) Turmeric powder

b) Neem

c) Common salt

d) Vitamin D

Explanation

Chemists identify turmeric powder as a ‘natural indicator’. The change in color indicates that the material is either acid or base medium.

1. How many types of fertilizers are classified?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 5

d) 7

Explanation

Fertilizers given to plants can be classified into two. They are organic and inorganic fertilizers.

1. What are the uses of the cement?

a) Mortar

b) Concrete

c) Reinforced cement concrete

d) All the above

Explanation

Cement is used as mortar, concrete and reinforced cement concrete.

1. Which is defined as the farmer’s friend?

a) Earthworms

b) Ammonium

c) Water

d) Soil

Explanation

Earthworms are known as Farmers’ friends because of the multitude of services they provide to improve soil health and consequently plant health.

1. Which of these are built by using reinforced cement concrete?

a) Bridges

b) Huge water tanks

c) Drainages

d) All the above

Explanation

Reinforced cement concrete is a composite material by mixing iron mesh with cement. This is very strong and firm. It is used in the construction of dams, bridges, centering works in houses and construction of pillars. Huge water tanks, water pipes and drainages are built with this.

6th Science Lesson 16 Questions in English

16] Our Environment

1. Identify the correct statements below

i) Environment can have Biotic and Abiotic factors.

ii) Abiotic factors are non-living parts.

iii) Plants, Animals are examples of biotic factors.

a) i, ii only

b) i only

c) ii and iii only

d) All the above

Explanation

Environment is everything which surrounds all the biotic and abiotic factors. Biotic factor includes living things like plants and animals etc. Abiotic factor are nonliving parts like light, air, water and minerals.

2. What are the types of Ecosystem?

a) Natural Ecosystem

b) Artificial Ecosystem

c) a and b

d) None of the above

Explanation

Ecosystem is a community of living and non-living things. The types of Ecosystem are Natural and artificial ecosystem.

3. Aquarium is an example of _____ ecosystem.

a) Artificial Terrestrial ecosystem

b) Natural Aquatic ecosystem

c) Artificial Aquatic Ecosystem

d) None of the above

Explanation

Artificial ecosystem are created and maintained by human. Aquarium can be a large building or a small tank. It has some of the characteristics of natural ecosystems.

4. What are the physical factors in abiotic components?

a) Light

b) Soil

c) Temperature

d) a and c

Explanation

Abiotic components include all the non-living components. The physical factors of abiotic components include light, temperature, Wind, Humidity.

5. In which of this place terrestrial animals and plants are kept at controlled conditions?

a) Aquarium

b) Terrarium

c) Terrestrial Ecosystems

d) None of the above

Explanation

Terrarium is an example of artificial ecosystem. It has all terrestrial animals and plants with controlled conditions as like in their Natural environment.

6. Assertion (A): Producers are also called as autotrophs.

Reasoning (R): Producers are able to produce their own food.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is False but R is True

d) Both A and R are False.

Explanation

Producers are organisms which are able to produce their own food. They are also called as Autotrophs.

7. Consumers are classified based on their ______.

a) Lifestyle

b) Food

c) Place of living

d) All the above

Explanation

Consumers are organisms which cannot produce their own food. There are many types of consumers which can be classified based on the food they consume.

8. Find the incorrect statements regarding Decomposers.

i) These are microorganisms.

ii) They obtain energy from the dead animals.

iii) A bacterium is an example of decomposers.

a) i only

b) i and iii

c) ii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Decomposers are Microorganisms which obtain energy from the chemical breakdown of Dead animals. Bacterium and fungi are some examples of decomposers.

9. Food chain gives the relationships between,

a) Animals and plants

b) Producers and consumers

c) Human and ecosystem

d) Aquatic and terrestrial Ecosystem

Explanation

A Food chain gives the detail view between the producers and consumers. It describes how organisms get energy by eating other organisms.

10. Match

i) Carnivores A. Dog

ii) Omnivores B. goat

iii) Herbivores C. lion

a) CAB

b) BCA

c) ACB

Explanation

Carnivores are animals which eat other animals. Herbivores are animals which eat plants or plant products. Animals which eat both plants and animals are called Omnivores.

11. Which of this animal belong to the terrestrial ecosystem food chain?

a) Deer

b) Blue Whale

c) Polar Bear

d) Crocodiles

Explanation

Food chain in a terrestrial ecosystem has plants as Producers and Primary Consumer or Herbivores like Deer etc.

12. Which is the key process for the energy production of living things in the world?

a) Respiration

b) Ozone layer

c) Photosynthesis

d) Ocean

Explanation

The primary energy production for the entre living things in the world is made by plants, where the key process of energy production in plants is caused by Photosynthesis process.

13. Identify the incorrect statements below

i) Animals which eat primary consumers are called Tertiary consumers

ii) Animals that eat secondary consumers are called Quaternary consumers.

a) i only

b) ii only

c) i and ii

d) None of the above

Explanation

A food chain may contain various consumers. We differentiate the consumers based on their food at various levels. Animals which eat the secondary consumers are Tertiary Consumers and that eat Tertiary consumers are called as Quaternary Consumers.

14. What is the information acquired from the Energy pyramid?

a) Consumers

b) Producers

c) Energy loss

d) Tertiary consumers

Explanation

Organism uses only 90% of its food as their energy for life processes. 10% of the remaining energy will be available to the next animal when it is eaten. This loss of energy at each trophic level can be shown by an Energy pyramid.

15. Assertion (A): Above all the food chains the top level predator has no Natural predators.

Reasoning (R): There is no predator for an alligator in an aquatic ecosystem.

a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is False but R is True

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

In all the available food chains there is a top level predator which has no natural predators. There is no natural predator for alligator in Aquatic ecosystem likewise for a terrestrial ecosystem tiger is a top level predator.

16. The Importance of food chain are,

i) To understand the relationship between organisms.

ii) To know about the energy flow in an Ecosystem.

iii) Used to understand the movement of toxic substances.

a) i and iii

b) i only

c) ii and iii

d) All the above

Explanation

Food chain helps us to understand the feeding relationship and interaction between various organisms. Also we can know about the energy flow and nutrients circulation. The movements of toxic substances and their impacts also inferred by these food chains.

17. Materials are considered to be waste if they

a) Worn out

b) Broken

c) Have no purpose

d) All the above

Explanation

Waste is any substances or material that has been used but it is not wanted anymore. This is either because it is worn out, broken or no longer has any purposes.

18. How many solid Wastes are categorized?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 5

d) 4

Explanation

Solid wastes can be classified into two major types , Biodegradable or Non-biodegradable waste.

19. Identify the correct statement regarding Biodegradable waste.

i) It is easily decomposed by water.

ii) Metals are biodegradable wastes.

a) i only

b) i and ii

c) ii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Biodegradable wastes can be decomposed by natural agents like water, Oxygen, UV rays and Microorganisms etc. Metal scraps and metals cannot be decomposed by these natural agents are called as Non-Biodegradable wastes.

20. What is the key purpose of 3R’s?

a) Study of Food chain

b) Study of Food web

c) Environment protection

d) Degradable waste

Explanation

Solid waste management is used to reduce create wastes and protects environment. In that 3 R’s are key scheme to protect the environment.

21. What are the three R stand s for?

a) Reproduce, Reduce, Renew

b) Reduce, Reuse, Recycle

c) Record, Reuse, Recycle

d) Report, Receive, Record

Explanation

Environment protection is achieved by using three R techniques. Where R stands for Reduce the usage and the second R stands for Reuse and the last R for Recycle.

22. Name the process by which materials are converted into new products?

a) Reuse

b) Recycle

c) Revival

d) None of the above

Explanation

The process by which waste materials are used to make new products is called Recycling of materials.

23. Which helps in composting of organic wastes?

a) Plants

b) Predators

c) Bugs

d) Microorganism

Explanation

The process of degrading organic wastes into manure by microorganism is called as Composting. These are used as natural fertilizers for the plants.

24. What are the products which are meant for incineration?

a) Medicines

b) Toxic drugs

c) Blood

d) All the above

Explanation

Burning of solid waste in Incinerator is called as incineration. Generally human anatomical wastes like discarded medicines, toxic drugs, Blood and pus are disposed by Incineration process.

25. In landfilling method,

i) Wastes are dumped into man-made pits.

ii) They remain for very short time period.

iii) They decompose at a very slow rate.

a) i only

b) ii and iii only

c) i and iii only

d) None of the above

Explanation

Landfilling method wastes are dumped into natural or man-made pits and covered with soil. These garbage buried remains for a long time as they take more time to decompose slowly.

26. How many types of wastes are categorized based on the SWM rules?

a) 2

b) 3

c) 4

d) 5

Explanation

The Solid Waste management (SWM), 2016 say that every household wastes can be segregated into 3 separate streams like bio-degradable waste, non- biodegradable waste and domestic hazardous waste.

27. Which wastes below fall under the category of Domestic hazardous waste?

i) CFL bulbs

ii) Vegetable peels

iii) Used Batteries

iv) Bottles

a) i, iii, iv only

b) i, ii, iii only

c) i, iii only

d) iv, ii only

Explanation

Domestic hazardous waste includes paint drums, pesticide cans, CFL bulbs, Tube lights , expired medicines, Used batteries, needles and syringes at household level.

28. Name the substance which causes pollution?

a) Environment

b) Ecosystem

c) Pollutant

d) Hazardous gas

Explanation

Pollution is the damage caused to the environment because of human activities. Any substance that causes pollution is known as a Pollutant.

29. Pollution is an unwanted change in ______ characteristics of land, air and water.

a) Chemical

b) Physical

c) Biological

d) All the above

Explanation

Pollution is an unwanted change in the physical, chemical and biological characteristics of land, air and water.

30. Which is the cause for Acid rain?

a) Toxic gases

b) Burning of solid waste

c) Fumes from aerosols

d) None of the above

Explanation

Toxic gases produced by the industries mix up with the rain drops in the atmosphere. these cause acid rain which damages plants and nutrients of soil.

31. How many major types of pollution are categorized?

a) 4

b) 2

c) 10

d) 5

Explanation

There are four major kinds of pollution which are Air, water, Soil and noise pollution.

32. What are the significant sources of water pollution?

a) Sewage

b) Industrial liquid wastes

c) Solid wastes dumped in water bodies

d) All the above

Explanation

The most significant sources of water pollution are Sewage water from Home, Industrial effluents, Agricultural pollutants and Solid wastes dumped into any kind of water bodies.

33. Which pollution is caused by usage of Chemical pesticides?

a) Land pollution

b) Water pollution

c) Noise pollution

d) a and b

Explanation

Chemical pesticides and fertilizers washed away from farms because water pollution and also the excess use of chemicals and fertilizers are major cause of land or soil pollution.

34. Soil pollution affects ,

a) Human only

b) Plants only

c) Animals only

d) All the above

Explanation

Soil pollution affects animals, humans and even plants. Soil acts as a sponge which absorbs all pollutants.

35. Which type of waste easily mixes with the soil?

a) Plastic bags

b) Pesticides

c) Ash mixes

d) None of the above

Explanation

We can reduce the land pollution by not burning any waste materials. The ash from these mixes with soil very easily and this contaminates the nutrients of the soil.

36. What are the direct effects of noise pollution?

a) Stress

b) Blood pressure

c) Hearing loss

d) All the above

Explanation

Noise pollution also affects the environment. This has been directly linked to stress and high blood pressure and Hearing loss.

37. Assertion (A): Birds have softer communication systems.

Reasoning (R): Birds cannot hear in noisy areas.

a) Both A and R is True and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is True but R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is False but R is True.

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Noise pollution disturbs animals and birds too. Birds have to communicate louder so they can interact with each other in noisy areas.

38. Which pollution kill aquatic animals and make the water unfit for drinking?

a) Noise pollution

b) Water pollution

c) Land pollution

d) Air pollution

Explanation

Water pollution is caused by waste from factories, houses and farms mixes with water bodies. This can contaminate the water by making it unfit for human consumption. This can even kill the aquatic animals by polluting the water.

39. What are the different causes of Land pollution?

a) Farming `

b) Mining

c) Factories

d) All the above

Explanation

Land or Soil pollution comes from farming, mining and by factory and industrial wastes.

40. In which pollution Recycle method is not possible?

a) Land pollution

b) Water pollution

c) Noise pollution

d) None of the above

Explanation

Solid wastes from land pollution and water wastes from various contaminated water bodies can be recycled and reused for various other purposes. Noise pollution can be controlled and cannot be recycled in any other form.

41. What is the main cause of Agricultural pollutants?

a) Chemical Pesticides

b) Burnt plants

c) Contaminated water

d) All the above

Explanation

Agricultural pollutants are caused by chemical pesticides and fertilizers that get washed from farms and also the excess usage of chemicals in contaminating the rich contents of soil.

42. Pollution occurs when the ______ gets contaminated.

a) Species

b) Environment

c) Air

d) Land

Explanation

Pollution occurs when the environment is contaminated by various wastes, chemicals and harmful substances.

43. Which country is top in the list of average waste per person?

a) USA

b) China

c) India

d) Germany

Explanation

The average person in USA produces 2.58kg of wastes every day. In India its about 0.45kg per person every day.

44. Which of this process is used to generate electricity?

a) Heating

b) Incineration

c) Landfill

d) Compost

Explanation

The burning of solid waste in incinerator is called Incineration. Huge amount of heat is produced during incineration and this kills all germs in that wastes. This heat can also be used to produce electricity.

45. Which is the least favorable method of waste management?

a) Compost

b) Reuse

c) Landfill

d) Avoid

Explanation

Solid waste management includes various methods to deal with the wastes. The most favorable way is avoid the wastages and the least favorable way is to Landfill the waste as it decomposes very slowly.

46. What is the second R stand for in 3R’s?

a) Reuse

b) Reduce

c) Recycle

d) Renew

Explanation

Three R techniques is most preferred method in waste management. The first R is Reduce and the second is Reuse and the last one is Recycle.

47. Which of these prevent the rain water in reaching the ground?

a) Fertilizers

b) Plastics

c) Metal scraps

d) Garden wastes

Explanation

The wastes which are burnt will leave ashes into the soil some of these will be washed out by the rain water. Some of the rain water never reaches the ground which is collected in the plastic bags and wastes at the dumps.

48. Which of these are also known as the interconnected food chains?

a) Food model

b) Food web

c) Energy cycle

d) Energy pyramid

Explanation

Consumers have different sources of food in an ecosystem. All the food chains within a ecosystem are interconnected together and results in a Food web.

49. Which of these wastes cannot be broken by living organisms?

a) Biodegradable waste

b) Non-biodegradable waste

c) Domestic waste

d) Chemical wastes

Explanation

Materials that cannot be broken by the living organisms are called as Non-Biodegradable wastes. Plastics, Metal scraps and Cans and bottles are some examples of these types of waste.

50. What is the other name of consumers?

a) Autotrophs

b) Herbivores

c) Decomposers

d) Heterotrophs

Explanation

Organisms which cannot produce their own food eat other organisms as food. These are called Consumers and also Heterotrophs.

6th Science Lesson 17 Questions in English

17] Plants In Daily Life

1. Name the study of relationship between people and plants and use of plants?

a) Botany

b) Agronomy

c) Bryology

d) Economic botany

Explanation

Economic botany is the study of relationships between people and plants and the use of plants in economy. It deals with all pervading plants in relation to human welfare as food, clothing, shelter and medicine.

2. What are the indirect usages of plants for mankind?

a) Livestock’s

b) Environment

c) a and b

d) None of the above

Explanation

The Benefits of indirect usage includes in Domestic, Commercial, Environmental or aesthetic. This indirect usage includes the needs of Man’s Livestock and the maintenance of the environment.

3. Largest part of a Nation’s economy depends on,

a) Automobiles

b) Agriculture

c) Industries

d) Travel and Tourism

Explanation

Plants bring about economy to the country in large extent and it is a fact that the wealth of any country largely depends upon its agriculture and plant products.

4. From which plants natural coir can be obtained?

a) Jute

b) Coconut

c) Cotton

d) a and b

Explanation

Natural coir can be obtained from jute plants and coconut husk.

5. Plants can be classified into ________ types based on their Economic usages.

a) 5

b) 4

c) 6

d) 7

Explanation

Varieties of plants are used for mankind in various ways. Based on their economic values and uses plants are classified into six types.

6. Assertion (A): Plants are the main source of food for Humans.

Reasoning (R): Different parts of plants could be consumed as food.

a) Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R is true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is False but R is True

d) Both A and R is False.

Explanation

Plants are the main source of food. We can eat different parts of plants such as root, stem, leaf , seeds and fruits.

7. Plant foods can be classified as,

a) Vegetables

b) Cereals

c) Pulses

d) All the above

Explanation

We eat different parts of the plants. We can classify the food plants as Vegetables, Cereals and Pulses.

8. Match

i) Roots A. Potato

ii) Leaves B. Guava

iii) Stems C. Carrot

iv) Flowers D. Cabbages

v) Fruits E. Cauliflower

a) CDAEB

b) ABDEC

c) EDBCA

d) DCBAE

Explanation

The vegetables we consume are from different parts of plants. Carrot is from the root and cabbages from leaves, potato from stems, cauliflower from the flower part and Guava is a Fruit form from the plant.

9. Pulses are secured in _______ of the legume family plants.

a) Leaves

b) Pods

c) Roots

d) Stems

Explanation

Pulses are edible seeds of the legume family plants. Pulses are secured in pods. Bengal gram and green bean are examples for pulses.

10. Which country leads in the production of vegetables and fruits?

a) China

b) India

c) USA

d) Mexico

Explanation

China leads in the production of vegetables and fruits in the world. India is the second producer of fruits and vegetables in the world.

11. Which organization of UN celebrates The World Food Day?

a) International Monetary Fund

b) International Fund for agricultural development

c) UNESCO

d) Food and Agriculture Organization

Explanation

Each year Food day is celebrated by the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations. World food day adopts a different theme each year.

12. Pick out the spices in the given list.

a) Onions

b) Neem

c) Turmeric

d) Millet

Explanation

Spices are got from the bark or roots of certain plants. These are used for coloring or preserving food.

13. What is the aim of Celebrating World Food Day?

a) To promote agriculture

b) To ensure food for all.

c) To ensure food security and nutritious diets for all.

d) To promote Organic Agriculture

Explanation

The aim of celebration of World food day is to promote worldwide awareness and action for those who suffer from hunger and to ensure food security and nutritious diet for all.

14. What is the usage of medicinal plants?

a) Cure fever

b) Drug preparation

c) Act against fungi, insects

d) All the above

Explanation

Some of the plants are good in healing our diseases. These are called as Medicinal plants. The chemical compounds present in these plants act against insects, Fungi and certain germs. They are also used in Drug preparations.

15. Match

i) Amla A. leaves

ii) Tulsi B. Rhizome

iii) Aloe C. Fruit

iv) Neem D. Seed

v) Turmeric E. Bark

a) DCBAE

b) CDAEB

c) ADCBE

d) EDBCA

Explanation

The plants which have highest medicinal values are the fruit part of Amla, Seeds of Tulsi, Leaves of aloe plant, Bark of neem tree and the rhizome part of turmeric plant.

16. What is the usage of natural fibers?

a) Thread

b) Rope

c) Cloth

d) All the above

Explanation

Fiber yielding plants are classified based on the usage and their parts used. Cotton is used in textile fibers as cloth and thread , coconut fibers are used for making rope.

17. How many types of plants can be classified based on the usage?

a) 1

b) 4

c) 5

d) 3

Explanation

Fiber yielding plants can be classified to three types based on their usage.

18. Which part of plants can be used for making fibers?

a) Stem

b) Leaf

c) Husk

d) Seed hairs

e) All the above

Explanation

Fiber yielding plants can be also classified based on the parts they are used. These fibers can be got from seed hairs, stem, leaves and husk of a plant.

19. Which state is in the top list in the production of Jute?

a) Odisha

b) West Bengal

c) Tripura

d) Uttar Pradesh

Explanation

In India jute is grown in seven states. West Bengal alone contributes 50% of raw jute production in India.

20. What are the features of woods that make it to use for buildings and making furniture?

a) Durability

b) Temperature Resistant

c) Stylish Finishing

d) All the above

Explanation

Wood needed for the construction of buildings and making of furniture from certain plants. We use woods for their features like durability, Stylish finish and resistance to temperature changes.

21. Which of these is used to make wooden construction and high quality furniture?

a) Softwood

b) Hardwood

c) Timber

d) Stems

Explanation

Hardwoods are angiosperms, the largest group of land plants. High quality furniture, decks , flooring and wooden construction are made with hardwoods.

22. State the softwood from the below list?

a) Neem

b) Pine

c) Teak

d) Jackfruit

Explanation

Softwoods are from gymnosperm trees. It has a wide range of applications as making plywood, boxes and paper making. Pine tree is an example of softwood.

23. Plants grown for aesthetic reasons are called as_____.

a) Ornamental plants

b) Timber yielding plants

c) Food plants

d) None of the above

Explanation

Plants which are grown for aesthetic reasons are called as ornamental plants producing flowers from floral plant is the important section of horticulture.

24. Which plant is also called as Flame of the Forest?

a) Allamanda

b) Delonix

c) Mandarai

d) Crotons

Explanation

To decorate houses, gardens and parks lot of plants are used. Delonix tree is one kind which is also known as Flame of the forest.

25. For what reasons animals rely on plants?

a) Food

b) Shelter

c) Food and shelter

d) None of the above

Explanation

Animals rely on plants for their food and shelter. This benefits not only the animals and also plants.

26. Which is used for Silk production?

a) Silkworms

b) Flatworm

c) Ribbon worm

d) Spiny headed worm

Explanation

Silkworms feed on mulberry leaves and live of mulberry plants. This relationship is economically useful in silk production.

27. What is the key reason for cross pollination?

a) Plants

b) Bright flowers

c) Insects

d) Honey

Explanation

Bright colors of flowers, smell attract insects. These insects go from flower to flower where they leave pollen grains from their body. This results in cross pollination.

28. Which of these are the best pollinators?

a) Bees

b) Silkworms

c) Birds

d) Insects

Explanation

Insects are the key reason for the cross pollination and formation of vegetables and fruits. Bees are considered to be the best pollinators.

29. Which part of the bird is used to germinate seeds easily?

a) Nervous system

b) Mouth

c) Digestive system

d) Food pipes

Explanation

Animals and birds play an important role in spreading seeds of various plants. The digestive system enzyme in the digestive system softens the protective layer of the seeds and makes it easier to germinate.

30. Assertion (A): Plants maintain soil fertility.

Reasoning (R): Droppings and shedding of leaves, fruits and other parts degrade in soil.

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is False but R is True

d) Both A and R are False.

Explanation

Plants maintain the soil fertility. Their droppings and shedding of leaves, fruits and other parts degrade in the soil to form humus. This humus increases soil fertility.

31. Blue green algae are used to fix ______ in the soil for agriculture.

a) Oxygen

b) Nitrogen

c) Potassium

d) Phosphorous

Explanation

Plants like blue green algae and bacteria like pseudomonas are used to fix nitrogen in the soil for agriculture.

32. Which of these prevent soil erosion?

a) Building dams

b) Agricultural patterns

c) Dense plants

d) None of the above

Explanation

Plants grown in dense will prevent Soil erosion in times of flood, wind. The fertile top layer of soil is carried away by air and water.

33. What is the significance of bio-Fuels?

a) Less toxic

b) Less expensive

c) Both a and b

d) Only a

Explanation

Some plants are grown for the sake of Bio-fuels. Plant fuels are less toxic and also less expensive.

34. Which is the Headquarters of CDRI of India?

a) New Delhi

b) Bangalore

c) Lucknow

d) Chennai

Explanation

Central Drug Research Institute headquarters is located in Lucknow, India.

35. Which of this disease is cured by Palak’s nano formation?

a) Osteoarthritis

b) Skin disease

c) Ulcer

d) Flu

Explanation

Osteoarthritis is a joint disease affecting joints and knees. In India CDRI have made a Nano formulation from the palak spinach to cure the disease.

36. Which one is used as a fertilizer?

a) Neem oil

b) Neem oil coated Urea

c) Ginger

d) Palm leaves

Explanation

Fertilizers are used to increase agricultural productivity. Indian scientist made neem coated urea which releases nitrogen gradually. It also reduces the impact of urea on an environment.

37. What are essential for cross pollination of plants?

a) Animals

b) Pests

c) Birds

d) All the above

Explanation

Animals, Pests and birds are essential for cross pollination of plants. These pollinators need to be protected to produce the best yield.

38. What kind of wood is Plywood?

a) Hardwood

b) Softwood

c) Composite wood

d) None of the above

Explanation

Finely cut wooden boards from the wood are layered one above the other to make plywood. This is a type of composite wood.

39. Which of the plant has the below qualities

i) Improves immunity

ii) Fruit is used as medicine

iii) Cures vitamin C diseases

a) Tulsi

b) Amla

c) Aloe

d) Orange

Explanation

Amla plant is used for its highest medicinal values. The fruit of this plant is used to improve immunity. This helps in curing vitamin C diseases.

40. Which part of cotton plant is used as fiber?

a) Seed hairs

b) Leaves

c) Husk

d) Stem

Explanation

Based on the parts of the plants fiber yielding plants can be classified. For example cotton is got from the seed hairs of its plant.

41. What are the primary purposes of spices?

a) Flavoring

b) Coloring

c) Preserving

d) All the above

Explanation

A spice comes from the bark or roots of certain plants, leaves, flowers and stems of plants. These are primarily used for flavoring, coloring or preserving food.

42. Which region the spice plants belongs to?

a) Tropical region

b) Subtropical region

c) Temperate region

d) Polar region

Explanation

Spices are aromatic parts of tropical plants. These are used to flavor the food.

43. Which does not belong to the flower based food?

a) Cauliflower

b) Broccoli

c) Banana Flower

d) Pomegranate

Explanation

Mankind uses different parts of plants for food. Cauliflower, Broccoli and banana flower are the flower parts of a plant which is consumed as food.

44. What are the usages of Vegetable oils?

a) Food

b) Soap and detergents

c) Paints

d) All the above

Explanation

Plants are used to produce natural vegetable oils. These oils are used in Food preparations, Saponification process and in making of paints and varnishes.

45. Which parts of plants are used as Tea?

a) Flower

b) Leaves

c) Stems

d) Fruits

Explanation

Plants are used for coffee and tea production. The tea is naturally got from its leaves. These tea leaves are dried and used for Tea making process.